Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

The parasympathetic preganglionic fibers leave the CNS through what cranial nerves

A

Cranial nerves 9,10,7,3 and sacral spinal nerve roots 3rd and 4th

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2
Q

Cholinergic receptor that enhance the Inositol triphosphate (IP3) and Diacylglycerol (DAG)

A

Muscarinic 1,3,5

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3
Q

Cholinergic receptor that enhance Na+. /K+

A

Nn and Nm

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4
Q

Cholinergic receptor that inhibit CAMP/K+

A

M2 and M4

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5
Q

Direct acting cholinergic agonist and their receptors

A

Choline esters- M

Alkaloids-M3

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6
Q

Cholinergic agonist drug that is used for glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine

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7
Q

Cholinergic agonist drug that is used for sjogrens syndrom

A

Cevimeline

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8
Q

Direct acting cholinergic drugs

A

Choline esters

  1. Ach
  2. Carbachol
  3. Methacholine
  4. Bethanecol

Alkaloids

  1. Pilocarpine
  2. Cevimeline
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9
Q

Indirect acting or anti-ace reversible drug

A

Carbamates

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10
Q

Drugs used for myasthenia gravis

A

Edrophonium
Neostigmine
Physostigmine
Pyridostigmine

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11
Q

Irreversible indirect ace inhibitor that is nerve gas poison in bioterrorism

A

Soman/sarin

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12
Q

Choline ester that is used clinically. Used in paralytic ileus, intestinal atony and urinary atony

A

Bethanecol

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13
Q

Number 1 cause of poisoning in our country that is produced by malathion and parathion

A

Organophosphate poisoning

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14
Q

Ace inhibitor that has CNS effect, used for alzheimer’s dimentia (symptomatic treatment only)

A

Donepezil-anti-Ace
Galantamine
Rivastigmine
Memantine- anti-NMDA and Ace

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15
Q

Varenicline is a drug for cigarette smoking cessation which has a side effect of and what receptor does it use?

A

Psychosis, Nn (A4B2)

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16
Q

Current drug for cigarette smoking cessation

A

Bupropion

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17
Q

Symptoms seen in poisoning with muscarinic excess

A
Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bradychardia
Bronchoconstriction
Excitation
Lacrimation
Lethargy
Salivation
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18
Q

Most common cholinergic antagonists in natural alkaloid

A

Atropine(hyoscyamine)

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19
Q

Cholinergic antagonists that is aNatural alkaloid

A

Atropine, scopolamine

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20
Q

Symptoms seen in atropine overdose

A

Dry-bone
Blind-bat
Red-beet
Mad-hater

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21
Q

Symptom of scopolamine overdose

A

Xerostomia

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22
Q

New antispasmodic drugs

A
Receptor-M3
Propantheline
Dicyclomine
Mebeverine
Glycopyrrolate
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23
Q

Cholinergic antagonist that is used for peptic ulcer disease

A

Pirenzepine

Telenzepine

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24
Q

Used in opthalmology, causing mydriasis

A

Homatropine
Tropicamide
Cyclopentolate

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25
Q

Cholinergic antagonists that is used for the treatment of parkinsonism

A

Benztropine

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26
Q

Cholinergic antagonist that is used for urinary incontinence

A
Darifenacin
Solifenacin
Oxtybutynin
Trospium
Tolterodine
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27
Q

Drug of use for urinary incontinence that is selective, long acting, potent with no side effect

A

Tolterodine

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28
Q

Drug of choice for UIS in children

A

Imipramine

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29
Q

A drug that has a mode of action of chemodenervation, it blocks the ATP with neuronal Ach and used for urinary incontinence

A

Botulinum toxin A

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30
Q

Ace-regenerators, used in cholinergic overdose due to muscarinic excess and has a side effect of muscle weakness

A

Praridoxime (PAM)

Diacetylmonoxime (DAM)

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31
Q

Relative contraindication of cholinergic antagonist

A

Angle-closure glaucoma
BPH
PUD

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32
Q

What is the Adrenoreceptor that increases the IP3-DAG

A

A1

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33
Q

Adrenoreceptor that inhibits CAMP amd increases K+

A

A2, D2,3,4

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34
Q

Adrenoreceptor that increases CAMP

A

B1, B2, B3, D1, D5

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35
Q

Treatment for carbon monoxide

A

Removal of the individual from the exposure
Maintenance of the respiration
Administration of O2- Room air- 320 mins elimination half chair
- 100% Ox - 80 minutes
- Hyperbaric oxygen (2-3 atm)- 20 minutes

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36
Q

An aromatic hydrocarbon that is CNS depressant, skin and nerve irritant and ferotoxic

A

Toluene (methylbenzene)

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37
Q

An Aromatic hydrocarbons that is CNS depressant and skin irritant

A

Xylene (dimethylbenzene)

38
Q

A disease that is caused by the polychlorinated biphenyls

A

Yusho disease

39
Q

Symptoms of yusho disease

A

Severe chloracne, dark brown pigmentation, ocular swelling

40
Q

Can cause progressive fibrotic lung disease and mesothelioma

A

Asbestos

41
Q

One of the oldest occupational and environmental diseases in the world

A

Lead

42
Q

Mode of action of lead

A
Alterations in cell signaling
Changes in gene expression
Inhibition of enzyme
Interference with essential cations
Generation of oxidative stress
Disruption of the integrity of membranes in cells and organelles
43
Q

Treatment for inorganic lead poisoning

A

Immediate termination of exposure
Supportive care
Chelation therapy (IV edetate calcium disodium)
Management of lead encephalopathy

44
Q

Treatment for organolead poisoning

A

Initial decontamination of skin and preventing further exposure
Anticonvulsants for seizures
Empiric chelation for high blood lead concentration

45
Q

Treatment for acute mercury intoxication

A

Chelation with oral or IV unithiol, IM dimercaprol, oral succimer
Hydration
Hemodialysis if acute renal failure occurs

46
Q

Treatment for chronic mercury intoxication

A

Unithiol and succimer
Dimercaprol
Succimer, unithiol and n-acetylcysteine

47
Q

Single agent treatment for acute arsenic and inorganic mercury poisoning

A

Dimercaprol

48
Q

Treatment of children with blood lead concentration <45 mcg/dL

A

Succimer/DMSA

49
Q

Chelation of lead, poisoning of Zn, Mn, radionuclides; an alternative medicine for atherosclerosis CVD

A

EDTA

50
Q

Initial treatment for acute arsenic and mercury poisoning

A

Unithiol

51
Q

Treatment for copper poisoning

A

penicillamine

52
Q

Treatment of contamination with radioactive cesium

A

Prussian blue

53
Q

Parenteral chelator of choice for iron poisoning

A

Deferoxamine

54
Q

Oral treatment or iron overload

A

Deferasirox

55
Q

Characteristic of an ideal antimicrobial agent

A

Kill or inhibit the growth of pathogens
Cause no damage or allergic reaction to the host
Stable when stored in solid or liquid form
Remain in specific tissues in the body long enough to be effective
Kill the pathogens before they mutate and become resistant to it

56
Q

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

A
Penicillins
Cephalosphorin
Carbapenems
Monobactams
Vancomycin
Bacitracin
57
Q

Drug that inhibit cell membrane

A

Polymyxins

58
Q

Inhibit protein synthesis

A
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
Macrolides
Clindamycin
Linezolid
Chloramphenicol
Streptogramins
59
Q

Inhibit protein synthesis in 30s subunit

A

Tetracyclines

Aminoglycosides

60
Q

Inhibit folate synthesis

A

Sulfonamides

Trimethoprim

61
Q

Inhibit DNA gyrase

A

Quinolones

62
Q

Inhibit RNA polymerase

A

Rifampin

63
Q

Bacteriostatic agents (CCOMENNTTTS)

A
Chloramphenicol
Clindamycin
Oxazolidinones
Macrolides
Ethambutol
Nitrofurantoin
Novobiocin
Tetracyclines
Tigecyline
Trimethoprim
Sulfonamide
64
Q

Against gram negative bacilli (QR-CCATT)

A
Quinolones
Rifampin
Chloramphenicol
Carbapanemes
Aminoglycosides
Tetracylines
Tigecycline
65
Q

Developing of antibiotic resistance

A

Mutation
Acquiring resistant
Increasing resistance

66
Q

Mutation occurs through

A

Producing enzymes that inactivate antibiotics
Eliminate the part in the cell which antibiotic attack
Closing up entry ports that allow antibiotics to enter the cell
Developing mechanism that export the antibiotic out of the cell before it reaches the target

67
Q

Penicillin that have greatest activity against gram positive organisms, gram-negative cocci and non-B-lactamase producing anaerobes

A

Penicillin G

68
Q

Resistance to penicillins and other B-lactams is due to one of four general mechanisms

A

Inactivation of antibiotic by B-lactamase
Modification of target PBPs
Impaired penetration of drug to target PBP
Antibiotic efflux

69
Q

Considered drug of choice for serious staphylococcal infections such as endocarditis

A

Oxacillin and nafcillin

70
Q

Most active of the oral B-lactam antibiotics against pneumococci with elevated MICs to penicillin and are the preferred B-lactam antibiotics for treating infections suspected to be caused by these strains

A

Ampicillin and amoxicillin

71
Q

Adverse effect of naficillin

A

Neutropenia and interstitial nephritis

72
Q

Adverse effect of oxacillin

A

Hepatitis

73
Q

Adverse effect of methicillin

A

Interstitial nephritis

74
Q

Adverse effect of ampicillin

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

75
Q

First generation drug for cephalosphorins

A
Cefazolin
Cephalothin
Cefadroxil
Cephalexin
Cephradine
76
Q

Fourth generation cephalosphorins

A

Parenteral agents
Cefepime
Cefpirome

77
Q

A glycopeptide antibiotic; inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding firmly to the D-Ala D-ala terminus of nascent peptidoglycan, adverse effect or red man syndrome

A

Vancomycin

78
Q

Adverse effect of tetracycline

A

Enamel dysplasia

79
Q

Has an adverse effect on proloned QT interval due to effect on potassium ion channels

A

Macrolides

80
Q

Traditional drug of choice in corynebacterial infection and in respiratory, neonatal, ocular or genital chlamydial infections

A

Erythromycin

81
Q

Can produce acute cholestatic hepatitis

A

Erythromycin estolate

82
Q

How clindamycin builds resistance

A

Efflux
Production of esterase
Methylase

83
Q

Adverse effect of Chloramphenicol

A

Aplastic anemia, gray baby symptom

84
Q

Exhibit concentration dependent killing

A

Chloramphenicol

85
Q

Antimycobacterial drugs thats is used in continuation phase

A

Isoniazid and rifampin

86
Q

Has a MOA of inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acid and adverse effect of peripheral neuropathy, tingling, loss of sensation

A

Isoniazid

87
Q

Has a MOA that inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and adverse effect of orange colored urine, sweat and tears

A

Rifampicin

88
Q

Inhibits mycobacterial arabinosyl transferase and has an adverse effect of optic neuritis

A

Ethambutol

89
Q

Inhibits the folate synthesis and has an adverse effect of hemolysis, methemoglobinemia and erythema nodosum leprosum

A

Dapsone

90
Q

Drugs used in leprosy

A

Dapsone

Clofazimine