Pharmacology and Toxicology Flashcards

1
Q

Rifampicin
- how does it effect cytochrome system
- effect on protease inhibitors

A

Enzyme inducer = greater metabolism
Less protease inhibitor, may see worsening of HIV control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Factors increasing transdermal opiate absorption

A

Heat
- pyrexial patients may get opiate toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Management of methanol poisoning

A

Fomepizole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Oral morphine > fentanyl patch conversion

A

5: 2
i.e. 45mg total daily morphine = 18mg fentanyl 24H patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Contra-indications to BB

A

Asthma
2nd Degree HB
Concurrent use with non-dihydropyridine CCB (e.g. diltiazem, verapamil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hallucinations
Seizure
Mycolonus
Mydriasis
HTN
Hypokalaemia
AKI
- diagnosis?

A

Synthetic cannabinoid toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Modification of gentamicin
- pre dose concentration high
- post dose concentration

A

Pre dose high = increase interval between doses

Post dose high = decrease dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Side effect associated with azathioprine and ——

A

Marrow suppression
Allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tryptase in anaphylaxis

A

Normal at presentation
Elevates at 1-2 hours (defo by 4 hours)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vitamin D loading =

A

<30 mmol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cause of erythema multiforme

A

Allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Raised anion gap
Disparity between calculated and measured osmolality

A

Ethylene glycol poisoning
- there is an additional unaccounted for solute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Analgesia with NMDA antagonism

A

Methadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management of CO poisoning
- pregnant

A

Hyperbaric oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Malignant hyperthermia
- mechanism
- management

A

Excess calcium release: rigidity then hyperthermia
IV dantrolene - prevents Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MDMA intoxication
- presentation
- management

A

Serotonin syndrome and rhabdomyolysis
Mx: IV benzodiazepines
Cyprohepatidine - reverses the serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management of lead poisoning

A

DMSA for chelation of lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Toxicity
- seizure + QTC prolongation
- what do you need to avoid?

A

e.g. fluoxetine
Need to avoid phenytoin - also works via sodium inhibition, can worse cardiotoxicity effects and cause deterioration into TdP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What medications are licensed for 2y prevention?

A

Only statins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Side effects of levetiracetam (2)

A

Behaviour abnormalities
Psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mixed overdose involving benzodiazepines

A

Don’t use flumenazil
Largely supportive airway management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

House fire
Lactic acidosis
Not septic
Normal PO2
Comatose
Bradycardia
- diagnosis?
- management

A

Cyanide poisoning
Mx: sodium thiosulphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What liver injury pattern does
- nitrofurantoin
- co-amoxiclav
cause?

A

Hepatitic picture = nitrofurantoin, normal ALP
Cholestatic = Co-amoxiclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Feature of carbamazepine

A

= autoinduction
Levels drop 3-4 weeks in and if not appropriately uptitrated, seizures will return

25
Side effect of NRTI - presentation (4)
= mitochondrial toxicity Nausea Pancreatitis Lactic acidosis Lipoatrophy
26
Prophylaxis for surgery in hereditary angiooedema
TXA
27
Cause of seizure in withdrawal (assuming pabrinex and chlordiazepoxide used)
Hypophosphataemia
28
Drug-induced pemphigoid (3)
Furosemide Captopril Penicillins
29
Reversal of dabigatran
Idarucizumab
30
Side effect of trimethoprim
Hyperkalaemia = has distal sodium tubule action, promotes sodium loss at expense of potassium
31
Drug action nicorandil Contra-indications for nicorandil
= Partial nitrate action, partial ATP K+ dependent opening CI = concurrent use with sildenafil, hypotension
32
2nd line in HTN management - eGFR <30
Loop diuretic e.g. furosemide
33
What drug used in TB is associated with visual loss? Pattern of visual loss?
Ethambutol Optic neuropathy - see central scotoma
34
Side effect of ethambutol
Gradual onset bilateral visual loss
35
Monitoring for cabergolin
Need annual echo - associated with valvulopathy
36
What effect does smoking have on enzymes?
Enzyme inducer = higher rates of metabolism, higher concentrations of drugs needed
37
3rd line management of HTN
Thiazide-LIKE diuretics e.g. indapamide
38
When would you screen for 2y causes of HTN?
<40 years old Resistant hypertension Other signs or symptoms consistent with 2y HTN causes
39
Side effect of nitrofurantoin
Peripheral neuropathy
40
What can hypomagnesaemia cause?
2y hypoparathyroidism
41
Abstinence - drug used to reduce cravings - drug used to unpleasant effect
Acamprosate Disulfiram
42
What drug is associated with lithium toxicity?
NSAIDs = result in reduced excretion in kidney disease
43
Chronic lithium toxicity - how do you know? - what do you do?
= renal dysfunction: shouldn't be any dysfunction in acute toxicity If levels >2.5 then dialysis
44
Linezolid + SSRI - diagnosis?
Serotonin syndrome
45
Management of serotonin syndrome
Cyprohepatidine
46
Rigidity Increased HR HTN Hyperpyrexia - diagnosis?
Serotonin syndrome
47
What can interfere with AEDs to worsen seizure control?
Mefanamic acid
48
What anti-emetic can cause diarrhoea?
Metoclopramide
49
When should you start statin following CVA?
48 hours afterwards
50
RUQ post partum Acute hepatitis - cause?
Labetalol used for gestational HTN can cause acute hepatitis
51
Drug mechanism of denusomab
RANKL inhibitor
52
Management of hereditary angioedema
FFP or C1 inhibitor concentrate
53
Adujvant in methanol poisoning
Folinic acid - reduces ophthalmological complications
54
What TB medication is associated with peripheral neuropathy
Isoniazid
55
Side effect of pyrazinamide
Arthralgia
56
What is a trough level? What is a peak level?
Trough = pre dose level If high then increase interval time of doses Peak = post dose level If high then decrease dose
57
Side effect of efavirenz
Neurotoxic e.g. psychotic symptoms
58
Management of hiccups (4)
Chlorpromazine Haloperidol Metoclopramide Dexamethasone
59
Management of CO poisoning
High flow oxygen UNTIL - patient asymptomatic - <10% CO levels