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Finals Flash Cards 🩺 > Infectious diseases > Flashcards

Infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What stain is used to highlight gram-positive bacteria?

A

Crystal violet

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2
Q

What classification system is used for cellulitis?

A

Eron classification

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3
Q

What are some treatment options for Influenza?

A

Oseltamivir
Zanamivir

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4
Q

Common viral causes of gastroenteritis?

A

Rotavirus
Noravirus

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5
Q

What are some causes of Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome?

A

Shigella
E.Coli 0157

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6
Q

What are the most common bacterial causes of Meningitis?

A

Neisseria Meningitides
Streptococcus Pneumoniae

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7
Q

What are the special tests for Meningitis on clinical examination?

A

Kernig’s Sign
Brudzinki’s test

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8
Q

What is the stain used for Mycobacterium Tuberculosis ?

A

Zeihl-Neelsen stain

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9
Q

What us disseminated TB called?

A

Miliary TB

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10
Q

When and why is Co-Trimoxazole used in HIV

A

When CD4<200mm3
As prophylaxis against pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

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11
Q

What is the most severe form of malaria?

A

Falciparum Malariae

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12
Q

What is the disease vector for Malaria?

A

Female Anopheles Mosquito

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13
Q

What is the treatment for severe malaria?

A

Artesunate

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14
Q

How do you diagnose cryptosporidium?

A

Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain (acid-fast stain) of the stool may reveal the characteristic red cysts of cryptosporidium

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15
Q

What are some lab findings of Legionella pneumoniae?

A

Lymphopaenia
Hyponatraemia
Deranged LFTs

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16
Q

How do you diagnose Glandular fever?

A

Heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) - suggested by NICE in 2nd week of illness

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17
Q

What bacteria are gram positive rods?

A

Actinomyces
Bacillus Anrthracis (Anthrax)
Clostridium
Diptheria
Listeria moncytogenes

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18
Q

What bacteria are gram-negative rods?

A

Escherichia coli
Haemophilus Influenzae
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
Salmonella Sp.
Shigella Sp.
Campylobacter jejuni

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19
Q

How would CSF of bacterial menigitis appear?

A

Cloudy
Low Glucose
High Protein
White cells most polymorphs

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20
Q

How would CSF of viral meningitis appear?

A

Clear/Cloudy
60-80% of plasma glucose
Normal protein
Mainly Lymphocytes

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21
Q

What is the most common organism found in central line infections?

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

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22
Q

What antibiotic is used as prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis?

A

Oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin

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23
Q

What is used to assess drug sensitivities in TB?

A

Sputum culture

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24
Q

What CXR findings would you expect in TB?

A
  • Upper lobe cavitation is the classical finding of reactivated TB
  • Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
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25
Q

What is a classical history of Yellow fever?

A

Classic description involves sudden onset of high fever, rigors, nausea & vomiting. Bradycardia may develop. A brief remission is followed by jaundice, haematemesis, oliguria

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26
Q

What are the features of Cardiovascular Lyme disease?

A

After 30 days expect heart block
Peri/myocarditis

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27
Q

What are the features of Neurological Lyme disease?

A
  • Facial nerve palsy
  • Radicular pain
  • Meningitis
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28
Q

What is the management of early Lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline

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29
Q

What is the management of disseminated Lyme disease?

A

Ceftriaxone

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30
Q

What is the investigation of choice for Legionella?

A

Urinary antigen

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31
Q

What is the most common cause of Travellers’ diarrhoea?

A

E.Coli

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32
Q

What is Brucellosis?

A

Caused by small non-motile facultative aerobic intracellular Gram-negative coccobacilli. It is the most common zoonotic infection worldwide.

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33
Q

How is Brucellosis transmitted?

A
  • Commonly contracted via consumption of untreated milk/dairy as well as raw meat or liver
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34
Q

What are the clinical features of Brucellosis?

A
  • Often non-specific, with persistent and undulant fever, weight loss, night sweats, lymphadenopathy and joint pain/myalgia or spinal tenderness
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35
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for Brucellosis?

A
  • Bone marrow culture
36
Q

What is Erysipelas?

A

Infection of the dermis and upper subcutaneous tissue

37
Q

What are some risk factors for developing Cellulitis?

A
  • Previous Cellulitis
  • Venous insufficiency
  • Immune deficiency
  • Breaks in the skin barrier
  • Obesity
  • Fissured toes or heels due to athletes foot or tinea pedis
38
Q

What is the common organism in Erysipelas?

A

Group A Beta-Haemolytic Streptococci

39
Q

What is Cholera?

A

Cholera is an acute, secretory diarrhoea caused by infection with Vibrio cholerae of the O1 and O139 serogroups. It is a severe, life-threatening disease if not treated promptly.

40
Q

What are the investigations in Cholera?

A
  • Stool culture: GOLD STANDARD
  • Rapid diagnostic tests: these can provide a diagnosis within hours but are less sensitive and specific than culture
41
Q

What is the management of Cholera?

A
  • Aggressive fluid replacement
  • Antibiotics: Doxycycline or co-trimoxazole
42
Q

What is a mild infection of C.Diff?

A

Mild infection: not associated with an increased white cell count (WCC). Typically associated with fewer than 3 episodes of loose stools per day.

43
Q

What is a moderate infection of C.Diff?

A

Moderate infection: associated with an increased WCC (but less than 15 × 109 per litre). Typically associated with 3 to 5 loose stools per day.

44
Q

What is a severe infection of C.Diff?

A

Severe infection: associated with a WCC greater than 15 × 109 per litre, or an acutely increased serum creatinine concentration (greater than 50% increase above baseline), or a temperature higher than 38.5 degrees Celsius, or evidence of severe colitis (abdominal or radiological signs).

45
Q

What is a life-threatening infection of C.Diff?

A

Life-threatening infection: symptoms and signs include hypotension, partial or complete ileus, toxic megacolon or CT evidence of severe disease.

46
Q

What is the first line investigation for C.Diff?

A

Stool culture, which must also be toxin positive

47
Q

What is the first-line treatment for C.Diff

A

ORAL vancomycin

48
Q

What is Tetanus caused by?

A

Clostridium Tetani

49
Q

What are risk factors for Tetanus?

A
  • High risk associated with wounds contaminated with garden soil, manure or caused by rusty metals
50
Q

What is the treatment of Tetanus?

A
  • Metronidazole
  • Tetanus immunoglobulin must be given
  • Supportive care, may require I+V
51
Q

What investigations might you do for COVID-19?

A
  • RT-PCR testing of an upper respiratory swab to detect SARS-CoV2 RNA
  • Chest X-ray or CT scan to identify bilateral lower lung ground glass infiltrates or other abnormalities
  • Laboratory tests to identify lymphopenia, increased D-dimer levels, elevated ferritin, and elevated LDH
52
Q

What is the treatment for Hospitalized patients with COVID-19 with a supplemental oxygen requirement?

A

Administration of Dexamethasone and Remdesivir in hospitalized patients with hypoxia requiring supplemental oxygenation

53
Q

What infectious causes might cause a cavitating lung lesion?

A
  • Bacterial such as S.Aureus, TB, Klebsiella, S.Pneumoniae
  • Fungal: Histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, candida
54
Q

What investigations should you do to confirm EBV?

A

FBC: Elevated lymphocytes
Monospot test: Should be conducted in the second week of illness

55
Q

How do you get Bacillus Cereus?

A

Mainly in reheated rice

56
Q

How do you get Clostridium Perfringens?

A

Usually found in reheated meat dishes or cooked meats

57
Q

When are antibiotics indicated in Gastroenteritis?

A
  • Systemically unwell
  • Immunosuppressed
  • Elderly
58
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of Gastroenteritis in the UK?

A

Campylobacter Jejuni

59
Q

What is the appearance of Campylobacter Jejuni on microscopy?

A

Gram-negative rods with characteristic ‘seagull’ shape

60
Q

What medication can you give in Influenza?

A

Antiviral treatment with neuraminidase inhibitors (Oseltamivir Tamiflu) if within 48 hours of symptom onset and at risk of complications

61
Q

What is Leprosy?

A

Mycobacterial disease that is endemic in a large number of developing countries which is carried by certain animals

62
Q

What are the features of disseminated lepromatous/multibacillary leprosy?

A

Where there is poor Th1 cell mediated responses so the bateria become widely disseminated
- Causes diffuse symmetrical peripheral nerve damage through demyelination of peripheral nerves as well as skin changes
- Facial changes include nose destruction and ear swellings

63
Q

How do you treat Leprosy?

A
  • Dapsone
  • Rifampicin
  • Clofazimine
64
Q

What is measles caused by and how does it spread?

A

-Measles Morbillivirus
- Transmitted via droplets from the nose, mouth, or throat of infected persons

65
Q

What investigations can you do for Measles?

A

1st: Measles-specific IgM and IgG serology (ELISA), most sensitive 3-14 days after onset of the rash.
2nd: Measles RNA detection by PCR, best for swabs taken 1-3 days after rash onset.

66
Q

What is the most common cause of Meningitis?

A

Viral meningitis, predominantly caused by enteroviruses

67
Q

What are the CSF features of Bacterial meningitis?

A
  • May be clear or turbid
  • 100-200 PMNs
  • Culture results positive (may be negative depending on how heavily infected the meninges are)
  • Protein raised due to bacterial protein contamination
  • Low glucose as bacteria use as an energy source
68
Q

What are the CSF features of Viral meningitis?

A
  • Clearly or slightly turbid
    -15-500x10 9 lymphocytes
  • Negative culture results
  • 0.5-1g/L protein,glucose normal
69
Q

What are the CSF features of Tubercular Meningitis?

A
  • Clear or slightly turbin
  • Fibrin web may develop
  • 30-500x10 9 lymphocytes plus PMNs, negative gram staining
  • Protein 1-6g/L
  • Glucose 0-2.2
70
Q

What is empirical antibiotic therapy for suspected bacterial meningitis?

A

2g of IV Ceftriaxone twice daily with IV amoxicillin.

71
Q

What are some complication of Meningitis?

A
  • Septic shock
  • Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
  • Coma
  • Subdural effusions
  • Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
  • Seizures
  • Delayed complications: Hearing loss, cranial nerve dysfunction, hydrocephalus, intellectual deficits, ataxia, blindness
  • Death
72
Q

What is the treatment of Cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Initiation therapy with IV Amphotericin B and oral flucytosine for 2 weeks, followed by maintenance therapy with oral fluconazole for 8 weeks, followed by long-term low dose oral fluconazole as maintenance therapy

73
Q

What investigations can you do for Mumps?

A

Usually clinical - need to notify the local Health Protection Unit whenever it is considered.
Need laboratory confirmation using oral fluid sample (salivary IgM)
Can use serum serology (IgM or IgG)
High-resolution ultrasound can differentiate orchitis from torsion.

74
Q

What antibiotics should be given for an animal bite?

A

Co-Amoxiclav

75
Q

What pathogen is associated with pneumonia in alcoholics?

A

Klebisella

76
Q

What is Staph Aureus?

A

A Gram POSITIVE, Catalase POSITIVE and Coagulase POSITIVE organism

77
Q

How do you differentiate between staphylococci and streptococci?

A

Whether they may catalase or not

Staph makes catalase whereas streptococcus does not

78
Q

What are genital warts caused by?

A

90% are caused by HPV 6 and 11

79
Q

What is the incubation period of Ebola?

80
Q

How do you diagnose Leptospirosis?

81
Q

How do you treat leptospirosis?

A

High-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline

82
Q

Give examples of Live Attenuated vaccines?

A

BCG
MMR
Oral polio
Yellow fever
Oral Typhoid

83
Q

What is the percentage probability that a unmedicated HIV positive woman gives birth to a HIV seropositive child?

84
Q

What investigations would you do to confirm C. Diff?

A

Stool/faeces sample sent for Cdiff PCR/microscopy and culture
Testing for C.diff toxin

85
Q

How is C.Diff spread?

A

Direct contact person to person from environmental contamination

86
Q

What is the mode of transmission for EBV?

A

Salivary exchange

87
Q

What are some of the complications of infectious mononucleosis?

A
  • Post viral chronic fatigue syndrome
  • Splenic rupture
  • Guillain barre syndrome
  • Encephalitis
  • Meningitis
  • Hepatitis

Finals Flash Cards 🩺 (32 decks)

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