Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Finals Flash Cards 🩺 > Gastroenterology > Flashcards

Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

What is FIT testing used for?

A

Screening for Bowel cancer, looking for faecal occult blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the stages of Alcoholic liver disease?

A
  1. Alcohol related fatty liver
  2. Alcoholic hepatitis
  3. Cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Recommended limits for alcohol?

A

<14 units/week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What medications can be used during alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • Chloradiapoxide
  • IV B-Vitamins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Severity score for UGI bleed?

A

Child-pugh score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Lactulose used for in liver cirrhosis?

A

Hepatic Encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the stages of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
  • Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
  • Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)
  • Fibrosis
  • Cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is included on a full non-invasive liver screen?

A
  • Liver ultrasound
  • Hepatitis B and C serology
  • Autoantibodies (ANA, SMA, AMA, LKM-1)
  • Immunoglobulins
  • Caeruloplasmin
  • Alpha-1 antitripsin levels
  • Ferritin and Transferrin saturations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the first-line blood test for assessing fibrosis?

A

Enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the symptoms of haemochromatosis?

A
  • Hair loss
  • Bronze skin
  • Fatigue
  • Mood changes
  • ED
  • Joint pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the gene mutation involved in haemochromatosis?

A
  • Human haemochromatosis protein (HFE)
  • HFE gene on chromosome 6
  • Autosomal recessive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the screening test for haemochromatosis?

A

Serum Ferritin (raised)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the underlying pathology of Wilson disease?

A

Excessive copper in the body and tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the gold standard test for Wilson’s disease?

A

Liver biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the management of Wilson Disease?

A
  • Copper Chelation
  • Penicillamine
  • Trientene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What enzyme damages tissues in Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Neutrophil elastase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the first abnormal LFT in PBC?

A

Alkaline phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tumour marker for HCC?

A

Alpha- fetoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tumour marker for CCA?

A

CA19-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the initial scoring system for an upper GI bleed?

A

Glasgow- Blatchford

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What antibodies are present in Coeliac disease?

A
  • Tissue transglutaminase antibodies (ANTI-TTG)
  • Endomysial antibodies (ANTI-EMA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is involved in the helicobacter pylori eradication regime?

A

PPI + 2 antibiotics (e.g. amoxicillin and clarithryomycin) for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Wilson’s disease?

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What condition involves a tear in the oesophageal mucosa, often following intense retching or vomiting and causing upper gastrointestinal bleeding?

A

Mallory-Weiss tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is seen on examination of jejunal biopsies in coeliac disease?

A

Crypt hyperplasia and villous atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the usual screening test for Helicobacter pylori infection in the community?

A

Stool antigen test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of hiatus hernia involves a separate portion of the stomach (e.g., the fundus) folding around and entering through the diaphragm opening alongside the oesophagus?

A

Rolling Hiatus hernias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the top two antibodies used to screen for coeliac disease?

A
  • Anti-tissue tranglutaminase antibodies (anti-TTG)
  • Anti-endomysial antibodies (anti-EMA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the usual first-line drug options for maintaining remission in Crohn’s, where required?

A

Azathioprine
Mercaptopurine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the options for prophylaxis of bleeding in stable oesophageal varices?

A
  • Non-selective beta blockers (e.g., propranolol)
  • Variceal band ligation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What other autoimmune conditions are particularly linked with coeliac disease?

A

T1DM
Thyroid disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the three key features of irritable bowel syndrome?

A
  • Intestinal discomfort (abdominal pain relating to the bowels)
  • Bowel habit abnormalities
  • Stool abnormalities (watery, loose, hard or associated with mucus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When would a platelet infusion be given in a patient with active upper gastrointestinal bleeding?

A

Significant thrombocytopenia (e.g., platelet count less than 50)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the usual epithelial lining of the stomach?

A

Columnar epithelium

35
Q

What test for Helicobacter pylori can be performed during an endoscopy procedure?

A

Rapid urease test (also known as the CLO test)

36
Q

What type of organism is Helicobacter pylori?

A

Gram-negative aerobic bacteria

37
Q

What scoring system is used after endoscopy to estimate the risk of rebleeding and mortality in upper gastrointestinal bleeding?

A

Rockall score

38
Q

How long should the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome be present before establishing the diagnosis?

A

At least 6 months

39
Q

What change occurs in the lower oesophageal epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus?

What is the technical term for this process?

A

Metaplasia from squamous to columnar epithelium

40
Q

What interventional radiology procedure may be used as secondary prevention of bleeding oesophageal varices?

What is the other major indication for this procedure?

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)

Refractory ascites

41
Q

What is the major risk of Barrett’s oesophagus?

What monitoring is carried out given this risk?

A

Oesophageal adenocarcinoma
Regular endoscopies

42
Q

What organisms most commonly cause spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

E. Coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae

43
Q

What condition involves duodenal or pancreatic tumour secretes excessive quantities of gastrin, resulting in excessive acid production in the stomach?

What genetic condition is associated with developing gastrin-secreting tumours?

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN-1)

44
Q

What is the initial screening test for suspected Wilson’s disease?

What result suggests Wilson’s disease?

A

Low serum Caeruloplasmin

45
Q

What condition associated with inflammatory bowel disease involves rapidly enlarging, painful skin ulcers, often on the legs?

A

Pyoderma gangrenosum

46
Q

What is the initial investigation in suspected haemochromatosis?

What further investigation can help distinguish between the causes of an abnormal result?

A

Serum ferritin
Transferrin saturation

47
Q

What is the first-line medical treatment of gastro-oesophageal reflux when antacids and lifestyle changes are inadequate?

Give two examples of this type of medication.

A

Proton-pump inhibitors
Omeprazole and Lansoprazole

48
Q

What condition associated with inflammatory bowel disease involves tender, red nodules on the shins caused by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat?

A

Erythema nodosum

49
Q

What is the usual epithelial lining of the oesophagus?

A

Squamous epithelium

50
Q

What is the name for the itchy, blistering skin rash, typically on the abdomen, that can be caused by coeliac disease?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

51
Q

What single symptom would be an indication for a two week wait referral for suspected oesophageal cancer in someone of any age?

A

Dysphagia

52
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease involves skip lesions?

A

Crohn’s disease

53
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease involves transmural inflammation?

A

Crohn’s disease

54
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease involves an association with PSC?

A

UC

55
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease involves only the colon and rectum?

A

UC

56
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease involves blood in the stools more often?

A

UC

57
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease involves inflammation particularly affecting the terminal ileum?

A

Crohn’s

58
Q

Which form of inflammatory bowel disease involves fistulas more often?

A

Crohn’s

59
Q

What additional management steps, before endoscopy, would be included in treating bleeding oesophageal varices compared with other causes of upper gastrointestinal bleeding?

A

Terlipressin and Broad spectrum antibiotics

60
Q

What treatment may be used to induce remission in Crohn’s disease where there are concerns about the side effects of drugs, particularly in children?

A

Enteral nutrition

61
Q

What is the first-line treatment for an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease?

A

Steroids

62
Q

What is the first-line treatment for mild to moderate acute ulcerative colitis?

A

Aminosalicylates (e.g., oral or rectal mesalazine)

63
Q

What stool test is used to screen for inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Faecal calprotectin

64
Q

What is the first-line treatment for maintaining remission in ulcerative colitis?

A

Aminosalicylates (e.g., oral or rectal mesalazine)

65
Q

What condition involves transmural perforation of the oesophagus due to intense retching or vomiting?

What is Mackler’s triad of features in this condition?

A

Boerhaave’s syndrome

Vomiting, Severe chest pain, Subcutaneous emphysema (air in the subcutaneous tissue)

66
Q

What medication is used to treat ascites?

What class of drug does this belong to?

A

Spironolactone
Aldosterone antagonists

67
Q

What are the two types of peptic ulcer?

A

Gastric
Duodenal

68
Q

What is Ascites?

A

Defined as the abnormal accumulation of fluid within the peritoneal cavity

69
Q

What is the primary investigation for Ascites?

A

Ascitic tap

70
Q

What is the Serum Ascites Albumin gradient (SAAG) and how do you calculate it?

A
  • Can help determine the cause of ascites
  • Calculation: Serum albumin concentration-ascites albumin concentration
71
Q

What are the causes of a high SAAG (>11g/L)

A
  • Cirrhosis
  • Heart failure
  • Budd-Chiari Syndrome
  • Constrictive pericarditis
  • Hepatic failure

A high SAAG suggests that the cause of the ascites is due to raised portal pressure.
Raised hydrostatic pressure forces water into the peritoneal cavity whilst albumin remains within the vessels, thus resulting in a higher difference.

72
Q

What are the causes of a low SAAG (<11g/L)

A
  • Cancer of the peritoneum, metastatic disease
  • TB, Peritonitis and other infections
  • Pancreatitis
  • Hypoalbuminaemia - nephrotic syndrome, Kwashiokor
73
Q

What are Carcinoid tumours?

A

They are rare. slow-growing neural crest tumours that secrete serotonin

74
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Carcinoid tumours?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Diarrhoea
  • Flushing
  • Wheezing
  • Pulmonary stenosis
75
Q

What are the investigations for Carcinoid tumours?

A
  • Hormone level assessment: Measuring the level of 5-HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid), a breakdown product of serotonin, in the urine can help identify carcinoid tumours.
  • Imaging: CT, MRI, or Octreotide scans can help identify the location and extent of the tumour.
  • Tissue biopsy: A definitive diagnosis is made through histopathological examination of biopsy material.
76
Q

What are some common sites of Carcinoid tumours?

A

Appendix
Ileum
Rectum
Testis
Ovary
Bronchi

76
Q

What is the pharmacological treatment for a carcinoid tumour?

A

Octreotide, a somatostatin analogue is often used to inhibit the production of hormones by the tumour

77
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A
  • Abdominal pain, particularly in the epigastric region
  • Diarrhoea
  • Ulceration of the duodenum, Which can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding
  • Non-responsiveness to PPI
78
Q

What area is most likely to be affected in ischaemic colitis?

A

Splenic Flexure

79
Q

What would you see on abdominal x-ray in ischaemic colitis?

A

‘Thumbprinting’ due to mucosal oedema/haemorrhage

80
Q

What are some of the signs of scurvy?

A
  • Follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage
  • Ecchymosis, easy bruising
  • Poor wound healing
  • Gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums
  • Sjogren’s syndrome
  • Arthralgia
  • Oedema
  • Impaired wound heeling
  • Generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia and depression
81
Q

Describe haemorrhoid symptoms?

A
  • bright red bleeding
  • Discomfort/pain
  • Pruritus ani
  • Mucus discharge
  • Pain on passing stools
82
Q

What are haemorrhoids?

A

They are swelling and inflammation of the veins in the rectum and anus

83
Q

What is the standard treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Lactulose

Helps to reduce the amounts of ammonia in the blood, which can contribute to the neurological symptoms

Finals Flash Cards 🩺 (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions