Phase II Final Prep Flashcards
how does plaque form
bacteria/microorganisms combine with saliva, carbs, acid, debris to form a soft sticky coating
how old is mature plaque
24-48 hours
how old is new plaque
12-24 hours
what are types of accumulations
acquired pellicle, material alba, food debris
what factors contribute to plaque accumulation
diet rich in fermentable carbohydrates, high bacteria count in oral cavity, poor oral hygiene
how do we remove plaque
brushing, flossing, polishing
2 ions that help with the formation of calculus
phosphorus, calcium
why does calculus form
lack of removal of plaque, mature plaque turns into calculus
what is cariogenic bacteria
bacteria producing or promoting decay
demineralization occurs when what dissolves
calcium and phosphate
when calcium and phosphate are redeposited this is called
remineralization
what is the concentration of fluoride in water
1ppm
who is a good candidate for fluoride supplements
love in a non fluoridated region, high risk of caries, hypersensitive teeth, xerostomia
flour of pumice is used to remove what kind of stains
heavy stains [most abrasive]
calcium carbonate is used to remove what kind of stains
light to medium
what is the most common type of abrasive in toothpaste and trophy paste
calcium carbonate
what is the correct polishing stroke
short, intermittent, overlapping
contraindications for polishing
no stains present, root/cementum exposure, high risk caries, sensitive teeth, newly erupted teeth
gingivitis is induced by
plaque
is gingivitis reversible
yes
gingivitis presents itself as
inflammation of the gums; no bone or tissue loss
a patient with periodontitis will present
tissue loss/destruction
when should you floss
before brushing
what does dentrifice remove
removes biofilm, stain, and other soft deposits
what are the components of dentrifice [7]
detergent, abrasive, binder, humectant, preservative, flavouring, and water
how far should the operators face be away from the patients
12-14 inches
the operators zone of a right handed dentist would be
7-12 oclock
what are the steps in the learning ladder [5]
unawareness, awareness, self interest, involvement, habit
ethics pertains to what
what you should do
ethics is characterized by
nonmalificence, confidentiality, justice, veracity, autonomy and beneficence
respondent superior is
legal doctrine which holds employer liable for acts of employees
malpractice is considered to be
professional negligence
what kind of wax adds depth or length to impression trays
utility wax
when taking an impression what temp of water is ideal and what temp of water slows setting time of impression
ideal water temp is room temp [21 C] ; cold water slows setting time
when selecting a tray for impressions what is important to consider
comfy for pt
should extend slightly beyond facial surfaces of teeth
extends 2-3mm beyond 3rd molar
catches retromolar/tuberosity
allows 2-3mm of material btwn tray and incised/occlusal edges of teeth
a matrix system is used to
create a temporary inter proximal wall for placement of restorative material
how should you contour a matrix band and when should you do it
contour using a burnisher, once band is placed you should burnish it against inner surfaces
what are the indications for sealants
deep pits + fissures newly erupted teeth adjacent tooth has restorations no proximal decay susceptible to caries (preventative measure)
oral irrigation (waterpik) is beneficial to patients who
have gingivitis, implants, orthodontist appliances or diabetes, poor dexterity
absorbable sutures include
catgut, vicryl, monocryl
non absorbable sutures include
nylon, polyester fiber, silk
when should sutures be removed
5-7 days after placement
how should you remove sutures
knotted end is pulled TOWARD incision line
contraindications of a dental dam
secondary herpes, claustrophobia, asthma, cracks/blisters on vermillion border
what nerve is the primary source of innervation in the oral cavity
trigeminal nerve
the nasopalatine nerve passes through what
incisive foramen
vitamin A deficiency is characterized by
night blindness, dry scaly skin
vitamin d deficiency is characterized by
by rickets in children, calcium loss from bone in adults
vitamin c deficiency is characterized by
swollen bleeding gums, slow wound healing
vitamin k deficiency is characterized by
bleeding disorders
where would you store waste amalgam
hazardous waste
contraindications for topical anesthetic
redness, edema, sloughing of tissue, inflammation, allergy
what is the average pulse of an adult
60-100 bpm
average respiration rate for adults
10-20 breaths per minute
average blood pressure of adult
120/80
what is a copayment
clients assume some responsibility of coverage [ex. 80% coverage, 20% responsibility]
at what age does the first permanent maxillary molar erupt
6-7 years
what are the first teeth to typically erupt in primary dentition
mandibular centrals
what are the three salivary glands
parotid, sublingual, submandibular
what salivary gland is associated with the Wharton’s duct
submandibular
the salivary gland associated with the stensons duct
parotid
what salivary gland supplies the most saliva to the oral cavity
submandibular
contraindications of nitrous oxide
respiratory infection, pregnant, multiple sclerosis, psychiatric pt, alcoholic, frequent narcotics user
overbite is characterized by what type of overlap
vertical
overjet is the excessive protrusion of the max incisors and is characterized by what type of overlap
horizontal
a fibroblast is
pulp forming
an ameloblast is
enamel forming
odontoblasts form
dentin
silence is golden refers to
res gestae
who is the father of modern dentistry
pierre fauchard
T/F
an act of omission is defined as failure to perform an act that a reasonable professional would
true
4 organizational levels of human body in order
cells, tissues, organs, body systems
which brachial arch forms the bones muscles and nerves of the face
first brachial arch
histodifferentiation occurs during which growth period
bell stage
growth period also known as proliferation
cap stage
the portion of the tooth that is visible in the mouth is known as the
clinical crown
the periodontal consist of
cementum, alveolar bone, periodontal ligaments
oblique fibres resist forces placed on
the long axis of the tooth
bones of the cranium
fontal, occipital, parietal, temporal, sphenoid, ethmoid
tmj is made up of the following 3 parts
glenoid fossa, articular eminence, condyloid process
caries affecting the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth without affecting incised edge
class 3
what type of latex allergy is a serious medical emergency
type 1
apathos ulcers commonly known as
canker sores
are most patients with hairy leukoplakia HIV positive
yes
what colour is sub gingival calculus
dark green or black
what hepatitis is an infectious form of hepatitis
hep c
a critical instrument touches
bone or penetrates soft tissues
increasing kvp increases
density
purpose of coupling agents in composite material
strengthens resistance. by chemically bonding filler to resin matrix
what resrtoatve material releases fluoride after placement
glass ionomer
function of a dental liner
protects plural tissue from irritation
where is liner placed
deepest portion of prep
what materials is a varnish contraindicated under
composite resins and glass ionomer
where is a base applied in the prep
entire plural floor [1-2mm thickness]
Zoe is most often used in procedures when what may be a concern
postoperative sensitivity
is an impression a negative or positive reproduction
negative
main components of alginate are
potassium alginate calcium sulfate trisodium phosphate diatomaceous earth zinc oxide potassium titanium fluoride
what impression material will a dentist apply first to a prepped tooth- heavy or light bodied
light body
which brachial arch forms the bones, muscles, nerves of the face and lower lip
first brachial arch [mandibular arch]
3 growth periods in tooth formation are
bud, cap, bell
what is the most abundant mineral component of enamel
hydroxyapatite [calcium]
class 2 occlusion is also known as ____ and is characterized by
distoclusion; mesiobuccal cusp of max 1st molar occludes medial to mesiobuccal groove of band 1st molar. protrusion of upper lip
class 3 occlusion is also known as __ and is characterized by
mesioclusion; mandible protruded
class 2 div 1 the central anteriors are
flared outward
