Pharmacology- Regal/Trachte Flashcards

1
Q

What viral envelope protein binds to CD4 on host T-cells?

A

gp120

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2
Q

What are the co-receptors found on T-cells that the HIV virus also needs to bind?

A

CXCR4 (later) or CCR5 (early)

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3
Q

What host transcription factor binds to LTR and acts as a promoter for the HIV viral genome?

A

NFkB!!!!! is a transcription factor that binds to long terminal repeats and acts as a promoter for viral genes

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4
Q

CD4+ count less than what is considered AIDS?

A

less than 200

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5
Q

What is the main cause of reduced T-cells in HIV?

A

Provirus (envelope proteins inserted in host membrane) can bind to non-infected cells to induce autophagy

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6
Q

What is the difference between a nuceloside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and a nucleoTide reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

A

The nucleoside inhibitors require phosphorylation by cellular enzymes to the triphosphate form to be active

Happens in cytosol where RT is

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7
Q

Zidovudine

A

nuscleoSide reverse transcriptase inhibitor

competitively inhibits RT and terminates DNA production

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8
Q

Lamivudine

A

nuscleoSide reverse transcriptase inhibitor

competitively inhibits RT and terminates DNA production

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9
Q

Emtricitabine

A

nuscleoSide reverse transcriptase inhibitor

competitively inhibits RT and terminates DNA production

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10
Q

Abacavir

A

nuscleoSide reverse transcriptase inhibitor

competitively inhibits RT and terminates DNA production

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11
Q

Tenofovir

A

nucleoTide reverse transcriptase inhibitor

*already phosphorylated!!

competitively inhibits RT and terminates DNA production

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12
Q

What are the major toxicities of NRTIs?

A

Mitochondrial toxicity= lactic acidosis
Hepatic steatosis = fatty liver
Fat redistribution
Hyperlipidemia

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13
Q

Efavirnez

A

Non-nucleoside RT inhibitor

Binds DIRECTLY to RT (at a site distinct from the NRTI)

  • Does NOT require phosphorylation to be effective
  • No cross resistance with NRTIs
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14
Q

Etravirine

A

Binds DIRECTLY to RT (at a site distinct from the NRTI)

  • Does NOT require phosphorylation to be effective
  • No cross resistance with NRTIs
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15
Q

Atazanavir

A

Protease inhibitor

-Inhibits the protease responsible for post-translational cleavage of the Gag-Pol polyprotein (cannot fold properly).

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16
Q

Ritonavir

A

Protease inhibitor

-Inhibits the protease responsible for post-translational cleavage of the Gag-Pol polyprotein (cannot fold properly).

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17
Q

Darunavir

A

Protease inhibitor

-Inhibits the protease responsible for post-translational cleavage of the Gag-Pol polyprotein (cannot fold properly).

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18
Q

Enfuviritde (T-20)

A

Fusion inhibitor

Binds to gp41 (transmembrane envelope glycoprotein) and prevents conformational change so fusion with host does not occur

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19
Q

Raltegravir

A

Integrase inhibitor

Binds to integrase, and inhibits strand transfer (the final step for provirus integration)

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20
Q

Maraviroc

A

CCR5 antagonist

Binds specifically and selectively to host CCR5 (one of the co-receptors used by HIV to gain entry into the host cell)

**note will not work against HIV that utilizes CXCR-4
Resistance if HIV switches chemokine receptors

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21
Q

Why would you add a low does of ritonavir to an HIV regimen?

A
  • Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor that is poorly tolerated
  • It is used at lower doses to increase the serum concentrations of other protease inhibitors and decrease the dosage frequency of other protease inhibitors
  • POTENT INHIBITOR or CYP3A4 which is the cytochrome that metabolizes a number of other protease inhibitors and decreases their effectiveness
22
Q

Rifampin

A

Specifically binds to and inhibits mycobacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Blocks RNA synthesis/ transcription

Most active mycobacterial agent available- bactericidial activity against dividing and non-dividing M. tuberculosis with sterilizing activity

23
Q

Isoniazid

A

Blocks myobacterial reductase and inhibits mycolic acid synthesis (essential requirement for cell wall)

Prodrug that is activated my mycobacterial enzyme
Bactericidial
For latent and TB disease
Effects dividing cells

24
Q

Pyrazinamide

A

Exact MOA unclear

Prodrug with metabolite active only in acidic environments

More active against slowly replicating organisms

Hepatoxicity

25
Ethambutol
Inhibition of arabinosyltransferases involved in cell wall synthesis BACTERIOSTATIC!!!! Provides synergy with other drugs Least potent against M. tuberculosis among first line drugs Ocular toxicity
26
Streptomyocin/ Aminoglycosides
Inhibits protein synthesis by binding at site on 30S mycobacterial ribosome Low level bactericidial activity Administered only IV or IM Used infrequently because of toxicity, inconvience, etc. Ototoxicity, neuropathy, renal toxicity
27
Pyridoxine
Vitamin B6! Supplemental Should be given to all HIV pts being treated with isoniazid to reduced CNS & PNS adverse effects
28
What are the four first-line drugs used for tuberculosis?
Rifampin Isoniazide Pyrazinamide Ethambutol
29
Which of the 4 first line drugs for tuberculosis is bacterioSTATIC?
Ethambutol
30
Lispro Insulin
Rapid Acting insulin Onset is 15 mins Duration 3-5 hours
31
Aspart Insulin
Rapid Acting insulins Onset is 15 mins Duration 3-5 hours
32
What is the short acting insulin called?
Regular insulin Onset 30 mins Duration 4-8 hours
33
NPH Insulin
Intermediate Acting Onset 2-4 hours Duration 10-20 hours
34
Glargine Insulin
Long Acting Onset 1-2 Duration 18-24 hours
35
When is the peak of long acting insulin?
TRICKED YA! | Theres isn't one!!!! Hehehehe
36
Mannitol
Osmotic diuretic Increases tubular fluid osmolarity Increases urine flow
37
Acetazolamide
Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitor Acts in the PCT Not used clinically
38
Furosemide
Loop diuretic Inhibits NKCC pump in thick ascending limb Stimulates PGE release (vasodilatory affect on afferent arteriole)
39
Bumetanide
Loop diuretic Inhibits NKCC pump in thick ascending limb Stimulates PGE release (vasodilatory affect on afferent arteriole)
40
Clorthalidone
Inhibits NaCl reabsorption in the early CT
41
Hydrochlorothiazide
Inhibits NaCl reabsorption in the early CT
42
Spironolactone
Competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist
43
Epleronone
Competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist
44
Amiloride
Directly block ENaC Channel in principle cells of collecting duct
45
Triamterene
Directly block ENaC Channel in principle cells of collecting duct
46
How do the thiazide diuretics cause hyperglycemia?
Thiazide binds SUR on K+ channel and opens it Leads to hyperpolarization of cell (Ca+ does NOT enter, NO increase in cAMP) Prevents insulin secretion NOTE* same MOA of how thiazides cause vasodilation to decreases systemic resistance and lower BP
47
How does glucose binding to GLUT 2 normal cause insulin release?
``` Glucose binds GLUT 2 Broken down into ATP ATP blocks K+ channel Leads to depolarization Depolarization activates Ca+ channel Ca+ enters cell- increases cAMP Increased camp causes insulin stored in vesicles to be released! ```
48
Demecocyclin
Antibiotic that has ADH antagonist properties
49
Probenicid
Inhibits renal organic acid transporter to facilitate excretion of (excretes more uric acid, treatment for gout)
50
Sulfinpyrazone
Inhibits renal organic acid transporter to facilitate excretion of (excretes more uric acid, treatment for gout)
51
Colchicine
Microtubule inhibitor to treat gout
52
Allopurinol
Xanthine oxidase inhibitor to treat gout