Past Papers Flashcards

1
Q

Shoulder and hip girdle pain
Raised inflammatory markers
Not responding to steroids
Possible diagnosis?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis - can present as polymyalgia syndrome before articular features

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2
Q

Non convulsive status epilepticus
- investigation findings

A

Usually signs link rapid blinking, twitching, may be confused but will be responsive
Must last more than 30 minutes

Need EEG to confirm, normal lactate usually (nil tonic clonic activity)

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3
Q

What do you need to do prior to starting RCHOP?

A

Hepatitis B serology
Rituximab can reactivate

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4
Q

Atrial fibrillation
Unable to rate control with beta blocker

A

Diltiazem or digoxin if possible
Remember other agents e.g. amiodarone will cardiovert patient

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5
Q

Diagnosis of sleeping sickness

A

Can use serology/lymph node biopsy, ideally LP
Any neurological involvement will need treatment

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6
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis
Raised IgG

A

Type 1 Autoimmune Hepatitis

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7
Q

Determining salicylate overdose
Management

A

> 450 - moderate overdose, treat IV bicarbonate

> 700 or resistant acidosis/neurological sequale, consider haemodialysis

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8
Q

Indication for hyperbaric oxygen in CO poisoning

A

Carboxyhaemoglobin levels >25%

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9
Q

Nerve palsy CN III, IV, V
How to determine location of lesion

A

Use which branches of CN V are involved, remember V1 superior orbital fissure, V2 foramen rotundum

If multiple branches involved = cavernous sinus

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10
Q

Uniform capillary wall deposits IgG and C3

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis

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11
Q

Management of membranous nephropathy

A

BP control with ACE inhibitor
Immunosuppression e.g. oral prednisolone

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12
Q

Management of necrobiosis lipodica

A

Topical corticosteroids

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13
Q

Secondary prevention in CKD

A

No need for QRISK
Start statin straight away

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14
Q

Eccentric
Social isolation
Inappropriate affect
- personality disorder?

A

Schizotypal

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15
Q

What do you need to diagnose someone with an insulinoma/begin further investigation?

A

Hypoglycaemic symptoms which coincide with hypoglycaemia
Symptoms improve with raising blood sugar

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16
Q

How to differentiate between 1y hyperparathyroidism and familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia
PTH levels?

A

PO4- level
1y = low (XS PTH promotes phosphate excretion by the kidneys)
Familial hypocalciruic = normal PO4-, may have normal/high PTH

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17
Q

What do you need on renal biopsy of Alport’s syndrome?

A

Electron microscopy

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18
Q

CSF results in cryptococcal meningitis

A

Low glucose
Elevated protein
Raised opening pressure

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19
Q

Management of gastroparesis

A

Domperidone
Can also use metoclopramide

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20
Q

How to manage cisplatin related nephrotoxicity

A

Switch to platinum alternative e.g. carboplatin

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21
Q

Management of Takaysau’s arteritis

A

Prednisolone

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22
Q

Differentiating between pseudo-Cushing’s and Cushing’s

A

Pseudo = retain diurnal variation of cortisol, check a midnight level
Cushing’s = loss of diurnal, persistently high

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23
Q

Management of thyroid eye disease

A

Consider the severity

Mild = nil optic nerve involvement
Artificial tears and smoking cessation

Moderate/severe = steroids

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24
Q

When would you use SGLT2 as second line?

A

CVD disease e.g. hypertension
ACR >30

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25
Q

Lower limb weakness
Painful paraesthesia
Reduced sensation distally
Absent ankle jerks
Fasciculations

A

Diabetic Amyotrophy

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26
Q

How often should those with cirrhosis be screened for HCC?

A

Every 6 months

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27
Q

Option for xanthelasma management

A

Topical trichloroacetic acid

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28
Q

Likely diagnosis HIT - test you can use to confirm

A

Serotonin release assay

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29
Q

Initial management of diabetes
- metformin contraindicated

A

If CVD disease - SGLT2 monotherapy

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30
Q

Management of Flu A
- immunocompromised

A

Zanamivir

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31
Q

Indication of severe AS - heart sounds

A

Soft S2

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32
Q

What type of amyloidosis is associated with inflammatory conditions?

A

AA amyloidosis

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33
Q

Treatment associated with increased risk of delayed bleeding

A

Plasma exchange
- depleted of clotting factors etc

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34
Q

First presentation of uncal herniation

A

Ipsilateral CN III palsy

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35
Q

What is moraxella seen in association with?

A

COPD

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36
Q

How can you avoid post-LP headache?

A

By re-inserting the stylet when removing the needle
Volume of CSF removed largely doesn’t make a difference

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37
Q

How do you manage bone and joint TB?

A

Same - 2 months RIPE and 4 months rifampicin and isoniazid

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37
Q

Biopsy findings in anti-GBM disease

A

Linear IgG and C3 deposits in the membrane with crescenteric glomerulonephritis

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38
Q

Lung nodule follow up

A

<5mm - no further follow up
5-8mm - CT in three months
>8mm - Brock risk stratification, likely to have PET CT

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39
Q

Cardiac arrest
P waves only on monitor
Management?

A

Consider ventricular standstill - consider pacing

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39
Q

Management of small bowel obstruction 2y to metastatic cancer

A

Dexamethasone

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40
Q

Investigations in acute GBS

A

Nerve conduction studies may be normal
Will see elevated CSF protein

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41
Q

CT findings in normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Ventriculomegaly
Normal sized sulci/gyrus

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41
Q

What pre-excitation disorders are there?

A

Wolff Parkinson White - short PR, delta wave
Lown-Ganong-Levine - short PR, no delta wave

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41
Q

Features of pseudogout on XR

A

Calcification of meniscus
Knee - may see calcification of the patellar/quadriceps tendon

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41
Q

What can you use in HUS?

A

Eculizumab
Reduces complement activation which drives the haemolytic process

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41
Q

Investigation of choice in MND

A

Electromyography

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42
Q

Investigation of choice in sarcoidosis

A

Pulmonary function tests

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43
Q

Management of lytic bone lesions in myeloma
- isolated
- risk of fracture

A

Single = denosumab
Fracture risk = radiotherapy

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44
Q

Management of Lambert Eaton Syndrome

A

Amifampridine
= blocks K+ channels to extend action potential, allows Ca2+ channels to be open for a longer duration, more ACh release

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45
Q

Management of urinary schistomiasis

A

Praziquantel

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46
Q

Differentiating pituitary tumours

A

Microadenoma = no visual field defects
Macroadenoma = very high prolactin, often visual field defect
Non-functioning = often see hypopituitarism as a result of compression

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47
Q

What can be used to manage delirium in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Lorazepam

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48
Q

Multiple transfusions
Hypoxia
Pyrexia
Hypotension
- diagnosis

A

Transfusion associated lung injury
The pyrexia helps differentiate

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49
Q

Management options for remission of membranous nephropathy

A

Rituximab
Prednisolone + cyclophosphamide (obviously avoid in young people)

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50
Q

Management option in IBD resistant to TNFa inhibitor/not suitable for TBFa I
- mechanism of action

A

Vedolizumab
= integrin antagonist, blocks white cell movement across the intestinal epithelium

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51
Q

What renal stones are associated with small bowel overgrowth?

A

Calcium oxolate
= fat malabsorption associated with increased oxolate absorption

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52
Q

What is associated with the best prognosis in cardiac arrest?

A

Ventricular Tachycardia

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53
Q

Multi-infarct dementia - presentation

A

Various steps in altered cognition
e.g. memory around cooking, then names then items to do
Cardiac risk factors

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54
Q

Causes of axonal neuropathy (10)

A

Diabetes
HIV
B12 deficiency
Hypothyroidism
Uraemia
Chemotherapy
Paraneoplastic
Paraproteinaemia
Tropical spastic paraparesis
Cryoglobulinaemia vasculitis

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55
Q

Nerve conduction studies
- reduced amplitude of signals

A

= axonal neuropathy
Number of axons are less due to damage, results in weaker signal

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56
Q

Nerve conduction studies
- decreased signal velocity

A

= demyelinating neuropathy

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57
Q

Pattern of loss in axonal neuopathies

A

Sensory loss first, distal then proximal
- this is because longer fibres are affected first

Hands affected only when at level of knees
Motor involvement is later
Deep tendon reflexes lost

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58
Q

Pattern of loss in demyelinating neuropathies

A

Motor loss first with motor weakness a prominent feature

Remember some sensory nerves are myelinated - these can be affected by demyelination in multiple sclerosis giving sensory symptoms

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59
Q

Reflexes
- UMN lesion
- LMN lesion

A

Upper = hyper reflexic deep tendon reflexes, absent superficial reflexes

Lower = absent deep tendon reflexes

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60
Q

Paraparesis
- UMN lesion
- LMN lesion

A

Upper = spastic

Lower = flaccid

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61
Q

Features of erythroderma

A

Systemic upset
Bright red
Often associated with recent cessation of PO steroid

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62
Q

Contraindication to use of ciclosporin

A

Chronic kidney disease

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63
Q

Differentiating between essential tremor and parkinson’s diagnosis

A

SPECT imaging

64
Q

When would you use rifaximin?

A

In the prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy
No role in acute management

65
Q

Key feature of accelerated idioventricular rhythm

A

No p waves present

66
Q

Prolonged APTT
What can you use to determine cause?
Results?

A

Mixing study
If factor deficiency = APTT improves with mixing
If factor inhibitor = nil improvement with mixing, likely acquired Haem A

67
Q

What is a cause of acquired haem A?

A

Clopidogrel

68
Q

Distinguish between Familial Mediterranean Fever and Behcet’s Disease

A

Both may present with pyrexia, abdominal pain, arthralgia
FMF = NO ulcers, high fever and high CRP
MEFV mutation

Behcet’s = ulcers, normal CRP
Pathergy test

69
Q

Low dose dexamethasone suppression test (1mg overnight or two day test)
Result = Cortisol high at end of test

A

= Cushing’s syndrome

Further test to localise - either insulin stress test or high dose dexamethasone test

70
Q

High dose dexamethasone suppression test
- results and diagnosis

A

Suppress cortisol = Cushing’s disease (adenoma)

No suppression of cortisol = ACTH ectopic source

71
Q

Insulin tolerance test - what does it aim to do?

A

Induce hypoglycaemia to see whether there is a ACTH/cortisol response

72
Q

Insulin tolerance test
Result: hypoglycaemia + high ACTH/cortisol

A

Pseudo-Cushing’s

73
Q

What is a metallo beta-lactamase?

74
Q

Antibiotic options for CPE?

A

Colistin
Tigecycline
Fosfomycin
Gentamicin

75
Q

What anti-emetic is of use in delayed phase emesis?

A

Dexamethasone

76
Q

Shortness of breath
Purulent cough
Macular rash on face
Atypical pneumonia

A

Psittacosis

77
Q

How does methylene blue work?

A

Reduction of Fe3+ to Fe2+

78
Q

Option for nausea in long QT syndrome

A

Aprepitant

79
Q

What is the chance of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis going into spontaneous remission?

A

<10% chance

80
Q

Livedo reticularis - associations (3)

A

Anti-phospholipid syndrome
Cholesterol embolism
Polyarteritis nodosa

81
Q

Management of chicken pox
- immunocompromised

A

IV aciclovir
- can use oral if nil systemic upset
- if symptomatic too late for immunoglobulin

82
Q

Modest CK elevation
Muscle weakness
Anti-TPO antibodies

A

Hypothyroidism
- can be associated with CK elevation in untreated disease

83
Q

Acute hepatitis - associated with HIV seroconversion?

84
Q

Hypertension
Hypokalaemia
Raised renin and aldosterone
- diagnosis?

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia
= reduced renal perfusion, activates RAAS system

85
Q

Hypertension
Hypokalaemia
Low renin and raised aldosterone
- diagnosis

A

Conn’s syndrome

86
Q

Management of T2 N1 NSCLC (ipsilateral hilar node)

A

Pneumonectomy if well

87
Q

Distinguish between Becker and Myotonic

A

Largely age - myotonic longer life expectancy

88
Q

+VE edrophonium test

A

Myaesthenia gravis

89
Q

What are the stages of treatment of prostate cancer?

A

Bicalutamide - androgen antagonist, blocks receptors in tumour and prevents tumour flare with use of GnRH agonist (Gosrelin)

90
Q

Polymyositis - extra-muscular mainfestations

91
Q

Can you use warfarin in pregnancy?

A

No - contraindicated

92
Q

Management of BPH

A

Finasteride - good option, takes a while to get to therapeutic effect
Doxazosin - gives immediate improvement to symptoms, relaxes the smooth muscle

93
Q

Electrical management of HF + EF low and broad QRS

A

Usually CRT-P
CRT-D if there has been evidence of ventricular arrhythmia

94
Q

Management of malaria

A

Uncomplicated = artemether + lumefantine
Complicated
e.g. significant parasetaemia
= IV artesunate, bolus initially

95
Q

VT vs SVT

A

All complexes in the chest leads should be uniform (i.e. not a mixture of broad and narrow) in VT
If V1-V3 broad consider SVT with RBBB

96
Q

Achalasia - weight?

A

Can remain stable

97
Q

Management of hepatorenal syndrome

A

Type 1 = rapid decline of renal function
1st - terlipressin to promote splanchnic vasoconstriction, increase circulating volume

2nd - TIPSS

98
Q

Initiation of NIV
- nil improvement after 1 hour

A

Consider elective intubation and ventilation

99
Q

1st line investigation of hypoadrenalism

A

Short synacthen test

100
Q

How many PVCs are you allowed a day?

A

<10%
= approx 10’000 per day

101
Q

Management option in digoxin toxicity

A

Digoxin immune Fab
= fragments of antibodies

102
Q

What is CLL associated with? Increased risk?

A

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Increased risk with fludarabine

103
Q

What is the mechanism behind hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis following DKA correction?

A

Plasma volume expansion
(not excessive replacement)

104
Q

Confused
Nausea
Initial dialysis
- diagnosis
- management?

A

Dialysis dysequilibrium syndrome
Sodium modelling - can use a button on the machine to change the sodium content of the dialysate

105
Q

Option for behavioural issues in Alzheimer’s Disease

A

Atypical antipsychotic
e.g. risperidone

106
Q

Management of histoplasmosis

A

Itraconazole

107
Q

Confirmation of brain stem death

A

Apnoea testing

108
Q

Hoarding and self-neglect
- diagnosis
- management

A

Diogenes syndrome
CBT

109
Q

Management of VTE
- what do you need to consider?

A

Renal impairment - then LMWH not suitable
Use unfractionated instead

110
Q

Vertebral dissection
- investigation of choice

A

MRI head + MRA

111
Q

What can you see high levels of post seizure?

A

Hyperprolactinaemia
The epileptic activity propagates to the hypothalamus and triggers excessive prolactin release from the pituitary gland

112
Q

Management of chronic paroxysmal hemicrania

A

Indomethacin
Can be used to aid diagnosis - should have excellent response

113
Q

What is a cause of transient conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia?

A

Dubin-Johnson Syndrome
- all other causes are unconjugated

114
Q

Management of cystinuria

A

Pencillamine

115
Q

What can interact with diltiazem?

A

Ciclosporin

116
Q

HIV medication + renal complication

A

Atazanvir
Associated with crystal nephropathy
Manage with hydration

117
Q

Eosinophilia
Penicillin based antibiotics
Proteinuria
Haematuria

A

Acute tubular necrosis

118
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dobutamine?

A

Increased inotropic action

119
Q

Diagnosis of obesity hypoventilation syndrome

A

Raised BMI
Day pCO2 >6
Nil alternative cause identified
Remember OSA not a clinical diagnosis

120
Q

Assessment of ?airway obstruction

A

Flow volume loop

121
Q

Management of legionella

A

Levofloxacin

122
Q

Bilateral PERIPHERAL infiltrates
Hard to control asthma
Raised IgG and ESR

A

Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia

123
Q

Melanosis coli

A

Laxative abuse - specifically SENNA

124
Q

Management of relapsing/remitting MS

A

Dimethyl fumarate

125
Q

Progressive visual loss
Hypertension

A

Central vein occlusion

126
Q

Test to confirm medullary thyroid cancer

A

Pentagastrin stimulation

127
Q

What can insulin trigger?

A

Ventricular failure - promotes salt and water retention

128
Q

Contraindication for furosemide

A

Pregnancy
= reduced placental perfusion

129
Q

Management of cholera

A

Erythromcyin

130
Q

Fibrate
How to manage in line with renal function?

A

Need to reduce dose in eGFR <60

131
Q

Jaundice
Hepatomegaly
Abnormal LFTs
Liver transplant
- diagnosis
- management

A

Acute graft VS host disease
Hepatic US/doppler US

132
Q

Pupil in Horner’s syndrome

A

Constricted pupil
Will NOT respond to atropine

133
Q

Cause of hyperprolactinaemia

A

CKD
Urea reduces dopamine release
= increased release of prolactin

134
Q

Risk of immune checkpoint inhibitors

A

Colitis
Treat with IV steroids

135
Q

Mechanism behind GORD in systemic sclerosis

A

Oesophageal dysmotility
CCB and prokinetics superior to PPI

136
Q

How often should people with Peutz-Jegher’s get a colonoscopy?

A

Every 3 years

137
Q

Management of Familial Mediterranean Fever

A

Colchicine

138
Q

Wrist dorsiflexion =

A

Wrist extension

139
Q

Foreign travel
Transient non-erythematous swellings

140
Q

Management of latent TB

A

3 months RIP
or
6 months IP

141
Q

What can reduce iron absorption?

A

Calcium/zinc/magnesium supplements

142
Q

Management of Kawasaki’s Disease

A

IVIg and aspirin

143
Q

Management of asbestosis

A

Nil specialist management, conservative

144
Q

CSF in HSV encephalitis

A

Raised protein
Raised WCC - lymphocyte predominant
Normal glucose

145
Q

What types of malaria are prone to relapsing?

A

Vivax
Ovale

146
Q

Indications for CMV negative blood

A

Neonates
Pregnant women
Intrauterine transfusions

147
Q

Serum electrophoresis VS serum free light chains

A

Different things
Sometimes serum free light chains can detect what electrophoresis cannot

148
Q

Differentiating between 11 and 21 hydroxylase deficiency

A

11 = hypertension
21 = normotension

149
Q

What does disulfiram do?

A

Unpleasant side effects when continue to drink
Nausea, vomiting, flushing, arrhythmias

150
Q

Large volume of stool in spite of fasting

A

= secretory diarrhoea
e.g. VIPoma

151
Q

Management of Mobitz II and third degree heart block

A

DDD pacemaker - need to pace atria and ventricles

152
Q

Absence seizures - management

A

Levetiracetam or lamotrigine

153
Q

MS management - what to consider?

A

Don’t need IV steroids if not having a flare
Likely need to refer to MDT for decision about drug modifying treatment

154
Q

VTE
Pancytopaenia
Urine Hb not haematuria
- diagnosis

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobulinuria

155
Q

TB drugs - drug-induced lupus?

156
Q

Management of body dysmorphia

A

Exposure and response prevention therapy

157
Q

Meningitis
Immunsuppressed
Ependymal enhancement
CSF = increased protein, decreased glucose, mild rise in opening pressure

A

CMV meningoencephalitis

158
Q

Cause of low HDL and raised trigylcerides

159
Q

Mucocutaneous lesions
Breast cancer
FH colon cancer
- diagnosis
- genetics

A

Peutz Jegher’s syndrome
STK11

160
Q

Dark pink lesions on shin with orange peel appearance

A

Pretibial myxoedema

161
Q

Features of Grave’s Disease

A

Pretibial myxoedema
Acropachy

162
Q

Can you have Grave’s Eye Disease with normal TFTs?

163
Q

What suggests increasing severity in mitral stenosis?

A

Increased duration of murmur

164
Q

Digoxin toxicity and VT

A

IV lidocaine/lignocaine

165
Q

Diagnostic test of Lambert Eaton Syndrome

A

NCS and EMG

166
Q

What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir

A

Neuroaminidase inhibitor