Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dental Assisting > Phase II Final Prep > Flashcards

Phase II Final Prep Flashcards

1
Q

how does plaque form

A

bacteria/microorganisms combine with saliva, carbs, acid, debris to form a soft sticky coating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how old is mature plaque

A

24-48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how old is new plaque

A

12-24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are types of accumulations

A

acquired pellicle, material alba, food debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what factors contribute to plaque accumulation

A

diet rich in fermentable carbohydrates, high bacteria count in oral cavity, poor oral hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do we remove plaque

A

brushing, flossing, polishing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2 ions that help with the formation of calculus

A

phosphorus, calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

why does calculus form

A

lack of removal of plaque, mature plaque turns into calculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is cariogenic bacteria

A

bacteria producing or promoting decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

demineralization occurs when what dissolves

A

calcium and phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when calcium and phosphate are redeposited this is called

A

remineralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the concentration of fluoride in water

A

1ppm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

who is a good candidate for fluoride supplements

A

love in a non fluoridated region, high risk of caries, hypersensitive teeth, xerostomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

flour of pumice is used to remove what kind of stains

A

heavy stains [most abrasive]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

calcium carbonate is used to remove what kind of stains

A

light to medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the most common type of abrasive in toothpaste and trophy paste

A

calcium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the correct polishing stroke

A

short, intermittent, overlapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

contraindications for polishing

A

no stains present, root/cementum exposure, high risk caries, sensitive teeth, newly erupted teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

gingivitis is induced by

A

plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

is gingivitis reversible

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

gingivitis presents itself as

A

inflammation of the gums; no bone or tissue loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

a patient with periodontitis will present

A

tissue loss/destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when should you floss

A

before brushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what does dentrifice remove

A

removes biofilm, stain, and other soft deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the components of dentrifice [7]

A

detergent, abrasive, binder, humectant, preservative, flavouring, and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how far should the operators face be away from the patients

A

12-14 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the operators zone of a right handed dentist would be

A

7-12 oclock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the steps in the learning ladder [5]

A

unawareness, awareness, self interest, involvement, habit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ethics pertains to what

A

what you should do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ethics is characterized by

A

nonmalificence, confidentiality, justice, veracity, autonomy and beneficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

respondent superior is

A

legal doctrine which holds employer liable for acts of employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

malpractice is considered to be

A

professional negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what kind of wax adds depth or length to impression trays

A

utility wax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

when taking an impression what temp of water is ideal and what temp of water slows setting time of impression

A

ideal water temp is room temp [21 C] ; cold water slows setting time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when selecting a tray for impressions what is important to consider

A

comfy for pt
should extend slightly beyond facial surfaces of teeth
extends 2-3mm beyond 3rd molar
catches retromolar/tuberosity
allows 2-3mm of material btwn tray and incised/occlusal edges of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

a matrix system is used to

A

create a temporary inter proximal wall for placement of restorative material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how should you contour a matrix band and when should you do it

A

contour using a burnisher, once band is placed you should burnish it against inner surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the indications for sealants

A 
deep pits + fissures 
newly erupted teeth
adjacent tooth has restorations
no proximal decay 
susceptible to caries (preventative measure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

oral irrigation (waterpik) is beneficial to patients who

A

have gingivitis, implants, orthodontist appliances or diabetes, poor dexterity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

absorbable sutures include

A

catgut, vicryl, monocryl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

non absorbable sutures include

A

nylon, polyester fiber, silk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

when should sutures be removed

A

5-7 days after placement

43
Q

how should you remove sutures

A

knotted end is pulled TOWARD incision line

44
Q

contraindications of a dental dam

A

secondary herpes, claustrophobia, asthma, cracks/blisters on vermillion border

45
Q

what nerve is the primary source of innervation in the oral cavity

A

trigeminal nerve

46
Q

the nasopalatine nerve passes through what

A

incisive foramen

47
Q

vitamin A deficiency is characterized by

A

night blindness, dry scaly skin

48
Q

vitamin d deficiency is characterized by

A

by rickets in children, calcium loss from bone in adults

49
Q

vitamin c deficiency is characterized by

A

swollen bleeding gums, slow wound healing

50
Q

vitamin k deficiency is characterized by

A

bleeding disorders

51
Q

where would you store waste amalgam

A

hazardous waste

52
Q

contraindications for topical anesthetic

A

redness, edema, sloughing of tissue, inflammation, allergy

53
Q

what is the average pulse of an adult

A

60-100 bpm

54
Q

average respiration rate for adults

A

10-20 breaths per minute

55
Q

average blood pressure of adult

A

120/80

56
Q

what is a copayment

A

clients assume some responsibility of coverage [ex. 80% coverage, 20% responsibility]

57
Q

at what age does the first permanent maxillary molar erupt

A

6-7 years

58
Q

what are the first teeth to typically erupt in primary dentition

A

mandibular centrals

59
Q

what are the three salivary glands

A

parotid, sublingual, submandibular

60
Q

what salivary gland is associated with the Wharton’s duct

A

submandibular

61
Q

the salivary gland associated with the stensons duct

A

parotid

62
Q

what salivary gland supplies the most saliva to the oral cavity

A

submandibular

63
Q

contraindications of nitrous oxide

A

respiratory infection, pregnant, multiple sclerosis, psychiatric pt, alcoholic, frequent narcotics user

64
Q

overbite is characterized by what type of overlap

A

vertical

65
Q

overjet is the excessive protrusion of the max incisors and is characterized by what type of overlap

A

horizontal

66
Q

a fibroblast is

A

pulp forming

67
Q

an ameloblast is

A

enamel forming

68
Q

odontoblasts form

A

dentin

69
Q

silence is golden refers to

A

res gestae

70
Q

who is the father of modern dentistry

A

pierre fauchard

71
Q

T/F

an act of omission is defined as failure to perform an act that a reasonable professional would

A

true

72
Q

4 organizational levels of human body in order

A

cells, tissues, organs, body systems

73
Q

which brachial arch forms the bones muscles and nerves of the face

A

first brachial arch

74
Q

histodifferentiation occurs during which growth period

A

bell stage

75
Q

growth period also known as proliferation

A

cap stage

76
Q

the portion of the tooth that is visible in the mouth is known as the

A

clinical crown

77
Q

the periodontal consist of

A

cementum, alveolar bone, periodontal ligaments

78
Q

oblique fibres resist forces placed on

A

the long axis of the tooth

79
Q

bones of the cranium

A

fontal, occipital, parietal, temporal, sphenoid, ethmoid

80
Q

tmj is made up of the following 3 parts

A

glenoid fossa, articular eminence, condyloid process

81
Q

caries affecting the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth without affecting incised edge

A

class 3

82
Q

what type of latex allergy is a serious medical emergency

A

type 1

83
Q

apathos ulcers commonly known as

A

canker sores

84
Q

are most patients with hairy leukoplakia HIV positive

A

yes

85
Q

what colour is sub gingival calculus

A

dark green or black

86
Q

what hepatitis is an infectious form of hepatitis

A

hep c

87
Q

a critical instrument touches

A

bone or penetrates soft tissues

88
Q

increasing kvp increases

A

density

89
Q

purpose of coupling agents in composite material

A

strengthens resistance. by chemically bonding filler to resin matrix

90
Q

what resrtoatve material releases fluoride after placement

A

glass ionomer

91
Q

function of a dental liner

A

protects plural tissue from irritation

92
Q

where is liner placed

A

deepest portion of prep

93
Q

what materials is a varnish contraindicated under

A

composite resins and glass ionomer

94
Q

where is a base applied in the prep

A

entire plural floor [1-2mm thickness]

95
Q

Zoe is most often used in procedures when what may be a concern

A

postoperative sensitivity

96
Q

is an impression a negative or positive reproduction

A

negative

97
Q

main components of alginate are

A 
potassium alginate
calcium sulfate
trisodium phosphate
diatomaceous earth
zinc oxide
potassium titanium fluoride
98
Q

what impression material will a dentist apply first to a prepped tooth- heavy or light bodied

A

light body

99
Q

which brachial arch forms the bones, muscles, nerves of the face and lower lip

A

first brachial arch [mandibular arch]

100
Q

3 growth periods in tooth formation are

A

bud, cap, bell

101
Q

what is the most abundant mineral component of enamel

A

hydroxyapatite [calcium]

102
Q

class 2 occlusion is also known as ____ and is characterized by

A

distoclusion; mesiobuccal cusp of max 1st molar occludes medial to mesiobuccal groove of band 1st molar. protrusion of upper lip

103
Q

class 3 occlusion is also known as __ and is characterized by

A

mesioclusion; mandible protruded

104
Q

class 2 div 1 the central anteriors are

A

flared outward

Dental Assisting (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions