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Year 1 AP&P > Pharmacology Fundamentals > Flashcards

Pharmacology Fundamentals Flashcards

1
Q

What does ADME stand for?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

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2
Q

The order of the four stages of Pharmacokinetics are

(1) __________ and (2) _________ then (3) _________ prior to (4) __________

A

(1) Absorption
(2) Distribution
(3) Metabolism
(4) Excretion

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3
Q

The (1) ________ medications include the routes of

(2) ________and (3) ______and Rectal administration.

A

(1) Enteral
(2) Sublingual
(3) Oral

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4
Q

Only medications that are administered via the______ route will be impacted by First Pass Metabolism

A

Oral

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5
Q

(1) _________ of clinical drugs via the oesophagus, stomach, intestines or rectum are classed as (2) ________ medications

A

(1) Administration

(2) Enteral

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6
Q

__________ is the study of what the drug does to the body, through understanding the biochemical, physiological and molecular effects of drugs on the body.

A

Pharmacodynamics

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7
Q

___________ is studied in mathematical terms across four stages to consider the effects and duration of drug actions through the body

A

Pharmacokinetics

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8
Q

The kinetics of Enteral Absorption takes the drug through _____ ____ _________ prior to Distribution

A

First Pass Metabolism

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9
Q

The study of what the body does to a drug is called ________________

A

Pharmacokinetics

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10
Q

________ __________ is completely metabolised through First Pass Metabolism resulting in no bioavailability of the medication if administered orally.

A

Glyceryl trinitrate

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11
Q

__________ should always be administered through a large bore cannula due to its caustic nature?

A

Amiodarone

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12
Q

The maximum dose of Clopidogrel is (1) ____mg (1 tablet) for Thrombolysis, (2) _____mg (2 tabs) for PPCI.

A

(1) 300mg

(2) 600mg

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13
Q

The 3 indications of ____________ are STEMI, PPCI

and Thrombolytic treatment.

A

Clopidogrel

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14
Q

___ ______ is used for cardiac chest pain due to angina or MI, when systolic BP is >90mmHg or breathlessness due to pulmonary oedema.

A

GTN spray

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15
Q

The 7 contraindications of ______ are hypotension, hypovoleamia, head trauma, cerebral haemorrhage, sildenafil use, unconscious patient, or known severe aortic / mitral stenosis.

A

GTN

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16
Q

The pharmacodynamics of aspirin indicate that it inhibits _______ __________

A

Platelet aggregation

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17
Q

The 2 side effects of ________ are wheezing in some asthmatics and increased risk of gastric bleeding.

A

Aspirin

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18
Q

Clopidogrel inhibits ______ _________

A

Platelet aggregation

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19
Q

The 4 side effects of _________are dyspepsia, abdominal pain, diarrhoea and bleeding

A

Clopidogrel

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20
Q

The pharmacodynamics of GTN show that it is a _________ drug - as it dilates the coronary arteries / systemic veins.

A

Vasodilator

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21
Q

The 3 potential side effects of _____ are headache, dizziness and hypotension

A

GTN

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22
Q

(1) The maximum dose of Aspirin is ____ mg (1 tablet).

(2) Aspirin comes in the form of a ________ or ________ tablet

A

(1) 300mg

(2) Dispersible or Chewable

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23
Q

What form does Salbutamol come in and what is the dose?

A

2.5mg/2.5ml nebule or 5mg/2.5ml nebule.

5mg initial dose, no max limit.

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24
Q

The pharmacodynamics of __________ is that its a selective beta2 adrenoreceptor stimulant. It is a relaxant on the smooth muscle in the medium and smaller airways - which are in spasm in acute asthma attacks.

A

Salbutamol

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25
Q

The side effects of __________ include: tremor, tachycardia, palpitations, headache, feelings of tension, peripheral vasodilation, muscle cramps and a rash.

A

Salbutamol

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26
Q

The cautions of __________ include hypertension, angina, overactive thyroid, late pregnancy, severe hypertension with people on beta blockers.

A

Salbutamol

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27
Q

What form does Ipratropium Bromide come in and what is the dose?

A

250mcg/1ml nebuliser liquid, 2ml dose, 500mcg max dose.

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28
Q

The indications of __________ ________ include
acute severe or life-threatening asthma, acute asthma unresponsive to Salbutamol, and exacerbation of COPD - unresponsive to Salbutamol.

A

Ipratropium Bromide

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29
Q

The cautions of __________ ________ are use with care in patients with glaucoma (protect eyes from mist), pregnancy/breast feeding, and prostatic hyperplasia

A

Ipratropium Bromide

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30
Q

_________ _____ is presented as IM 500mcg pre-filled syringe/ampoule. The dose is 0.5ml, with no limit.

A

Adrenaline 1:1000

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31
Q

The pharmacodynamics of Adrenaline 1:1000 show that it is a ____________ that stimulates alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. As a result, myocardial and cerebral blood flow is enhanced during CPR - causing it to be more effective due to increased peripheral resistance which improves perfusion pressures. It also reverses allergic manifestations of acute anaphylaxis, and relieves bronchospasms.

A

Sympathomimetic

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32
Q

What are the indications of Adrenaline 1:1000?

A
  • Anaphylaxis

- Life-threatening Asthma with failing ventilation and continued deterioration - despite nebuliser therapy.

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33
Q

The cautions of __________ _____ are that severe hypertension may occur in patients on non-cardioselective beta-blockers (like propranolol).
Do not administer IV adrenaline in anaphylaxis.

A

Adrenaline 1:1000

34
Q

The administration of Ipratropium bromide is contra-indicated by ________ __ __ _________

A

Nothing in an emergency

35
Q

Nausea, dry mouth (common), tachycardia, arrythmia and paroxsymal tightness of the chest are possible side effects of ___________ _______ administration.

A

Ipratropium bromide

36
Q

Epinephrine is a sympathomimetric that stimulates both α and β _________ ________

A

Adrenergic receptors

37
Q

The pharmacodynamics of __________ ________ are that it is a antimuscarinic bronchodilater - not a beta2 agonist so won’t work as quickly as Salbutamol. It works better in children with acute asthma and adults suffering with COPD.

A

Ipratropium Bromide

38
Q

Relief of mild to moderate pain,
pyrexia with discomfort (high temp),
soft tissue injuries, and best when used as part of a balanced analgesic regimen are indications of __________

A

Ibuprofen

39
Q

What is the max dose of ibuprofen?

A

1.2g in 24 hours

40
Q

Contraindications of _________ include patients who are: dehydrated, hypovolaemic, known to have renal insufficiency, suffering with upper GI disturbance, in the last trimester of pregnancy, a child with chickenpox, sensitive to NSAID’s, suffering with an active peptic ulcer/haemorrhage, or suffering with severe heart failure, renal failure or hepatic failure.

A

Ibuprofen

41
Q

What are the 3 types of pharmacodynamical properties of ibuprofen?

A

Analgesic (pain-relieving)
Antipyretic (temperature reducing)
Anti-inflammatory (reduces inflammation)

42
Q

Nausea, vomiting and tinnitus are side effects of _________

A

Ibuprofen

43
Q

What are the two pharmacodynamical properties of paracetamol?

A

Analgesic (pain-relieving)

Antipyretic (temperature reducing)

44
Q

For IV paracetamol administration, ___ml is given every 4-6 hours (given over 15 mins)

A

100ml

45
Q

IV paracetamol can cause _________ if administered too rapidly

A

Hypotension

46
Q

What is the presentation of Naloxone Hydrochloride?

A

400mcg/1ml ampoule

47
Q

The IV/IO dose of Naloxone is ___ml every 3 mins.

A

1ml (400mcg)

48
Q

What is the max dose of Naloxone?

A

10ml (4000mcg)

49
Q

What are the contraindications of Naloxone?

A

None in an emergency setting

50
Q

________ is a common side effect of Naloxone administration

A

Vomiting (make sure suction is available)

51
Q

Moderate to severe pain and labour pains are indications for _________

A

Entonox

52
Q

Do not give _________ to patients with: severe head injuries with impaired consciousness due to possible presence of intercranial air, decompression sickness where it can cause nitrogen bubbles within the bloodstream to expand, violently disturbed psychiatric patients, intraocular injection of gas within the last 4 weeks, abdominal pain where intestinal obstruction suspected.

A

Entonox

53
Q

What is the presentation of Entonox?

A

Blue body, white shoulders

54
Q

10mg/1ml ampoule or a 4mg tablet are presentations of _____________

A

Chlorphenamine

55
Q

What are the indications of chlorphenamine?

A

Severe anaphylaxis or symptomatic allergic reactions falling short of anaphylaxis.

56
Q

The IV / IO / IM dose of chlorphenamine is ___ml over 1 minute (max dose)

A

1ml

57
Q

What is the preferred method of chlorphenamine administration?

A

IV

58
Q

The contraindications of __________ are: known hypersensitivity, and patients who have been treated with MAOIs within the last 14 days.

A

Chlorphenamine

59
Q 
Sedation, dry mouth, headache, blurred vision, urinary retention, psychomotor impairment, GI disturbance
and convulsions (rare) are side effects of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Chlorphenamine

60
Q

What is the presentation of glucose gel 40%?

A

Plastic tube of 25g glucose 40% oral gel

61
Q

Glucose gel 40% is used for ____________

A

Hypoglycaemia (known or suspected)

62
Q

What is the (buccal) dose for glucose gel 40%?

A

1-2 tubes every 5 mins

63
Q

What are the contraindications of glucose gel 40%?

A

None

64
Q

1mg of powder in vial for reconstitution with water for injection is the presentation of _________

A

Glucagon

65
Q

Glucagon is required for ___________ in patients that cannot have oral administration.

A

Hypoglycaemia

66
Q

What is the preferred administration of glucagon?

A

IM

67
Q

What is the dose of glucagon?

A

1 vial (1mg) - max dose

68
Q

_________ should NOT be given by IV injection because of increased vomiting.

A

Glucagon

69
Q

Pheochromocytoma (adrenal tumour) is a contraindication of __________

A

Glucagon

70
Q

The side effects of __________ are nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, hypokalaemia, hypotension and acute hypersensitivity reaction (rare).

A

Glucagon

71
Q

Check blood glucose __ - __ mins after administration of glucagon

A

10-15 mins

72
Q

Syntometrine is 500mcg _________ / 5 units ________ in 1ml ampoule

A

(1) Ergometrine

(2) Oxytocin

73
Q

What are the indications of syntometrine?

A

Post-partum haemorrhage within 24 hours of delivery, or miscarriage with life-threatening bleeding and a confirmed diagnosis.

74
Q

What is the preferred administration of syntometrine?

A

IM

75
Q

What is the dose of syntometrine? (IM)

A

1ml – max dose.

76
Q

Known hypersensitivity, active labour, severe cardiac, liver or kidney disease, hypertension and severe pre-eclampsia, possible multiple pregnancy/known or suspected foetus in utero are all contraindications of ____________

A

Syntometrine

77
Q

What is the common presentation of hydrocortisone?

A

100mg/1ml solution for injection

78
Q

What are the 3 indications of hydrocortisone?

A

Severe or life-threatening asthma
Anaphylaxis
Adrenal crisis

79
Q

What is the IV dose for hydrocortisone for asthma or adrenal crisis?

A

100mg – max dose (slow injection over 2 mins min)

80
Q

What is the IV dose for hydrocortisone for anaphylaxis?

A

200mg - max dose (slow injection over 2 mins min)

81
Q

_____________ is a glucocorticoid drug that restores BP, blood sugar, cardiac synchronicity and volume. High levels are important to survive shock. Therapeutic actions include suppression of inflammation and immune response.

A

Hydrocortisone

82
Q

____________ may cause stinging or burning sensations.

A

Hydrocortisone

Year 1 AP&P (7 decks)

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