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Pharmacology (Dale Turley) > Pharmacology ABS > Flashcards

Pharmacology ABS Flashcards

1
Q

Natural PCN?

A

Penicillin G

Penicillin V

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2
Q

Β-lactamase resistant PCN?

A

Nafcillin

Cloxacillin

Dicloxacillin

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3
Q

Extended-spectrum PCN?

A

Ampicillin

Amoxicillin

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4
Q

Ureidopenicillins PCN?

A

Mezlocillin

Piperacillin

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5
Q

Carboxypenicillin PCN?

A

Ticarcillin

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6
Q

B- lactams interfere with bacterial _____________.

A

transpeptidases

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7
Q

B - lactase prevent cross-linking of ____________.

A

peptidoglycan

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8
Q

Beta - lactams are susceptible to ____________.

A

Beta - lactamases

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9
Q

B- lactams MOA?

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

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10
Q

B-Lactams examples?

A

Penicillins

Cephalosporins

Monobactams

Carbapenems

Vancomycin

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11
Q

Augmentin is?

A

Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

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12
Q

Unasyn is?

A

Ampicillin + sulbactam

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13
Q

Zosyn is?

A

Piperacillin + tazobactam

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14
Q

1st generation Cephalosporin?

A

Cephalexin (PO)

Cefazolin (IV, IM)

Cefadroxil (PO)

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15
Q

2nd generation Cephalosporin?

A

Cefuroxime (IV, PO)

Cefotoxin (IV)

Cefotetan (IV)

Cefaclor (PO)

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16
Q

3rd generation cephalosporin?

A

Cefdinir (PO)

Cefixime (PO)

Ceftriaxone (IV, IM)

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17
Q

4th generation Cephalosporin?

A

Cefipime (IV)

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18
Q

5th generation Cephalosporin?

A

Ceftaroline

Ceftobiprole

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19
Q

What generation Cephalosporin can cross the BBB?

A

3rd generation

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20
Q

What generation Cephalosporin is useful in soft tissue and skin infections?

A

1st generation

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21
Q

What generation Cephalosporin has gram + and gram - activity?

A

2nd generation

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22
Q

What generation Cephalosporin has similar action to 3rd generation but covers pseudomonas and more resistant to beta-lactamases?

A

4th generation

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23
Q

Example of a monobactam?

A

Aztreonam (IV)

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24
Q

Aztreonam (IV) properties?

A

B-lactam compound

Works only against gram-
negative bacteria

Occasionally may cause a skin rash

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25
Q

What ABS has strong activity against susceptible Gram-negative bacteria, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Aztreonam (IV)

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26
Q

Carbapenems class?

A

Beta-lactam

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27
Q

Carbapenems examples?

A

Imipenem (IV)

Meropenem (IV)

Ertapenem (IV)

28
Q

What are Carbapenems used?

A

Used in multi-drug resistance:

  1. Abdominal infections
  2. Complicated urinary tract infections
  3. Pneumonia
29
Q

Side effects of Carbapenems?

A

Seizures in pts with renal disease

GI sxs

Skin rash

30
Q

Which ABS is relatively non-toxic but can cause ototoxicity ( rare)?

31
Q

Red-man syndrome?

A

infusion rate of Vanco is to fast and patients get:

Fever, chills, flushing

32
Q

Vanco is given __ and __ but not systemically absorbed through the __ tract.

33
Q

Chloramphenicol MOA?

A

Bind to bacterial ribosomes to inhibit protein synthesis

bacteriostatic

34
Q

Side effects of Chloramphenicol?

A

GI disturbances

Suppression of bone marrow

Aplastic anemia

35
Q

Chloramphenicol treats what organisms?

A

Escherichia coli

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus pneumoniae

36
Q

Macrolides MOA?

A

Bind to bacterial ribosomes to inhibit protein synthesis

Bacteriostatic

37
Q

Macrolides side effects?

A

GI disturbances

QT prolongation

38
Q

Examples of Marcolides?

A

Erythromycin (IV, PO)

Azithromycin (PO)

Clarithromycin (PO)
Metallic taste in the mouth

39
Q

What ABS do you get a metallic taste in your mouth?

A

Clarithromycin (PO)

40
Q

Aminoglycosides MOA?

A

Bind to bacterial ribosomes to inhibit protein synthesis

Bacteriostatic

41
Q

Aminoglycosides side effects?

A

Nephrotoxicity

Ototoxicity

42
Q

Aminoglycosides examples?

A

Streptomycin (IV)

Neomycin (PO)

Gentamicin (IV)

Tobramycin (PO)

43
Q

Ketolides MOA?

A

Bind to bacterial ribosomes to inhibit protein synthesis

Bacteriostatic

Similar to amnioglycocides

44
Q

Examples of Ketolides?

A

Telithromycin (Ketek):

PO
Hepatic P450 inhibition

45
Q

Lincosamide MOA?

A

Bind to bacterial ribosomes to inhibit protein synthesis

Bacteriostatic

46
Q

Lincosamide exmamples?

A

Clindamycin (IV, PO)

GI disturbances
C diff colitis

47
Q

Sulfonamides MOA? Sulfonamides?

A

Inhibit bacterial cell growth

48
Q

Sulfonamides MOA? Trimethoprim?

A

bacteriostatic

49
Q

Examples of sulfonamides?

A

Sulfamethoxazole/

trimethoprim (Bactrim) (PO)

50
Q

Side effects of Sulfonamides?

A

hemolytic anemia

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

51
Q

Fluoroquinolones MOA?

A

Inhibit activity of DNA gyrase that is necessary for replication

Bactericidal

52
Q

Examples of Fluoroquinolones?

A

Ciprofloxacin (T, IV, PO)

Levofloxacin

Ofloxacin

Moxifloxacin

53
Q

Side effects of Fluoroquinolones?

A

GI disturbance

arthropathy

arrhythmias

achilles tendon rupture

54
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl) MOA?

A

Bactericidal

Exact mechanism unknown

Disrupts DNA inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis

55
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl) is used for _________ and ________.

A

anaerobes and protozoa

Diverticulitis

Do not drink ETOH while taking!

56
Q

Antiretroviral drug classes?

A

Nucleoside (and nucleotide) reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)

Protease inhibitors (Pis)

Integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs)

57
Q

HIV: Who to treat?

A

Recommend antiretroviral therapy (ART) be offered to HIV-infected patients, including asymptomatic individuals, regardless of their immune status.

*those patients that are not compliant have increased noncompliance **

58
Q

Considerations prior to initiating treatmentfor HIV patients?

A
  1. Comorbid conditions and degree of organ dysfunction (eg, heart disease, osteoporosis, renal insufficiency, hepatitis B virus infection, and/or psychiatric conditions).
  2. The impact of factors related to the regimen itself (eg, pill burden, pill size, potential for drug interactions).
  3. Drug availability and cost.
  4. Plasma HIV RNA level (ie, viral load) and CD4 cell count
  5. Baseline drug resistance testing should also be performed to detect the presence and/or characteristics of a drug-resistant virus
59
Q

HIV Definition of treatment-naïve patients?

A

never undergone treatment for a particular illness.

*someone that has never been treated before **

60
Q

HIV treatment-naïve patients?

A

A regimen of tenofovir-emtricitabine

plus

an integrase inhibitor (eg, dolutegravir, raltegravir, or elvitegravir boosted with cobicistat

Or abacavir-lamivudine-dolutegravir

61
Q

HIV cormorbid conditions?

A

Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)

Presence or absence of heart disease or risk factors for heart
disease

Presence or absence of active hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection

Presence or absence of osteoporosis

62
Q

HIV primary medications? Generally prefer ____________________ over ________-__________ since there is a greater body of evidence supporting safety and tolerability of _______-_________

A

Generally prefer tenofovir-emtricitabine over abacavir-lamivudine since there is a greater body of evidence supporting the safety and tolerability of tenofovir-emtricitabine

63
Q

Treatment of patients who are positive for HLA-B*5701?

A

tenofovir-emtricitabine (Truvada)

abacavir-lamivudine (Epzicom)

zidovudine-lamivudine (Combivir)

64
Q

Treatment for patients who have chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection and normal kidney function?

A

tenofovir-emtricitabine (Truvada)

abacavir-lamivudine (Epzicom)

zidovudine-lamivudine (Combivir)

65
Q

Treatment for patients who have a history of, or who are at high risk for, heart disease?

A

tenofovir-emtricitabine (Truvada)

abacavir-lamivudine (Epzicom)

zidovudine-lamivudine (Combivir)

66
Q

Fusion inhibitors bind to the _____ site.

A

Gp120 site

  • binding site - where the drug class “fusion inhibitors” work**
  • 2 process on the outside and 2 process on the inside before it even gets to the nucleus itself = protease inhibitors **
67
Q

Treatment of Patients without comorbid conditions?

A

dolutegravir

plus either

tenofovir-emtricitabine or abacavir-lamivudine

Pharmacology (Dale Turley) (31 decks)

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