Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

finals flash cards 🩺 > Pharmacology (PSA) > Flashcards

Pharmacology (PSA) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the drugs associated with pancreatitis?

A

FATSHEEP
Furosemide
Azathioprine/Asparaginase
Thiazides/Tetracyclines
Statins/Sulfonamides/Sodium Valproate
Hydrochlorothiazide
Estrogens
Ethanol
Protease Inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What diabetic medications can increase risk of gangrene?

A

SGLT-2 Inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can omeprazole cause?

A

Hypomagnesaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an appropriate set of blood tests to monitor for adverse effects of Methotrexate?

A

FBC, U&E and LFTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What should be checked when taking amiodarone?

A

TFTs every six months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What drugs should be stopped before surgery?

A

Insulin
Lithium
Anticoagulants/antiplatelets
COCP/HRT
K-Sparing diuretics
Oral Hypoglycaemics
Perindoprin and other ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which patients should you avoid Metoclopramide prescription in?

A

Patients with Parkinson’s disease, due to the risk of exacerbating symptoms

Young women, due to the risk of dyskinesia, i.e. unwanted movements especially acute dystonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drug class are contraindicated in ishcaemic leg ulcers?

A

Beta blockers
Beta-blockers can cause peripheral vasoconstriction and so worsen ischaemia in peripheral vascular disease (PVD), as such this patient’s atenolol is now contraindicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What drugs may be harmful in heart failure?

A

Calcium channel blockers (e.g. verapamil, diltiazem)
Tricyclic antidepressants
Lithium
NSAIDs and COX-2 inhibitors
Corticosteroids
QT-prolonging medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can metformin cause?

A

Lactic Acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the most nephrotoxic antibiotics?

A

Gentamicin, Vancomycin and Tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

First line for paediatric status epilepticus in the community?

A

Diazepam PR
Midazolam Buccal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

First line drug for Urge incontinence

A

Oxybutynin Hydrochloride
2.5mg-3mg
PO
BD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When should you give prednisolone

A

AM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drugs increase fracture risk?

A

Steroids (e.g. Prednisolone)
PPIs
GnRH agonists (Buserelin, Goserelin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which drugs increase the risk of falls?

A

Benzodiazepines
Antidepressants (particularly TCAs and SNRIs)
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
Most antipsychotics
Opiates
Most antihypertensives (particularly diuretics and alpha-blockers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which antidiabetic drugs can cause weight gain?

A

Thiazolidinediones (e.g. Pioglitazone)
Sulfonylurea (e.g. Gliclazide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What drugs increase risk of pancreatitis?

A

Ethanol
DDP4 Inhibitors
GLP-1 analogues
Mesalazine>Sulphasalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What drugs should you stop in AKI?

A

Diuretics
ACEi/ARBs
Metformin
NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who should low oxygen therapy be reserved for?

A

COPD
Advanced CF
Severe non-cystic fibrosis bronchiectasis
Severe Kyphoscoliosis or Ankylosing spondylitis
Lung scarring in TB
MSK disorders with respiratory weakness
An overdose of opioids, benzos or other drugs causing respiratory depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ECG in hyperkalaemia

A

Absent P waves, Prolonged QRS, Peaked or ‘tall tented’ T waves, Sine wave pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the preferred route of administration for Vancomycin in C. diff

A

Orally
IV vancomycin is not as effective as it cannot reach the bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the King’s College Hospital criteria used to determine and what are they?

A

Used to determine whether Liver Transplant is needed post paracetamol ingestion
Arterial pH >7.3 after 24 hours of treatment
Or ALL of - INR >6.5 creatinine AND grade 3/4 encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the treatment for tricyclic antidepressant overdose and why?

A

Sodium Bicarbonate.

TCA overdoses cause sodium channel blocking in the myocardium which can result in arrythmias.
The first sign in QRS prolongation.
Sodium bicarbonate increases TCA protein binding, dislodging the TCAs from the sodium channel and increasing TCA elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What tests should be carried out before starting lithium therapy?

A

FBC, U&E, TFT, BMI +/- ECG before and every 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are symptoms of lithium toxicity?

A

Muscle weakness –> Dizziness –> Ataxia –> Coarse tremor –> Seizures –> Disorientation –> Coma –> Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which drugs cause hypoglycaemia?

A

Insulin, Sulphonylureas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What drugs cause hyperglycaemia?

A

Steroids, antipsychotics, thiazides, beta blockers, tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What drugs can cause constipation?

A

Opioids
Iron
CCBs (Verapamil, amlodipine)
Ondansetron and Metoclopramide
Anticholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What drugs can cause diarrhoea?

A

Antibiotics (C.Diff), Colchicine, Metformin, PPIs, Antacids contains magnesium and Laxatives

31
Q

What drugs can cause urinary retention?

A

Opioids, Anticholinergics
NSAIDs, Disopyramide
Tricyclic antidepressants

32
Q

What drugs can cause urinary incontinence?

A

Alpha-blockers, diuretics, ACTH inhibitors, Clozapine

33
Q

What drugs are cytochrome P450 INDUCERS

A

Carbamazepine
Barbiturates
Phenytoin
Rifampin
Griseofluvin
St John’s Wart
Modafinil
Cyclophosphamide

34
Q

What drugs are Cytochrome P450 INHIBITORS

A

Amiodarone
Cimetidine
Fluoroquinolones
Clarithromycin
Azole Antifungals
Grapefruit juice
Isoniazid
Ritonavir

35
Q

What dose of Adrenaline is give to an adult in anaphylaxis?

A

500micrograms of 1 in 1,000 IM

36
Q

What dose of Adrenaline is given to an adult in cardiac arrest and has a non-shockable rhythm?

A

Adrenaline 1mg as 1 in 10,000 IV

37
Q

What drug is used to treat bradycardia when there are signs of shock?

A

Atropine 500micrograms IV

38
Q

What drugs should be avoided in Pregnant patients?

A

ACEi
ARBs
Statins
Warfarin
Sulfonylureas
Retinoids (including topical)
Cytotoxic agents
Majority of antiepileptics
Certain antibiotics

39
Q

Exacerbating factors for Psoriasis?

A

Trauma Alcohol
Beta blockers
Lithium
Antimalarials (Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine)
NSAIDS
ACEi
Infliximab
Withdrawal of systemic steroids

40
Q

What drugs may worsen seizure control?

A
  • Alcohol Cocaine and Amphetamines
  • Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin
  • Aminophylline, Theophylline
  • Bupropion
  • Methylphenidate
  • Mefenamic Acid
41
Q

When is ACEi first line?

A

Under 55
T2DM

42
Q

Methotrexate monitoring?

A

Patients should have full blood count and renal and liver function tests repeated every 1–2 weeks until therapy stabilised, thereafter patients should be monitored every 2–3 months.

43
Q

What is the treatment for aspirin poisoning?

A
  • Activated Charcoal if given within 1 hour of ingesting more than 125mg/kg of aspirin.
  • IV sodium bicarbonate may be given to enhance urinary salicylate excretion
  • Haemodialysis is the treatment of choice in severe poisoning and should be considered when the plasma-salicylate concentration exceeds 700mg/litre or in the presence of severe metabolic acidosis.
44
Q

What is the treatment for tricyclic antidepressant poisoning?

A
  • Supportive measures
  • IV Lorazepam or IV Diazepam may be required to treat convulsions
  • IV infusion of Sodium Bicarbonate can arrest arrhythmias or prevent them in those with an extended QRS duration.
45
Q

What is the treatment for Benzodiazepine poisoning?

A
  • Activated Charcoal can be given within 1 hour of ingesting a significant quantity of benzodiazepine.
  • Flumazenil use can be hazardous but may prevent the need for ventilation.
46
Q

What is the first line treatment for Whooping cough?

A

Clarithromycin

47
Q

What drugs impair glucose tolerance?

A
  • Thiazides
  • Steroids
  • Tacrolimus, ciclosporin
  • Interferon-alpha
  • Nicotinic acid
  • Antipsychotics

Beta blockers cause a slight impairment of glucose tolerance. They should also be used with caution in diabetics as they interfere with the metabolic and autonomic responses to hypoglycaemia.

48
Q

What drugs can cause lung fibrosis?

A
  • Amiodarone
  • Cytotoxic agents: Busulphan, Bleomycin
  • Anti-rheumatoid drugs: Methotrexate, Sulfasalazine
  • Nitrofuratoin
  • Bromocriptine, cabergoline, pergolide
49
Q

What is the Lithium range and when should the test be taken?

A

Range= 0.4-1.0mmol/L
Take it 12 hours post-dose

50
Q

When should you take ciclosporin trough levels?

A

Immediately before dose

51
Q

When should you take Digoxin levels?

A

At least 6 hours post-dose

52
Q

First line treatment options for Acne?

A

Mild- Moderate: Benzoyl peroxide with clindamycin
Moderate-Severe: Adapalene with benzoyl peroxide + Lymecycline or doxycycline

53
Q

Initial drug treatment of STEMI?

A

DAPT. Choice of second antiplatelet depends on the planned intervention.

54
Q

What is the second antiplatelet preferred for patients undergoing primary PCI?

A

Prasugrel

55
Q

What medications should people take for secondary prevention of cardiovascular events?

A

ACEi + B-Blocker + DAPT + Statin

56
Q

What is used for the prevention of Rheumatic fever?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

57
Q

What antibiotics should be used in PPROM to prevent intra-uterine infection?

A

Erythromycin

58
Q

How long should antidepressants be continued before considering swapping due to lack of efficacy?

A

4 weeks (6weeks in the elderly)

59
Q

First line drug used in assisted alcohol withdrawal?

A

Long acting benzodiazepine such as Chlordiazepoxide

60
Q

What is the most effective form of emergency contraception?

A

Copper intra-uterine device
Can be inserted up to five days after the first UPSI in a natural menstrual cycle.

61
Q

First line for BV?

A

Oral metronidazole - Suggested duration of treatment 5-7 days (or high-dose metronidazole as a single dose)

62
Q

First line for uncomplicated chlamydia?

A

Doxycycline

63
Q

First line for uncomplicated gonorrhoea?

A

If antimicrobial susceptibility unknown –> Ceftriaxone

64
Q

First line for Pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Doxycycline + Metronidazole + Single dose of I/M Ceftriaxone or ofloxacin

65
Q

First line for early syphilis?

A

Benzathine Benzylpenicillin

66
Q

What do you give for suspected Meningitis in primary care?

A

Benzylpenicillin Sodium injection (600mg, 1.2g)
NEONATE 300 mg
CHILD 1 MONTH–11 MONTHS 300 mg
CHILD 1–9 YEARS 600 mg
CHILD 10–17 YEARS 1.2 g
ADULT 1.2 g

or if history of allergy to penicillin

Cefotaxime injection (500 mg, 1 g, 2 g)

By intravenous injection (or by intramuscular injection if venous access not available)
NEONATE 50 mg/kg
CHILD 1 MONTH–15 YEARS 50 mg/kg (max. 2 g)
CHILD 16–17 YEARS 2 g
ADULT 2 g
Note A single dose

67
Q

What does HRT increase the risk of?

A

VTE, Stroke, Endometrial cancer, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer

68
Q

What should be monitored to assess adverse effects of HRT?

A

BP

69
Q

What are some examples of preemptives and what are they used for?

A
  • Morphine for pain and breathlessness
  • Midazolam for agitation
  • Levomepromazine or Haloperidol for nausea and vomiting and delirium
  • Hyoscine Butylbromide for respiratory secretions
70
Q

What is Baclofen used for?

A

First line for muscle spasm, spasticity and cramp in palliative care.

71
Q

What are some contraindications for Beta-blockers?

A

Asthma, cardiogenic shock, hypotension, marked bradycardia, metabolic acidosis, phaechromocytoma (apart from specific use with alpha blockers), second degree AV block, severe peripheral arterial disease, sick sinus syndrome, third degree AV block, uncontrolled heart failure

72
Q

What are some contraindications for ACEi?

A

Hereditary or idiopathic angioedema; history of angioedema associated with prior ACE inhibitor therapy; the combination of an ACE inhibitor with aliskiren is contra-indicated in patients with an eGFR less than 60 mL/minute/1.73 m2; the combination of an ACE inhibitor with aliskiren is contra-indicated in patients with diabetes mellitus

73
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can unfractionated heparin cause?

A

Hyperkalaemia

finals flash cards 🩺 (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions