Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What does ADME stand for?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion of drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is pharmacokinetics

A

the study of ‘ADME’ the absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What phase is bypassed when a drug is administered intravenously

A

absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is absorption

A

the transfer of a drug from the site of administration to the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most important site for drug absorption for orally administered drugs?

A

the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what mechanical factor can increase absorption

A

massaging the injection site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is distribution

A

the pattern of distribution of drug molecules by various tissues ~after the chemical enters the circulatory system~

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

After being absorbed, where is the drug distributed?

A

to the organ with the highest blood flow

  • orally to the liver
  • sublingually to the heart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is an important protein that may alter the effects of drug distribution

A

albumin; a plasma protein that binds to a large range of drugs, this interaction may interfere with active drug concentrations in the blood; if it is albumin binding drug, you may have to increase drug dosage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Metabolism

A

the process by which the body breaks down and converts medication into active chemicaal substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a major site for drug metabolism

A

THE LIVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If a person has liver disease or past/present substance abuse, what effect may occur when metabolizing medications

A

May have a compromised ability to metabolize medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is elimination

A

the elimination or excretion of a drug is understood to be any one of a number of processes by which a drug is eliminated from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most important route for drug elimination

A

renal (kidney) excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drugs are NOT excreted in the urine

A

lipid soluble drugs (need to be metabolized into water soluble form by liver)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the only way to terminate a drug’s effect

A

Drug elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the major route of fluoride elimination

A

excretion in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

**What are ~the main~ factors that alter drug efficacy (8 points)

A
  • patient compliance
  • liver dysfunction
  • disease
  • past or present abuse
  • drug metabolism
  • kidney disease
  • route of administration
  • weight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What doe the ‘surface area’ or ‘clark’s rule’ take into account when determining child’s dosage

A

more accurate than ‘cowling’s rule’ or ‘young’s rule’ (take into account age) because it calculates in weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a toxic reaction

A

the amount of desired effect is excessive; dose related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a side effect

A

dose-related reaction that is not part of the desired therapeutic outcome
ex: drowsiness that occurs with antihistamine use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is an idiosyncratic reaction

A

abnormal drug response that is usually genetically related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a local effect

A

local tissue irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a teratogenic effect

A

relationship between maternal drug use and congenital abnormalities
ex: thalidomide induction of phocomelia (shortened limbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are drug interactions

A

effect of one drug that is altered by another; may result in toxicity or lack of efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is an allergic reaction

A

Immune hypersensitivity reaction to a drug the the patient has previously exposed (NOT dose related)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a treatment for a mild allergic reaction

A

antihistamine with or without steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is treatment for a anaphylactic reaction

A

epinephrine subcutaneously with or without steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

**Phenytoin/Dilantin dental effects*

A

gingival overgrowth, usually occurs in the anterior facial region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

**Cyclosporine dental effects

A

organ rejection preventive medication, generally causes gingival overgrowth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

**Calcium channel blockers dental effects

A

nifedipine, verapamil, amlodipine; causes gingival overgrowth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What medications are most commonly associated with gingival overgrowth (3 points)

A
  • Phenytoin/dilantin
  • cyclosporine
  • calcium channel blockers (nifedipine, verapamil, amlodipine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is potency

A

how MUCH of a drug is needed to create the desired therapeutic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is efficacy

A

how WELL the drug creates the desired therapeutic effect

-more important than potency when selecting a particular drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how are potency and efficacy related

A

potency and efficacy are NOT related; drugs may have different potencies but the same efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is latency

A

the period of time that must elapse between the time at which a dose of drug is applied to a biologic system and the time at which a specified pharmacologic effect is produced; varies with dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is onset

A

the time from drug administration until the drug exerts an observable specific effect or response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Half-life

A

the time it takes for a drug to lose half of its pharmacologic, physiologic, or radiologic activity; relates to duration of effect
ex: one half life = 50%
two half lives= 25% and so on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is a steady state

A

When the amount of drug entering the body equals the amount being removed; NOT related to the dosage of the drug or the frequency of drug administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a therapeutic index

A

a measurement of the safety of the drug; narrow therapeutic index do not have much difference between the effective dose and the toxic or lethal dose-these patients need to be monitored closely for adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a bactericidal

A

a drug or substance which kills bacteria or is capable of killing bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is bacteriostatic

A

a drug or substance that prevents the growth of bacteria by keeping the microbes in the stationary phase of growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is resistane

A

natural or acquired ability of an organism to be immune to or to resist the effects of an antimicrobial agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is spectrum

A

range of activity of a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is synergism

A

interaction of two (or more) drugs such that the total effect is greater than the sum of the individual effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is antagonism

A

occurs when a combination of two agents produces less effect than either agent alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is enteral

A

placed directly into the GI tract; oral or rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is parenteral

A

drug bypasses GI tract; injection, inhalation and topical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which drug administration route is the safest, least expensive and most convenient

A

the oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a limitation to the oral route

A

patient cooperation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What term describes how orally delivered drugs must pass through hepatic portal circulation First which can inactivate some drugs

A

First-pass effect or Phase 1 reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is an effect of having a high first-pass ratio

A

They have a greater oral to parenteral dose ratio and require a LARGER oral dose/ the amount of drug available to produce systemic effect is reduced by first pass effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

besides the first pass effect, what can also decrease drug metabolism?

A

Impaired liver functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which drug administration route produces the most rapid response

A

Intravascular route (absorption phase bypassed**)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which drug administration route produces a sustained effect (3 points)

A

Intramuscular route massaging area increases absorption

  • GI interactions avoided
  • absorption is generally uniform with a rapid onset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which drug administration route is used to administer protein products

A

subcutaneous route (insulin and local anesthetics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a disadvantage to topical drug administration route

A

they may have a systemic uptake** do not overdo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Who determines which substances are added or removed from each drug classification schedule

A

The DEA and FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a schedule I drug

A

Highest abuse potential
-No accepted medical use
Ex: heroin, ecstasy, LSD, Marijuana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is a schedule II drug

A

High abuse potential
-Written prescription with provider’s signature only
-NO REFILLS
Ex: codeine, oxycontin, fentnyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a schedule III drug

A 
Moderate abuse potential
-Prescriptions may be phoned in
-no more than 5 refills in 6 months
-may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence
Ex: anabolic steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a schedule IV drug

A

Less abuse potential
-same as schedule III, may be phoned in..no more than 5 refills a month.. moderate-low dependence
Ex: Xanax, Soma, Valium, Ativan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a schedule V drug

A

Least potential for abuse

-can be purchased over the counter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

ac

A

before meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

bid

A

twice a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

gt

A

drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

hs

A

at bedtime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

po

A

by mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

pc

A

after meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

prn

A

as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

q3h

A

every 3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

qd

A

every day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

qid

A

4 times a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

tid

A

3 times a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

sig

A

label; instructions for use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

stat

A

immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

tab

A

tablet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

ud

A

as directed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is an NSAID

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are side effects of Asprin (5 points)

A
  • Interferes with clotting
  • GI irritation
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Reye’s syndrome
  • Toxicity termed salicylism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Is aspirin an NSAID

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Is Ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin, Nuprin) an NSAID

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are side effects of ibuprofin (2 points)

A
  • GI irritation
  • Interferes with clotting
  • —less than aspirin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is analgesic

A

reduces pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is antipyretic

A

reduces fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Ibuprofen can decrease the pharmacological effects of MANY drugs including (7 points)

A 
ACE inhibitors
Aspirin
Beta blockers
Corticosteroids
Cyclosporine
Lithium
Loop diaretics
**will have a case study
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Is aleve/Naproxen an NSAID

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

side effects of Aleve/Naproxen (2 points)

A
  • increased risk of serious cardiovascular thrombotic events

- prolongs bleeding time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

**What occurs when taking an NSAID and phenytoin (Dilantin) (2 points)

A

increased phenytoin levels
-people taking phenytoin should have a blood test to monitor the phenytoin level when starting/increasing the dose of an NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Is Acetaminophen/Tylenol an NSAID

A

no (no anti-inflammatory effect or effect on clotting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is the drug of choice for patients on anticoagulants (coumadin) or with peptic ulcer disease

A

Acetaminophen/ Tylenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Overdose in what is the number one cause of liver failure

A

Tylenol/ can cause death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the common NSAIDS (3 points)

A

Aspirin
Ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin, nuprin)
Naproxen/Aleve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the mechanism of action for narcotic/opioid analgesics

A

blocks pain receptors in the brain without loss of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the drug actions for narcotics/opioid analgesics (4 points)

A

analgesia
anti-tussive (cough suppressant)
sedation
euphoria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are adverse effects of narcotics/opioid analgesics (4 points)

A

respiratory depression (pt can forget to breathe)**
nausea/vomiting**
constipation**
addiction**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the main opioid used in dentistry

A

codeine (generally used in conjunction with Tylenol 3)***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

**What is the #1 sign of an overdose/addiction to ANY opioid

A

pinpoint pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is used to treat Opioid overdose**

A

Narcan!!** (naloxone) should always be in dental emergency kit***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the ANS

A

autonomic nervous system involuntary responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What does the ANS require

A

neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the two divisions of the nervous system

A

Parasympathetic nervous system and Sympathetic Nervous sytem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which is the ‘Rest and Digest System’

A

Parasympathetic Nervous System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for the Parasympathetic Nervous System

A

actycholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What dentally significant function is of the PNS

A

stimulates salivary gland secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are parasympathomimetics (2 points)

A

drugs used to mimic the effects of the PNS; aka cholinergic agents or muscarinic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are cholinergic agents used to treat (3 points)

A
  • Xerostomia*
  • urinary retention
  • glaucoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are some examples of cholinergic agents (2 points)

A

pilocarpine

nicotine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are contraindications of cholinergic agents (4 points)

A
  • asthma
  • peptic ulcer
  • cardiac disease
  • GI/urinary obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are anticholinergic agents

A

inhibit parasympathetic effects by blocking acetylcholine receptors

111
Q

What is an example of an anticholinergic agent in the dental setting

A

Atropine-decreases salivary flow

112
Q

What are the effects of anticholinergic drugs (4 points)

A

A-anticholinergic agents
B-blurred vision and bladder retention
C-constipation
D-dry mouth

113
Q

What is the fight or flight system

A

SNS- Sympathetic Nervous System

114
Q

What are the neurotransmitters for SNS

A

acetylcholine and norepinepherine

115
Q

What are functions of the SNS (6 points)

A
  • increase in the rate and constriction of the heart
  • *dilation of bronchial tubes in the lungs (allows for greater oxygen exchange) and pupils in the eyes
  • contraction of muscles
  • release adrenaline from adrenal gland
  • decrease in saliva production**
  • vasocnstriction**
116
Q

What are sympathomimetics (2 points)

A

medications that mimic the effects of the sympathetic response
-AKA adrenergic drugs.. each adrenergic drug treats different conditions depending on which receptors are targeted

117
Q

Where are beta-1 (B1) receptors (3 points)

A

*heart (primarily) (remember..have ‘1’ heart ‘2’ lungs)
eye
kidneys

118
Q

Where are beta-2 (B2) receptors (6 points)

A 
*lungs (primarily) (remember..have '1' heart '2' lungs)
GI tract
liver
uterus
blood vessels
skeletal muscle
119
Q

Where are beta-3 (B3) receptors

A

fat cells

120
Q

What are bronchodilators for (4 points)

A
  • open bronchial tubes
  • bind to beta-2 receptors
  • used for treatment of asthma, COPD, emphysema, bronchitis
  • most common is albuterol
121
Q

What can be an adverse effect of an asthma inhaler

A

candidiasis

122
Q

Where do vasopressors act on

A

-alpha1, beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors as well as dopamine receptors

123
Q

what do vasopressors do (3 points)

A
  • stimulate smooth muscle contraction in the blood vessels leading to vasoconstriction which increases blood pressure
  • good for treating shock and to stop bleeding
  • keep anesthetics in area of administration
124
Q

What are common vasopressors (4 points)

A
  • Epinephrine
  • dopamine (Parkinson’s disease, shock, hypotension)
  • ephedrine (for colds)
  • pseudoephedrine (for colds)
125
Q

What are cardiac stimulators used for

A

to stimulate and restore the heartbeat in emergency situations *generally epinephrine

126
Q

What are other common adrenergic agents (besides vasopressors, cardiac stimulators and bronchodilators) (3 points)

A
  • ritalin/adderall
  • cocaine
  • methamphetamine
127
Q

What is contraindicated for cocaine or methamphetamine abusers

A

Epinephrine

128
Q

What is cocaine considered?

A

a vasoconstrictor–only local anesthetic agent with vasoconstrictive properties

129
Q

What are oral signs of methamphetamine abuse? (3 points)

A
  • rampant caries
  • burned mucosal surfaces
  • mucosal irritation is a result of the METHOD of drug administration, not the drug itself*
130
Q

What are treatment options for those suffering from meth addiction or overdose

A

There are none only cognitive behavioral interventions for coping skills

131
Q

What are adverse effects of adrenergic agents (3 points)

A
  • CNS disturbances (anxiety, fear, headache; imortant consideration for anesthesia selecton–case study–)
  • Cardiac arrhythmias***
  • cerebral hemorrhage
132
Q

Contraindications for adrenergic drugs (3 points)

A
  • patients with angina
  • uncontrolled hypertension
  • uncontrolled hyperthyroidism
133
Q

What are adrenergic-blocking agents

A

beta-blockers/B-blockers

-drugs that block norepinephrine and epinephrine from binding to beta receptors on nerves

134
Q

Where are norepinephrine and epinephrine produced

A

by nerves throughout the body as well as by the adrenal gland

135
Q

What happens when beta-blockers block norepinephrine and epinephrine?

A

beta blockers reduce heart rate, reduce blood pressure by dilating blood vessels
-may constrict air passages by stimulating the muscles that surround the air passages to contract (an adverse side effect)

136
Q

What are beta blockers used to manage (5 points)

A
  • cardiac arrhythmias
  • heart failure
  • diabetes
  • post heart attack (myocardial infarction)
  • hypertension
137
Q

off-label uses of beta blockers (4 points)

A
  • migraines
  • glaucoma
  • hyperthyroidism
  • anxiety
138
Q

Adverse effects of Beta Blockers (2 points)

A
  • may cause shortness of breath in asthmatics

- can cause low or high blood glucose

139
Q

Who found the first antibiotic and when

A

Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928

140
Q

Do antibiotics fight viral infections?

A

No, they kill (bacteriocidal) or slow bacterial (bacteriostatic)

141
Q

What are side effects of antibiotics (3 points)

A
  • diarrhea
  • oral candidiasis
  • GI upset
142
Q

What is synergism

A

occurs when a combination of two antibiotics taken together produces a greater effect than would be expected if their individual actions were added together

143
Q

what is antagonism

A

occurs when a combination of two antibiotics produce a lesser drug effect than either medication on its own

144
Q

What are the most commonly prescribed antibiotics in dentistry

A

Penicillins (safe for pregnant women)

145
Q

What antibiotic is most likely to produce an anaphylactic reaction

A

penicillins (generally a rash**)

146
Q

What are examples of penicillin antibiotics (4 points)

A
  1. Penicillin VK (preferred over Pen. G because Pen. G is inactivated by gastric acids)
  2. Penicillin G
  3. Amoxiillin
  4. Amoxicillin in combination with clavulonic acid (augmentin)
147
Q

What antibiotics are generally used to combat respiratory diseases

A

Macrolides due to their broad spectrum of activity and their relative safety (bacteriostatic)

148
Q

If a patient is allergic to penicillin, what is an alternative

A

clarithromycin and azithromycin

149
Q

What are tetracyclines

A

a broad spectrum antibiotic (bacteriostatic

150
Q

When are tetracyclines contraindicated

A

during pregnancy

151
Q

How are tetracyclines to be taken

A
  • with a full glass of water on an empty stomach
  • 1-2 hours after meals
  • cannot be taken with milk or other dairy products
152
Q

What are ideal antibiotic periodontal therapy options in cases of NUP/NUG and aggressive periodontal diseases

A

tetracycline (especially doxycycline) because they concentrate in the gingival crevicular fluid and have an anti-collagenase effect

153
Q

What specific antibiotic should alcohol be avoided with

A

Nitromidazones (no mouth rinse)

154
Q

What four antibiotics are used to treat tuberculosis and MUST be taken together

A 
(RIPE)
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
155
Q

If a patient is taking isoniazid or rifampin ONLY what is most likely the reason**

A

taking it as a preventive agent

156
Q

What is the suggested antibiotic regiment for dental prophylaxis***

A 
amoxicillin 2000 mg (2g)
if allergic to amoxicillin:
-cephalexin 2000 mg (2g)
-clindamycin 600 mg
-azithromycin 500 mg
-clarithromycin 500 mg
157
Q

What are drugs used to cure Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

A
  • Acyclovir (look for -vir- (virus))
  • Penciclovir
  • Valacyclovir
158
Q

What is treatment with HIV medicines called

A

antiretroviral therapy (ART)

159
Q

What is the most common antifungal agents used in dentistry

A
  • Nystatin (for thrush)(topical)

- Fluconazole (systemic)

160
Q

What are the most commonly employed drugs in the dental office?

A

Local anesthetics

161
Q

How do local anesthetics work

A

inhibit the influx of sodium ions by competing with calcium for binding sites

162
Q

local anesthetics -de-crease the rate of

A

-de-polarization

163
Q

What are the two groups of anesthetic agents

A

Esters and Amides

164
Q

**What ester is used primarily topically?

A

benzocaine

also Novocain, but it is not available anymore

165
Q

What anesthetic group is allergic reactions most common

A

Esters

166
Q

What is the most used Anesthetic agent in dentistry

A

Lidocaine (it is an amide)

167
Q

Is lidocaine safe for a pregnant patient

A

yes and during lactation as well

168
Q

what is the recommended dose of lidocaine

A

300 mg

169
Q

Which anesthetic agent has a longer duration and lower epinephrine content than lidocaine and what is it’s maximum dose

A

Prilocaine (max dose 400mg)

170
Q

What anesthetic agent has the longest duration and what is it’s maximum dose

A

Bupivacaine (max dose 90 mg)

171
Q

What are the most common anesthetic agents from shortest duration to longest (5 points)

A 
Mepivacaine
Lidocaine
Prilocaine
Articaine
Bupivicaine
172
Q

What is the max dosage for Artiaine

A

500mg (safer than bupivacaine)

173
Q

What is the max dosage for Mepivacaine

A

300mg

174
Q

**Why are vasoconstrictors added to anesthetics (4 points)

A

Prolong anesthetic action
Reduce anesthetic toxicity
Delays absorption
Decreases bleeding

175
Q

**What are the anesthetic agents available without a vasoconstrictor (3 points)

A

Lidocaine
Mepivacaine
Citanest

176
Q

**What two anesthetics will ALWAYS contain a vasoconstrictor

A

Articaine

Bupivacaine

177
Q

how much anesthetic agent in mg is in a 2% anesthetic solution

A

36mg

178
Q

in a 1:100000 epinephrine solution, how much epinephrine is present

A

.018 mg

179
Q

What is the maximum number of carpules containing 1:100000 epinephrine allowed for a hypertensive patient

A

2

180
Q

What is the limit of epinephrine allowed for ASA I, II, III, and IV patients

A

ASA I or II - .2mg

ASA III or IV- .04 mg

181
Q

***Why don’t local anesthetics work well in inflamed tissue

A

They are a weak base and inflamed tissue has an acidic environment; necessitates an increased dose of anesthetic agent

182
Q

***What is the BEST way to reduce systemic toxicity from local anesthetic administration

A

use an aspirating syringe

183
Q

What is the effect of barbiturates

A

CNS depression (look for ending -barbital)

184
Q

What long acting barbiturate is used in the treatment of epilepsy

A

Phenobarbital

185
Q

What is used for the short-term treatment of anxiety, insomnia, and alcohol withdrawal

A

benzodiazepines

186
Q

***What is the most common type of drug used in the dental setting

A

benzodiazepines (allays apprehension in fearful dental patients)

187
Q

***What can reverse status epilepticus and seizures associated with local anesthetic overdose

A

benzodiazepines

188
Q

What are examples of benzodiazepines (3 points)

A
  • Diazepam (valium)
  • Lorazepam (Ativan)
  • Xanax (Alprazolam)
189
Q

**How does nitrous oxide sedation work to calm patients

A

Increases pain threshold (does NOT decrease peripheral nervous system response)

190
Q

**What color are nitrous oxide tanks

A

blue

191
Q

What is the route of excretion for nitrous oxide

A

exhalation

192
Q

**What are contraindications for nitrous oxide/ oxygen sedation (6 points)

A
  • COPD
  • Upper respiratory infection (including stuffy nose)
  • emotional/anxiety disorder
  • Pregnancy
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Lack of communication/language barrier
193
Q

***What stage does nitrous oxide keep the patient in

A

Stage 1 anesthesia (analgesia)

194
Q

***What can long-term nitrous oxide abuse lead to

A
  • neurological symptoms similar to parkinson’s disease and dementia
  • vitamin B12 deficiency leading to numbness and tingling in the extremities
195
Q

***How is Nitrous oxide sedation effective with cerebral palsy patients

A

reduces the orofacial muscle tones

196
Q

What are the 3 groups of anti-anxiety medications?

A

Barbiturates
Benzodiazepines
Nitrous Oxide Sedation

197
Q

What are the 5 groups of Antidepressants

A 
Selective serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
Lithium
Tricyclic antidepressants
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)
Bupropion (Zyban)
198
Q

What are the most common antidepressants

A

Selective serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors

199
Q

What are a common side effect of SSRI’s

A

xerostomia

200
Q

***What is lithium used to treat

A

mood disorders such as bipolar disorder

201
Q

***What are two main drugs out of 1164 drugs that are known to interact with lithium

A

acetaminophen and ibuprofin

202
Q

What are tricyclic antidepressants used to treat and an example of one

A

depression that is resistant to other drugs

ex: amitriptyline (elavil)

203
Q

What is a major side effect of tricyclic antidepressants

A

risk of suicide

204
Q

What are other side effects of tricyclic antidepressants (3 points)

A
  • swelling of the tongue and face
  • sedation
  • xerostomia
205
Q

***What should we NOT use for patients taking tricyclic antidepressants

A

DO NOT use epinephrine

206
Q

What are Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors

A

elevate levels of norepinephrine, serotonin and dopamine by inhibiting an enzyme called monoamine oxide… no longer used often because of certain food interactions
-also used for treating parkinson’s

207
Q

What is Bupropion (Zyban) used to treat

A

depression but also largely used to help people stop smoking

208
Q

How does Bupropion (Zyban) help smokers quit smoking

A

blocks some of the chemicals in the brain that react with nicotine to increase the ‘feel good component’ when a person smokes–so it reduces tobacco cravings and eases other withdrawal symptoms

209
Q

What are the 4 main anticonvulsant and anti-seizure medications

A

Phenytoin
Caramazepine
Benzodiazepines
Phenobarbitol

210
Q

What is Phenytoin (Dilantin) used to treat

A

controls partial seizures and generalized tonic-clonic seizures

211
Q

What is a dental significant side effect of Phenytoin (Dilantin)

A

gingival inlargement-generally on the anterior facial region

212
Q

What is Phenytoin also known as

A

Dilantin

213
Q

What is Bupropion also known as

A

Zyban

214
Q

What is Carbamazepine also known as

A

Tegretol

215
Q

What is the first choice for partial, generalized tonic-clonic and mixed seizures

A

Carbamazepine/Tegretol

216
Q

What is effective for short-term treatment of ALL seizures

A

Benzodiazepines

217
Q

What can be used in the emergency room to stop a seizure or status epilepticus following local anesthesia overdose

A

Benzodiazepines

218
Q

What is the oldest epilepsy medicine still used and why

A

Phenobarbitol- it is effective and low cost

219
Q

What are antihistamine

A
  • agents that block histmine release from histamine-1 receptors
  • used to treat symptoms of an allergic reaction
220
Q

What are antihistmines also used for (besides allergic reaction treatment)

A
  • reduce anxiety
  • induce sleep
  • motion sickness
221
Q

What are side effects of anthistamines and an example

A
  • xerostomia
  • sedation
    ex: benedryl
222
Q

***What adverse reaction is NOT associated with hypoglycemia

A

shortness of breath

223
Q

***What is insulin-shock

A

hypoglycemia

224
Q

***What hypoglycemics are used to treat Type 2 diabetes

A

Metformin and glyburide

225
Q

How do rescue medications help an asthma attack and an example

A

open up inflamed airways

ex: albuterol

226
Q

What is a controller medication for asthmatic patients

A

a daily medication that is used to prevent or improve asthma symptoms in patients who experience frequent symptoms

227
Q

***What is an oral medication used to treat chronic asthma and the bronchospasm associated with emphysema and chronic bronchitis

A

Theophylline–erythromycin can increase serum levels of theophylline and toxicity may result

228
Q

***What drug should be avoided in asthmatics

A

aspirin

229
Q

***Albuterol can cause….

A

insomnia (it is an adrenergic drug)

230
Q

***What can rapidly alleviate an acute attack of asthma when taken by inhalation but is rarely used as a bronchodilator

A

Isoproterenol

231
Q

***What is used for the reversal of bronchospasms

A

metaproterenol

232
Q

***What is the most prevalent GI disease in the US

A

GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease)

233
Q

What is GERD

A

failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to close properly which results in reflux of acid into the unprotected lining of the esophagus

234
Q

What are treatment options for GERD

A

OTC medications that help neutralize stomach hydrochloric acid

235
Q

What is an alkalinizing agent that reduces stomach acid; commonly used antacid to treat heartburn, acid ingestion and upset stomach

A

baking soda (sodium bicarbonate)

236
Q

What can antacids inhibit absorption of

A

tetracyclines

237
Q

What is the most powerful medication available for treating GERD and an example

A

PPIs (Proton pump inhibitors) (Prilosec)

238
Q

**What do gastric ulceration’s cause

A

could have erosion of the enamel on the lingual surfaces of maxillary anterior teeth but will NOT have gingival bleeding

239
Q

***What are the most common medications prescribed for osteoporosis treatment and an example

A

Bisphosphonates such as Alendronate (Fosamax)

prevent loss of bone density

240
Q

What are two possible effects of bisphosphonates

A

Heightened risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw

impaired wound healing

241
Q

What do corticosteroid medications do

A

prevent the release of substances in the body that cause inflammation and suppress the immune system

242
Q

What are corticosteroids used for (4 points)

A

rashes
autoimmune disorders
Addison’s disease
asthma

243
Q

What are the main side effects of corticosteroid use (5 points)

A 
increased risk of infection
Delayed wound healing
Glaucoma
Fluid retention
Weight gain
244
Q

What are medications used in the treatment of Cardiovascular diseases (4 points)

A

Anti-hypertension medications (diuretics, b-adrenergic blocking agents, calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors)
Digitalis glycosides
Nitroglycerin
Anticoagulants

245
Q

What is the first line of therapy for hypertension

A

diuretics

246
Q

How do diuretics work in decreasing blood pressure?

A

promote excretion of sodium and water which then decreases blood volume and pressure

247
Q

How do B-Adrenergic work in decreasing blood pressure?

A

lower blood pressure primarily by decreasing cardiac output (second line-therapy)

248
Q

How to identify B-Adrenergic blocking agents?

A

look for suffix -olol (propranolol, metaprolol)

249
Q

***If a patient is taking a B-Adrenergic blocking agent what should you do

A

Avoid using ANY epinephrine containing agents

250
Q

How do Calcium channel blockers work in decreasing blood pressure?

A

produce systemic vasodilation by BLOCKING vasoconstriction in smooth muscle of blood vessels

251
Q

What are oral manifestations of Calcium channel blockers

A

gingival enlargement

252
Q

What are common channel blocking agents (4 points)

A

Cardizem
Norvasc
Verapamil
Nifedipine

253
Q

How to ACE Inhibitors decrease blood pressure?

A

the drugs block the conversion of angiotension I to angiotension II

254
Q

What are common side effects of ACE Inhibitors (2 points)

A

Dysgeusia (altered taste sensation)

Dry cough

255
Q

What suffix signify ACE inhibitors

A

-pril medications

256
Q

***what decreases the effectiveness of ACE inhibitors

A

NSAIDS (except Calcium Channel blockers)

257
Q

What is the most common type of drug used in the treatment of congestive heart failure.. and an example

A 
Digitalis glycosides(increases contractile strength)
ex: Digoxin
258
Q

***What is the drug of choice for acute angina

A

Nitroglycerin

259
Q

How does Nitroglycerine work

A

it is a vasodilator, it acts as a smooth muscle relaxant

260
Q

***How is Nitroglycerine used

A

sublingually and should be in all emergency kits

261
Q

What do anticoagulants do and what is the most common one

A

reduce intravascular clotting

Ex: warfarin (Coumadin)

262
Q

***What is used to prevent blood clots after a recent heart attack or stroke, and in people with certain disorders of the heart or blood vessels

A

Plavix

263
Q

**What are medications that cause gingival overgrowth (4 points)

A

Dilantin (phenytoin)
Calcium channel blockers
Cyclosporine (prevents tissue/organ rejection from transplant)

264
Q

***What are medications that cause gingival bleeding (2 points)

A

Anticoagulants (coumadin, clopidogrel)

Aspirin

265
Q

Beta Adrenergic blockers end in…

A

olol

266
Q

opioid analgesics end in…

A

codone

morphone

267
Q

antifungal drugs end in…

A

azole

268
Q

antiviral medications end in…

A

cyclovir

269
Q

benzodiazepines end in…

A

azepam

azolam

270
Q

Lipid-lowering drugs end in…

A

statin

271
Q

ACE inhibitors end in…

A

pril

272
Q

Corticosteroids end in…

A

sone

lone

273
Q

Histamine 2 blockers end in…

A

tidine

274
Q

Proton pump inhibitors end in…

A

prazole

Boards (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions