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FRCPC > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Gut absorption is most affected by which property of a drug?

A

Absorption is proportional to lipid solubility of the drug

Other factors that influence absorption:
Gastric pH
GI transit time
Mucosal permeability

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2
Q

List 3 ways drugs are eliminated from the body

A
  1. Elimination in urine**most drugs
  2. Metabolism (usually by liver)
  3. Uptake by liver and elimination in bile
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3
Q

What type of elimination kinetics do most drugs exhibit?

A

First order

Zero order if enzymes are fully saturated (rate of elimination does not change with concentration of drug)

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4
Q

How do you calculate clearance of a drug?

A

Clearance refers to the ability of the kidney and liver to remove a drug

Clearance=Volume of distrubtion x (0.69/half life)

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5
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

Proportion of administered drug reaching the systemic circulation
e.g. IV drugs=1000% bioavailiabiity
Affected by first pass metabolism and gut absorption

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6
Q

List 3 reasons for drug metabolism

A
  1. To make the drug more hydrophilic to help with excretion in kidney (lipophollic drugs are reabsorbed in renal tubules and would have VERY prolonged action without metabolism)
  2. Render drug less active
  3. To render drug active (prodrug)
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7
Q

Explain why cytochrome P450 dependent oxidation results in drug interactions

A

Liver is the main organ of drug metabolism

Cytochrome P450 oxidizes a bunch of lipophilic drugs (helping to render them more hydrophilic and easily excreted by kidney)

Some drugs INDUCE cytochrome P450:
Increases metabolism of cytochrome P450 dependent drugs

Some drugs INHIBIT cytochrome P450:
Reduces metabolism of cytochrome P450 dependent drugs

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8
Q

List 5 drugs that are substrates for cytochrome P450

A 
Phenobarbital
Cisapride
Cyclosporine
Tacrolimus
Macrolides (except azithromycin)
Benzodiazepines (diazepam, midazolam)
Protease inhibitors
Calcium channel blockers (eg, amlodipine)
Atorvastatin, simvastatin, lovastatin
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9
Q

What are phase I and phase II reactions?

A

Describe the steps in drug metabolism in the liver

Phase I
-Most common is oxidation, others are reduction or hydrolysis

Phase II

  • Conjugation of drug or Phase I metabolite
  • Usually results in less active metabolite that is polar and readily excreted in kidneys
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10
Q

Which drugs induce cytochrome P450?

A
  • Rifampin
  • Phenytoin
  • Phenobarbital
  • Carbamazepine
  • Nevirapine, efavirenz
  • St. John’s Wort
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11
Q

Which drugs inhibit cytochrome P450?

A
  • Erythromycin, clarithromycin (3A4)
  • Ketoconazole, itraconazole (3A4)
  • Valproic acid
  • HIV protease inhibitors (eg, ritonavir)
  • Fluoxetine, paroxetine, codeine (2D6)
  • Nefazodone (3A4)
  • Grapefruit juice (intestinal CYP 3A4 only)
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12
Q

What is the difference in volume of distribution between infants <6 months and older kids?

A

Infants <6 months have greater volume of distribution (because 75% total body water!)

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13
Q

How is the activity of many cytochrome P450 enzymes and glucuronsyltransferases different in the first 2 months of life?

A

Activity of many cytochrome P450 enzymes and glucuronsyltransferase is significantly decreased in the first 2 months of life

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14
Q

List 5 differences between neonates and older kids in pharmacokinetics

A
  1. Decreased activity of cytochrome p450
  2. Greater volume of distribution (more water!)
  3. Gastric emptying time longer
  4. Greater mucosal permeability
  5. Decreased renal clearance function
  6. Lower protein-binding of drugs

As a result, neonates have LOWER BLOOD CONCENTRATIONS of drugs

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15
Q

List 3 adverse effects of carbamezipine

A 
SJS
Agranulocytosis
Liver toxicity
Tics
Hyponatremia
Weight gain
Dizziness
Nausea
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16
Q

List 2 adverse effects of gabapentin

A

Acute onset of aggression

Hyperactivity

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17
Q

List 3 adverse effects of lamotrigine

A

SJS
Liver toxicity
CNS effects-headache, ataxia, dizziness, tremor

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18
Q

List 3 adverse effects of levetricetam

A 
Behavioural symptoms
Less CNS effects than other AEDs:
Somnolence
Dizziness
Asthenia
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19
Q

List 3 adverse effects of phenobarbitol

A 
SJS
Liver toxicity
Insomnia
Neurotoxicity
Hyperactivity
Fluctuation in mood
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20
Q

List 3 adverse effects of phenytoin

A

Concentration dependent: ataxia, nystagmus, dizziness, headache, sedation, visual blurring, diplopia, cognitive impairment

Idiosyncratic:blood dyscrasias, rash(SJS and TEN rare)

Chronic: gingival hyperplasia, folate deficiency, osteomalacia, skin thickening, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features

Rare: DRESS, SLE-like syndrome

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21
Q

List 3 adverse effects of valproic acid in the following categories:
Dose dependent
Idiosyncratic
Chronic

A 
Dose dependent: 
GI upset
Sedation
Unsteadiness
Tremor
Thrombocytopenia

Idiosyncratic:
Acute hepatic failure
Acute pancreatitis
Alopecia

Chronic:
Weight gain
Hyperammonemia
Menstrual irregularities
Polycystic-ovary-like syndrome
Decreased serum levocarnitine
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22
Q

List 3 adverse effects of topiramate

A 
Precipitation of glaucoma
Renal stones
Weight loss
Cognitive dysfunction
Hypohydrosis
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23
Q

Most important adverse effect of vigabatrin

A

Retinopathy***
Irrerversible visual filed deficits
Hyperactivity

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24
Q

What medications cause acute dystonic reactions?

A

Antipsychotics, anti-emetics, and antidepressants

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25
Q

What medications cause acute dystonic reactions?

A

Anti-dopaminergics:

Antipsychotics, anti-emetics, and antidepressants

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26
Q

List 3 clinical features of acute dystonic reaction

A
  • Oculogyric crisis
  • Torticollis
  • Widely open mouth, tongue protrusion, trismus
  • Laryngospasm!!
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27
Q

Treatment of acute dystonic reaction

A

IV diphenhydramine or benztropine

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28
Q

List 3 adverse effects of inhaled corticosteroids

A
  1. Growth deceleration, resulting in 1.2 cm reduction in adult height
  2. Oral thrush
  3. Dysphonia
  4. Rare-adrenal insufficiency, increased IOP
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29
Q

List 10 side effects of systemic steroids

A
  1. Striae
  2. Acne
  3. Alopecia
  4. Hirsutism
  5. Cushingoid appearance
  6. Elevated IOP
  7. Increased risk of cataracts
  8. HTN
  9. Increased risk of atherosclerosis
  10. PUD
  11. Gastritis
  12. Steatohepatitis
  13. Osteoporosis
  14. AVN
  15. Insomnia
  16. Behavioural change (euphoria, depression, mania)
  17. Increased risk of DM2
  18. Adrenal suppression
  19. Increased risk of infections
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30
Q

List 5 adverse affects of anabolic steroids

A 
-Suppression of endogenous testicular function
➢	Decreased spermatogenesis and fertility – returns to normal 4mo after stopping
➢	Testicular size may decrease if using for many years
-Gynecomastia 
-Erythrocytosis
-Hepatotoxicity
-Psychological disorders
-Decrease in HDL 
-Coagulation activation
-Premature epiphyseal fusion
-Infections
-Virilization in women
-Risky and violent behavior
-?Liver cancer
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31
Q

What is redman syndrome and what drug causes it?

A

RMS is an idiopathic rate-dependent infusion reaction, not a true allergic reaction

Typically caused by IV vancomycin

Characteristics:
o Flushing/erythema
o Pruritus
o Upper body, neck, and face more than the lower body
o Pains and muscle spasms in the back and chest
o +/- Dyspnea, hypotension

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32
Q

Treatment of redman syndrome

A
  • For mild to moderate reactions (HD stable) → stop infusion → treat with diphenhydramine and ranitidine →restart at ½ original rate
  • For severe reactions (e.g. muscle spasm, chest pain, hypotension) → same as previous but may need IV fluids, and run vanco even slower over 4 hours
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33
Q

Name 2 things you can do to prevent redman syndrome

A

a) Pretreat with diphenhydramine and ranitidine

b) Slow down the infusion rate to half of the original rate

34
Q

What complication is associated with erythromycin use in infants?

A

Pyloric stenosis

35
Q

Which SSRI has most evidence for the treatment of depression in children?

A

Fluoxetine

36
Q

What is the minimum trial period for an SSRI?

A

6 months

37
Q

List 5 side effects of SSRIs

A 
Common:
Sexual dysfunction*** most common
Drowsiness***most common
GI symptoms: vomiting, diarrhea
Headaches

Serious:
Serotonin syndrome
SIADH
Coagulopathy

Others:
Insomnia
Restlessness
Appetite suppression
Agitation 
Suicidality-debatable
38
Q

Which SSRI is associated with QTc prolongation?

A

Citalopram

39
Q

List clinical features suggestive of serotonin syndrome

A 
Mental status changes
Myoclonus
Ataxia
Hyperreflexia
Tremors
Diaphoresis
Fever
Autonomic dysregulation
40
Q

How do you initiate, monitor and titrate an SSRI? (past SAQ)

A

Start at a low dose, monitor weekly x 4 weeks, then q 2 weeks for 4 weeks, slowly tirate dose up until reach minimally effective dose.

Monitor for symptoms: side effects, suicidality and assess for compliance

41
Q

List 5 adverse effects of atypical antipsychotics

A

Have both dopaminergic and serotongergic effects

  • Extrapyramidal symptoms (dystonia, rigidity, tremor, and akathisia)
  • Weight gain
  • Metabolic syndrome and diabetes
  • Hyperprolactinemia
  • Gynecomastia
  • Hematologic adverse effects (e.g., leukopenia or neutropenia)
  • Seizures
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
  • Cardiovascular effects: QTc prolongation and sudden death
42
Q

List 4 side effects of stimulants

A
  1. Appetite suppression***most common
  2. Sleep disturbances***most common
  3. Irritability
  4. Headaches
  5. Stomachaches
  6. Lethargy and fatigue
  7. Exacerbate tics (1-2 %)
  8. Sudden death in children with structural cardiac abnormalities
  9. Depression (late effect)
43
Q

Which ADHD medications should be used if there is concern of substance abuse or diversion?

A 
Extended release 
e.g. Vyvanse
Non-stimulant
e.g. Atomoxetine (strattera)
Non-pill
e.g. Methylphenidate patch
44
Q

Do stimulant meds decrease the risk of the risk of substance abuse?

A

YES

45
Q

Describe the principles of homeopathy

A
  1. Like cures like

2. Higher dilution=more potent

46
Q

What conditions has homeopathy been proven to be effective?

A

Diarrhea

Benefits have been showen in allergy/ADHD, but flawed studies

47
Q

List 5 drugs that can cause pseudotumour cerebri

A
  • OCP***
  • Minocycline***
  • Tetracycline***
  • Isotretinoin used for acne therapy especially when combined with tetracycline
  • Prolonged corticosteroid use
  • Nalidixic acid
  • Doxycycline
  • Sulfonamides
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Cytarabine
  • Cyclosporine
  • Phenytoin
48
Q

List 5 conditions associated with pseudotumour cerebri

A
  1. Metabolic disorders:
    - Obesity*
    - Hypoparathyroidism    *
    - Hypervitaminosis A***
    - Galactosemia
    - Hypophosphatasia
    - Refeeding syndrome
    - Severe vitamin A deficiency
    - Addison disease
    - Menarche
    - Pregnancy
  2. Infections:
    - Roseola
    - Sinusitis
    - Chronic otitis media
    - Mastoiditis
    - Guillain-Barré syndrome
  3. Hematologic disorders:
    - Polycythemia
    - Hemolytic anemia
    - Iron-deficiency anemia
49
Q

List absolute contraindications for OCP (there are 11!)

A
  1. Pregnancy
  2. Breastfeeding <6 weeks post partum (clotting risk)
  3. Serious cardiovascular disease:
    Current DVT, PE, stroke, complicated valvular heart disease
  4. APL-Abs (or lupus and unknown APLA status)
  5. Uncontrolled hypertension (SBP>160, DBP >100)
  6. Active liver disease
  7. Migraine with neurologic symptoms (aura)
  8. Current breast cancer
  9. Major surgery with prolonged immobilization
  10. Undiagnosed uterine bleeding (r/o pregnancy, cancer)
50
Q

List relative contraindications to OCP

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. Breastfeeding <6 months post partum
  3. Certain hyperlipidemias
  4. Past breast cancer, disease free>5 years
  5. Medications: ritonavir-boosted protease inhibitors, anticonvulsants, rifampin
  6. Diabetes with vascular disease or >20 years
  7. Certain liver disease (symptomatic gall bladder disease, acute hepatitis)
51
Q

List 4 drugs that affect the efficacy of OCPs

A

Rifampin
Phenobarbital
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin

52
Q

List 3 chronic adverse effects of marijuana

A

Cannabis dependence syndrome
Chronic bronchitis
Psychosis and psychotic d/o
Subtle coginitive impairment (in daily users >10 years)

53
Q

List 5 adverse effects of marijuana use

A

Short term:

  • Conjunctival injection
  • Tachycardia***
  • Bronchospasm***
  • Gynecomastia***
  • Decreased libido

Long term:

  • Cannabis dependence syndrome
  • Chronic bronchitis
  • Psychosis and psychotic d/o
  • Subtle coginitive impairment
54
Q

List 3 adverse effects of ketamine

A 
Vomiting
Unpleasant hallucinations
Apnea
Laryngospasm
Sialorrhea
55
Q

List 3 absolute contraindications to ketamine

A

Absolute:
<3 months of age
Severe adverse reaction in past
Patient with known or suspected psychosis

Relative:
<12 months of age
Active pulmonary infection
Hypertension
Angina or heart failure
Glaucoma
Increased ICP caused by obstructive brain lesions
Thyroid disease
Porphyria
56
Q

What sedation drug is the best amnesic?

A

Midazolam (although may only have antegrade amnesia)

57
Q

What is the best sedation for a CT scan?

A 
Oral midazolam
(shorter duration of action than chloral hydrate)
58
Q

Which 3 sedatives are associated with the most hemodynamically stability?

A

Fentanyl
Etomidate
Ketamine

59
Q

What is the maximum daily dose of tyenol?

A

Dose should not exceed 75mg/kg/day or 4g/day

60
Q 
How do you assess pain in children in the following age groups?
Newborns
3-8 years old
8-11 years
Teens
A

Newborns

  • FLACC/PIP scores
  • Based on facial expressions, crying, and body movement

3-8 years old
-Visual analog scale with faces

8-11 years
-Visual analog scale with numbers

Teens
-Verbally without visual assistance

61
Q

Equianalgesic doses of opoids for IV morphine 10 mg:

i) Morphine IV
ii) Morphine po
iii) Fentanyl IV
iv) Hydromorphone IV
v) Hydromorphone po

A

i) Morphine IV
- 10 mg
ii) Morphine po
- 30 mg
iii) Fentanyl IV
- 0.2 mg
iv) Hydromorphone IV
- 1.5 mg
v) Hydromorphone po
- 7.5 mg

62
Q

List 5 side effects of morphine

A 
Hypotension (secondary to histamine release***)
Constipation
Urinary retention
N/V
Pruritus
63
Q

Why is there so much variability in the response to codeine in children?

A
  • Codeine is ineffective in a large portion of children due to genetic polymorphisms in CYP2D6 gene that cause poor metabolism of the drug (33% non responders)
  • A smaller portion of children may have increased conversion of codeine to morphine (extensive and ultrarapid-metabolizer phenotypes),
64
Q

How do NSAIDs work?

A

Cyclooxegenase inhibitor (inhibits prostaglandin synthesis)

65
Q

List 5 side effects of indomethacin

A
  1. Platelet dysfunction and risk of bleeding (IVH)
  2. GI perforation/gastritis
  3. Decreased GFR/reduced renal bloodflow
  4. Hepatic dysfunction
  5. Reduced cerebral blood flow
66
Q

What is the most common side effect of cephalosporins?

A

Diarrhea

67
Q

What is the recommended dose to limit clavulinic acid when prescribing amox/clav?

A

10 mg/kg/day

68
Q

What ratio of amox/clav is recommended for treatment of AOM?

A

7:1 ratio (4:1 will likely induce diarrhea)

69
Q

What should you advise a parent regarding cough medicines?

A

Not effective
Potentially harmful-increased risk of ALTEs, ED visits, death
Pseudoephedrine-agitation, HTN, arrythmias
Should not be used in kids <6 years

70
Q

Why should parents avoid giving topical nasal decongestants for a prolonged period of time?

A

Results in rebound nasal congestion

71
Q

Why is diazepam rarely used in neonates?

A

Decreased hepatic clearance

Can cause respiratory depression

72
Q

List 6 clinical signs of Gravol toxicity

A 
Anticholinergic:
Anhidrosis
Fever
Dilated pupils
Delirium
Urinary Retention
Tachycardia
Decreased Bowel Sounds
Rare: Seizures, arrythmias
73
Q

List 4 mechanisms of action of insulin

A
  1. Inhibition of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
  2. Increased glucose transport into fat and muscle
  3. Increased glycolysis in fat and muscle
  4. Stimulation of glycogen synthesis
  5. Inhibition of lipolysis
  6. Decreased proteolysis in muscle
74
Q

List 4 principles of treatment with opioids in palliative care

A
  1. Utilize non-opioid analgesics as adjunct
  2. Start with short-acting opoids for moderate/severe pain, then switch to long acting with break through
  3. Avoid codeine
  4. Administer via the least distressing, most effective route
  5. Manage side effects-bowel regimen, treat pruritus
  6. Use adjuvants for opoid sparing-e.g. antidepressants, anticonvulsants
75
Q

How do you loop diuretics work?

A
  • Inhibits Na-K-2Cl carrier

- Reduces NaCl reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

76
Q

List 4 side effects of lasix

A

Hypokalemia, Hyponatremia, Hypochloremia
Metabolic Alkaosis
Volume Contraction – elevated Creatinine, Urea
Hypercalciura ->Urolithiasis ->Nephrocalcinosis
Biliary Stones
Pancreatitis
Ototoxicity

77
Q

What is DRESS?

A

Drug Rash with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms

  • Triad of symptoms: fever, rash, internal organ (e.g., liver, kidney, heart, lung, brain)
  • Delayed onset: 6 days to 12 weeks from initial exposure
78
Q

What drugs typically cause DRESS?

A 
Most commonly AEDs with aromatic ring
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital
Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine

Others:
Minocycline
Sulfonamides
Allopurinol

79
Q

What test needs to be done in patients on ethambutol?

A

Can cause optic neuritis and impaired colour vision

Eye exam

80
Q

What 3 drugs are at highest risk of causing C. diff?

A

Third generation cephalosporins
Clindamycin
Aminopenicillins (e.g. amox-clav)

81
Q

List 4 manifestations of cocaine use

A 
Increased alertness
Euphoria
Hallucinations
Irritability
Tachycardia
HTN

Others:

  • CNS: increased energy, insomnia, fear, paranoia, aggressive behaviour, psychosis, seizures, stroke
  • CVS: MI
  • Increased body temperature, sweating

FRCPC (27 decks)

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