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FRCPC > Adolescent Medicine > Flashcards

Adolescent Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 tasks of adolescence?

A

Achieving independence from parents

Adopting peer codes and lifestyles

Assigning increased importance to body image and acceptance of one’s body image

Establishing sexual, vocational, and moral identities

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2
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of gynecomastia in an adolescent male?

A
  1. Normal (50%, resolves within 2 years)
  2. Drugs (steroids, TCA, exogenous hormones, spironolactone, H2 histamine receptor blockers- cimetidine, antiretrovirals, chemotherapy, ETOH, marijuana)
  3. Endocrinopathies (hypogonadism, AIS, Klinefelter, CAH)
  4. Underlying malignancy (pituitary, thyroid, adrenal gland, testicular tumours)
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3
Q

How can you conclude that gynecomastia is just pubertal gynecomastia?

A

Signs of puberty
Tender
<2 cm
Lasts <2 years
Not using any medications associated with gynecomastia
Normal testicular exam
No evidence of renal, hepatic, thyroid, or endocrine disease

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4
Q

What is the age of consent for sex in Canada?

A

16 years

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5
Q

What are the close age exceptions for sex in Canada?

A

12 or 13 years can consent with someone within 2 years

14 - 15 years can consent to sex with someone within 5 years older

Must not be in position of trust or authority

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6
Q

What is the age of consent for exploitative sex (prostitution, pornography, position of trust/authority)?

A

18 years

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7
Q 
What are the contraception failure rates for:
Chance
Withdrawal
Condoms
Diaphragm
OCP
Depo-provera
IUD
A 
Chance 85%
Withdrawal 18%
Condoms 15%
Diaphragm 16%
OCP 8%
Depo-provera 3%
IUD 0.5% (0.9% for copper, 0.2% for hormonal)
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8
Q

What are absolute contraindications for OCPs?

A

Pregnancy
Breastfeeding <6 weeks post partum (clotting risk)
Serious cardiovascular disease:
Current DVT, PE, complicated valvular heart disease, past or present MI or cerebrovascular disease
APL-Abs (or lupus and unknown APLA status)
Uncontrolled hypertension (SBP>160, DBP >100)
Active liver disease or history of liver tumours
Cholestatic jaundice
Thrombophilic conditions
Migraine with neurologic symptoms (aura)
Current breast cancer
Major surgery with prolonged immobilization
Undiagnosed uterine bleeding (r/o pregnancy, cancer)

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9
Q

What are relative contraindications for OCPs?

A

Hypertension
Breastfeeding <6 months post partum
Certain hyperlipidemias
Past breast cancer, disease free>5 years
Medications: ritonavir-boosted protease inhibitors, anticonvulsants, rifampin
Diabetes with vascular disease or >20 years
Certain liver disease (symptomatic gall bladder disease, acute hepatitis)

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10
Q

What do you need to do before giving emergency contraception?

A

Nothing

Pregnancy test not required

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11
Q

When do you start screening for cervical cancer?

A

21 years of age

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12
Q

What is the most solid breast mass in an adolescent girl?

A

Fibroadenoma

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13
Q

What is the diagnosis?

http://www.dbmhresource.org/klinefelter.html

A

Klinefelters

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14
Q

What is a differential for breast masses in adolescent females?

A

Fibrocystic changes
Fibroadenoma
Phyllodes tumor (rare tumour, usually present with large painless breast mass)
Intraductal papilloma (benign tumour, can be associated with bloody nipple discharge)
Mammary duct ectasia (nipple discharge, blue mass under nipple)
Montgomery tubercles (obstruction of periareolar glands, subareolar mass, drainage of brownish fluid)
Breast infection
Breast trauma
Breast cancer

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15
Q

What history and physical exam features are consistent with fibrocystic changes?

A

Painful before menses
Improvement with menses
Generally upper outer quadrants of breast

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16
Q

What are history and physical exam features consistent with fibroadenoma?

A 
Asymptomatic
Rubbery
Well-circumscribed
Mobile
Non-tender
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17
Q

What history and physical exam features are consistent with breast cancer?

A 
Hard, irregular, fixed mass
Nipple/skin retraction
Skin edema
Nipple discharge
Axillary/supraclavicular LAD
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18
Q

What are the cognitive and moral stages of adolescence?

A

Early (10-13): concrete operations, unable to perceive long-term outcome, conventional morality
Middle (14-16): emergence of abstract thought, can perceive future implications, but may not apply to decision-making
Late (17-20): future-oriented

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19
Q

What are the stages of identity formation of adolescence?

A

Early (10-13): pre-occupied with changing body, self conscious of appearance
Middle (14-16): stereotypical adolescent, concern with attractiveness
Late (17-20): more stable body image

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20
Q

What are the stages of family relationships in adolescence?

A

Early (10-13): Need for privacy
Middle (14-16): Conflicts over control and independence
Late (17-20): Emotional and physical separation from family

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21
Q

What are the stages of peer relationships in adolescence?

A

Early (10-13): Same-sex peers
Middle (14-16): Pre-occupation with peer culture
Late (17-20): Peer groups recede in importance; intimacy and commitment take precedence

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22
Q

What are the stages of peer relationships in adolescence?

A

Early (10-13): Same-sex peers
Middle (14-16): Pre-occupation with peer culture
Late (17-20): Peer groups recede in importance; intimacy and commitment take precedence

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23
Q

What are the sexual stages of adolescence?

A

Early (10-13): interest in sexual anatomy, anxiety about genital changes, limited dating/intimacy
Middle (14-16): initiation of relationships and sexual activity, questions of sexual orientation
Late (17-20): consolidation of sexual identity, focus on intimacy and formation of stable relationships, planning for future and commitment

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24
Q

At what SMR stage do you typically see menses?

A

SMR 4

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25
Q

How many cm do you grow after menarche?

A

2-5 cm

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26
Q

When is peak height velocity in males vs females?

A

Mid to early puberty

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27
Q

At what SMR stage do you see peak height velocity in boys vs girls?

A

SMR 4 vs. SMR 2

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28
Q

What is the mechanism of action of OCPs?

A

Progesterone

  • Thickening of cervical mucus, blocks sperm penetration, thins endometrium
  • Slowed tubal mobility
  • Endometrial changes

Estrogen
-Inhibition of ovulation by inhibiting LH surge

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29
Q

What are the estrogen-related side effects of OCP?

A 
Breakthrough bleeding
Breast tenderness
Bloating
Headaches
Nausea
Hypertension
Thromboembolism
Drug interactions (P450)
Slight increased risk of cervical dysplasia (>5 yrs of use)
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30
Q

What are the benefits of OCP?

A

Decrease dysmenorrhea
Decrease menorrhagia
Reduce anemia
Improvement in acne, hirsutism (Ortho Tri Cyclen, Yaz)
Reduce risk of ovarian, endometrial cancer
May help w/ ovarian cysts
Decrease benign breast disease

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31
Q

How often is Depot IM given?

A

150 mg IM in deltoid or gluteus maximus q12 weeks

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32
Q

What are the benefits of Depot IM?

A

Convenient, low maintenance

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33
Q

What are the side effects of Depot IM?

A

Irregular bleeding, amenorrhea

Weight gain***

Mood changes

Decreased bone density (Caution if steroids, eating disorders, chronic renal failure)
-Consider BMD

Delays return to fertility- average 10 months!!

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34
Q

How should you counsel women on Depot about risk of osteopenia?

A

Adequate calcium intake
Exercise
After 2 years-re-counsel about BMD risks and offer alternatives

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35
Q

In what group of people is the transdermal contraceptive patch less effective?

A

Obese (Wt >90kg)

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36
Q

How long can you keep a copper IUD in?

A

5 or 10 years

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37
Q

How does copper IUD work?

A

Copper ions interfere w/ sperm motility, transport, capacitation
Cause sperm head-tail disconnection

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38
Q

How long can you keep a mirena (levonorgestrel) IUD in?

A

5 years

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39
Q

How does mirena IUD work?

A

Renders cervical mucus impenetrable to sperm
Produces atrophic endometrium
Slows tubal motility
Ovulation NOT consistently suppressed

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40
Q

What are contraindications to IUD?

A

Pregnancy/suspected pregnancy
PID (current or w/in last 3 mo)
Acute/purulent cervicitis
Pelvic TB
Puerperal/ post abortion sepsis
Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding (suspicious for serious condition)
Distorted uterine cavity
Malignancy of genital tract (cervical, endometrial, gestational trophoblastic disease)
Wilson disease (for copper IUD)
Uterine cavity < 6cm or >9 cm on sounding

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41
Q

What are complications of Mirena IUD?

A

Infection: increased only in 1st 20 days after insertion
Bleeding irregularities: typically 3-6 mo, subsequent amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea in 15-30% of users
IUS expulsion (first 1-2 yrs ~4%)
Perforation (1/1000)
Pain at insertion
Ovarian cysts
Progestin effects
CANNOT be used as emergency contraception

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42
Q

What are complications of copper IUD?

A 
Same infection risk as Mirena
Increased menstrual bleeding by up to 65%, cramping
IUD expulsion (first year rates 2-8%)
Perforation or embedment
Pain at insertion
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43
Q

What are indications for emergency contraception?

A 
Unprotected intercourse
–Sexual Assault
–Coitus Interruptus
Ejaculation onto genitals
Condom breakage or slippage
Improper use of prescribed contraceptive
–Forgotten pills, late for Depo, etc.
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44
Q

What are two options for emergency contraception

A

Yuzpe method: 2 large doses of COCs (100ug estrogen and 100mg progestin-Ovral) 12 hours apart

Plan B (1.5 mg Levonorgestrel)

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45
Q

What is the advantage of Plan B over Yuzpe?

A

More effective

Less side effects (N+V)

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46
Q

What percentage of women who have taken Plan B should have menstrual bleeding within 3 weeks?

A

98%

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47
Q

Does plan B interrupt an existing pregnancy?

A

NO

Will not interrupt a pregnancy that has already implanted in the uterine lining

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48
Q

During what time period is Plan B effective?

A

Best within 72hr, but may use for up to 120 hrs

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49
Q

Within what time period is copper IUD effective for emergency contraception?

A

5-7 days

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50
Q

How does Plan B work?

A

Suppresses or delays the LH peak, delaying or inhibiting ovulation

Disrupts follicular development

Interferes w/ maturation of the corpus luteum

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51
Q

What are contraindications to Plan B?***

A

Current pregnancy

Hypersensitivity to component of product

Undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding (r/o pregnancy before giving Plan B)

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52
Q

What type of contraceptive should you use in thromboembolic disease?

A

Progestin only

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53
Q

What type of contraceptive should you avoid in epilepsy?

A

Avoid triphasic and ultra low pills in combination with anticonvulsants

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54
Q

What type of contraceptive should you consider in GI disease with malabsorption?

A

Non-oral methods

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55
Q

Can you use hormonal contraceptive in diabetes?

A

Yes if no vascular disease

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56
Q

What type of contraceptive should you use in SLE?

A

Combined OCP if no anti-cardiolipid Ab and thrombosis

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57
Q

What type of contraceptive should you use in patients on hemodialysis?

A

Progestin only

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58
Q

What type of contraceptive should you use in sickle cell?

A

DMPA-reduces acute sickle cell crisis by 70%

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59
Q

What drugs interact with OCPs?

A 
Rifampicin
Rifabutin
Phenytoin 
Carbamazepine
Topiramate
Barbiturates
Fosamprenavir
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60
Q

What are the the DSM V criteria for Bulimia Nervosa?

A
  1. Recurrent episodes of binge eating
  2. Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviours in order to prevent weight gain
  3. Binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviours both occur, on average, once a week for 3 months
  4. Self-evaluation unduly influenced by body weight and shape
  5. Disturbance not exclusively during episode of AN
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61
Q

Name 5 clinical signs suggestive of BN?

A
  1. Russell’s sign (calluses on dorsum of hand)
  2. Dental enamel erosion
  3. Parotid gland enlargement
  4. Edema
  5. Fluctuating weight (healthy/overweight)
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62
Q

What are the DSM V criteria for Binge Eating Disorder?

A
  1. Recurrent episodes of binge eating (more and out of control – same as with BN)
  2. Binge-eating episodes associated with at least 3 of:
    i) Eating more rapidly than normal
    ii) Eating until feeling uncomfortably full
    iii) Eating large amounts of food when not feeling physically hungry
    iv) Eating alone out of embarrassment at volume eating
  3. Feeling disgusted with oneself, guilty, or depressed after eating
  4. Marked distress regarding binge eating present
  5. Binge eating occurs on average at least 1x/wk x 3 months
  6. No compensatory behaviours, no BN or AN
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63
Q

What are the DSM V criteria for Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID)?

A
  1. Eating/feeding disturbance manifested by persistent failure to meet appropriate nutritional and/or energy needs associated with one or more of following:
  2. Significant weight loss or in children, failure to gain
  3. Significant nutritional deficiency
  4. Dependence on enteral feeding/oral nutritional supplements
  5. Marked interference with psychosocial functioning
  6. Disturbance not better explained by lack of available food or an associated culturally sanctioned practice
  7. Eating disturbance does not occur exclusively during the course of AN or BN, and no evidence of disturbance in way body weight or shape experienced
  8. Not attributable to concurrent medical condition and not better explained by another mental disorder. When occurring in context of another condition, severity of eating disturbance exceeds that routinely associated with the condition
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64
Q

What are the medical complications of eating disorder?

A

Temperature
-Hypothermia (T<36.0), esp while sleeping

Cardiovascular

Refeeding Syndrome

Fluids/Electrolytes

Osteopenia

Impaired linear Growth

Endocrine

GI

Neurologic

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65
Q

What are the cardiac complications of eating disorders?

A 
•Electrocardiographic
–Sinus bradycardia
–Prolonged QTc
•Orthostatic changes
•Hypotension
•Poor myocardial contractility
•Mitral valve prolapse
•Reduced LV thickness and mass
•Silent pericardial effusion
•Congestive failure (aggressive fluid rehydration )
•Cardiomyopathy - ipecac abuse
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66
Q

Admission criteria for anorexia nervosa

A 
•Weight ≤75%-80% expected
•Dehydration
•Electrolyte disturbance
•Cardiac dysrhythmia
•Physiologic instability
–HR<50, BP<80/50, T<36, extreme orthostatic changes (HR change >35 bpm, BP change > 20 mmHg)
•Acute food refusal
•Uncontrollable binging and purging
•Suicidal ideation
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67
Q

How quickly does QTc correct with refeeding?

A

3 days

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68
Q

What are risk factors for refeeding syndrome

A

–Low weight (less than 70% of IBW)
–Rapid weight loss
–Low levels of phosphate, potassium or magnesium prior to refeeding
–Limited nutritional intake for 5-10 days preceding refeeding

69
Q

What are the clinical features of refeeding syndrome?

A
  • Low PO4, K, Mg
  • Cardiovascular collapse (1st week)
  • Delirium (2nd week)
70
Q

Why do you get hypophosphatemia in refeeding syndrome?

A

Total body depletion of PO4

Shift into intracellular space with refeeding

71
Q

How do you treat refeeding syndrome?

A

Slow feeding (start <1500 kcal/day, or at intake patient reports and increase 250 kcal/day)
Monitor electrolytes BID/OD
Oral phosphate supplementation (IV if critically low or symptomatic)

72
Q

Are patients with AN at increased risk of morbidity/mortality from bacterial infections in AN?

A

YES
–Unable to mount and sustain immunologic response
–No/little febrile response

73
Q

Name three GI complications of Anorexia nervosa

A

Delayed gastric emptying

Slowed GI motility
–Causes bloating, early satiety, and constipation with refeeding
–Improves with refeeding (takes several weeks)

Constipation

SMA syndrome
–life-threatening
–Compression of 3rd portion of duodenum by abdominal aorta & overlying superior mesenteric artery
–Due to lack of retroperitoneal fat cushions duodenum

74
Q

What are the GI complications of bingeing and purging?

A 
–Gastric dilation and rupture
–Esophageal rupture
–Rectal prolapse
–Mallory-Weiss tear
–GERD
75
Q

Why do patients with AN get osteoporosis?

A

–Poor nutrition (protein, Vit. D, calcium)
–Amenorrhea (low estrogen)
–High cortisol
–Low IGF-1

76
Q

Why do patients with AN have impaired linear growth?

A

GH resistance

77
Q

What are risk factors for osteopenia in EDs?

A
  • Low weight or absence of weight gain for prolonged period of time
  • Early onset of amenorrhea
  • Long duration of amenorrhea
  • Low protein intake
  • Low calcium intake
  • Smoking
78
Q

How do you treat osteopenia in AN?

A 
Primary treatment is weight restoration to a level where menses resumes
•Additional treatments:
–Calcium 1300 mg/day
–Vitamin D 600 IU/day (1000 IU?)
–Cautious weight-bearing exercise?
–Do not use OCP!
79
Q

What are the endocrine complications of AN?

A
  • Amenorrhea (due to hypothalamic suppresion)
  • Decreased peripheral conversion of t4 to t3 (sick euthyroid)
  • High cortisol
80
Q

What are the hematologic complications of AN?

A
  • Anemia
  • Leukopenia
  • Thrombocytopenia
81
Q

What is the initial medical management of ED?

A

•ABCs
•Cardiac monitor if unstable
•Warming blanket prn
•Electrolyte replacement and regular monitoring if necessary
•Cautious use of iv fluids
•Feeding:
–Start slow if at risk for refeeding syndrome
–Liquid nutrition supplement (e.g. Resource, Ensure, etc.) may be easiest in acute setting

82
Q

What type of therapy is recommended for EDs?

A

Family based therapy

83
Q

List 6 things you should educate parents with EDs about (from CPS)

A
  1. Not their fault
  2. AN a serious condition that probably would not improve without treatment
  3. Be angry at ED but not at child
  4. Parent must take charge of child’s eating, exercise, and weight gain
  5. Supervise 3 meals, 2-3 snacks daily
  6. Weight restoration first, thoughts/attitudes take longer
84
Q

What does gram stain for gonorrhea show?

A

Intracellular gram negative diplococci

85
Q

What is the most specific test for gonorrhea?

A

Culture
–Most specific
–Allows for susceptibility testing
–Use for legal cases (abuse/assault)

86
Q

What is the most sensitive test for gonorrhea?

A

NAAT

87
Q

What are the complications of gonorrhea in females?

A 
PID
Infertility
Ectopic pregnancy
Chronic pelvic pain
Perihepatitis (Fitzhugh Curtis Syndrome)
Reactive arthritis (more common with chlamydia)
Disseminated GC infection (DGI)
88
Q

What are the complications of gonorrhea in males?

A

Epididymo-orchitis
Reactive arthritis
Infertility (rare)
DGI

89
Q

How do you treat gonorrhea?

A

Cefixime (Suprax) 800 mg po single dose OR Ceftriaxone 250mg IM single dose
+
Azithromycin 1gm PO single dose OR
Doxycycline 100mg PO bid x 7 days

Pen allergy: Spectinomycin 2 g IM single dose or Azithromycin 2g po single dose

90
Q

What percentage of chlamydial infections are asymptomatic?

A

Most are asymptomatic!

40% - 70% of infections are asymptomatic (50% of males, 70% of females)

91
Q

What are the complications of chlamydial infection?

A

Sequelae similar to GC (except DGI!)

92
Q

How do you diagnose chlymadial infection?

A
  • NAATs for diagnosis

* Use culture for medico-legal issues

93
Q

What is the treatment for chlamydia?

A

Azithromycin 1 gm single dose
or
Doxycycline 100 mg bid x 7d

94
Q

What follow up tests should you do for GC/chlamydia?

A
  • Test of cure for high risk groups (pre-pubertal, pregnant) or if you think treatment ineffective (non compliance, alternative treatment)
  • Repeat testing in 6 months as reinfection rate high
95
Q

How do you test for cure in GC/chlamydia?

A

Can repeat culture in 4-5 days

NOTE: NAATs stay positive for 3-4 weeks

96
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of primary HSV infection?

A

Blisters or sores in genital area
Local swelling and pain
Inguinal lymphadenopathy, Systemic symptoms (1st infection)

97
Q

How do you diagnose HSV infection?

A

Swab or scraping of lesion for viral culture, NAAT or EM

Serology for abs

98
Q

How is primary HSV defined serologically?

A

1st episode of genital herpes in patient without antibodies for HSV 1 or 2

99
Q

How is non primary 1st episode of HSV defined serolgoically?

A

First outbreak HSV2 in patient with Ab for HSV1)

100
Q

How do you treat primary genital HSV?

A 
–Acyclovir 400 mg tid x 7-10 days
OR
Famciclovir 250 mg tid x 5 days
OR
Valacyclovir 1000 mg bid for 7-10 days
–May require oral and/or topical analgesics
–Start within 5 days for any benefit
-Best to start within 12 hours of first lesion
101
Q

How do you treat recurrent genital HSV?

A 
Valacyclovir 500mg BID or 1000mg OD for 3 days
OR 
Famciclovir 125mg BID 5 days
OR
Acyclovir 200mg 5X/day for 5 days
102
Q

What types of HPV are associated with cervical cancer?

A

HPV 16, 18

103
Q

Over what time period do the majority of HPV infections clear?

A

18 months

104
Q

How do you treat HPV warts?

A

Imiquimod (Aldara)
Cryotherapy
Podophyllin/podofilix Trichloroacetic acid
Laser

105
Q

What serotypes are covered by the HPV vaccine?

A

Gardasil-HPV types 6,11,16,18

Newer vaccine covers 9 types-16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58, 6, 11

106
Q

Who is eligible for the HPV vaccine?

A

Females 9-45 years and males 9-26, at 0, 2, and 6 months

Ideally given between ages 9-13, prior to onset of sexual activity

107
Q

What are the guidelines for cervical cancer screening?

A

Sexually active women starting at 21 years

Every 3 years

108
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of genital lesions?

A 
Herpes
HPV
Molluscum
Primary syphilis (chancre)
Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)
‘Pearly papules’
109
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for PID?

A 
•Sexually active females with lower abdominal pain and no other cause for illness PLUS any one of:
–Adnexal tenderness
–Cervical motion tenderness
–Uterine tenderness
(DON’T NEED ALL THREE!)

•Additional Criteria Which Increase Specificity of diagnosis:
–Fever (>38.3 po)
–Many WBCs on saline microscopy of vaginal fluid
–Elevated ESR
–Elevated CRP
–Lab documentation of cervical infection with GC or CT

110
Q

List 5 complications of PID

A
  1. Chronic pelvic pain
  2. Ectopic pregnancy
  3. Tubal factor infertility
  4. Perihepatitis (may present with RUQ as 1st sx)
  5. Tubo-ovarian abscess
111
Q

What are indications for inpatient management of PID?

A 
–Surgical emergency cannot be excluded (e.g. appy)
–Patient pregnant
–No response to po
–Cannot tolerate po
–Severe illness with n/v
–Tubo-ovarian abscess
112
Q

What is the inpatient treatment of PID?

A

Cefoxitin 2gm IV q6hr + Doxycycline 100mg PO or IV q12 hrs (PO doxy preferred)
–Alternate = Clinda + Gent

Can D/C 24 hours after resolution of symptoms

Need to complete Doxycycline x 14 days total
+/- metronidazole 500 mg PO BID x 14 days

113
Q

What is the outpatient treatment of PID?

A

Ceftriaxone 250mg IM x 1 + Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x 14 d

+/- metronidazole 500 mg PO BID x 14 days

114
Q

What is the infectious ddx of vaginitis?

A

BV
Candidiasis
Trichomoniasis

115
Q

What are risk factors for BV?

A

Sexually active
New sexual partner
IUD use

116
Q

What are risk factors for candidiasis?

A 
Sexually active
Recent antibiotic use
Pregnancy
Steroids
Poorly controlled diabetes
Immunocompromised
117
Q

What are risk factors for trichomonas?

A

Multiple partners

118
Q

What are the symptoms/signs of BV?

A

Vaginal discharge
Fishy odor
50% asymptomatic
White, grey, thing copious d/c

119
Q

What are the symptoms/signs of candidiasis?

A 
Vaginal discharge
Itch
External dysuria
Superficial dyspareunia
20% asymptomatic 
White, clumpy d/c
Erythema/edema of vagina/vulva
120
Q

What are the symptoms/signs of trichomonas?

A 
Vaginal discharge 
Itch
Dysuria
10-50% asymptomatic
Off white discharge
Erythema vulva, cervix
Strawberry cervix
121
Q

What is the vaginal pH in BV, candidiasis, trich?

A

BV-pH >4.5
Candidiasis-pH<4.5
Trich-pH<4.5

122
Q

What is the wet mount/gram stain for BV, candidiasis, trich?

A

BV-clue cells, gram -ve coccobacilli/curved bacilli

Candidiasis-budding yeast, pseudohyphae

Trich-motile flagellated protozoa

123
Q

Which cause of vaginitis has a positive whiff test?

A

BV

124
Q

How do you treat BV?

A

–Metronidazole 500 mg po BID x 7 d

–Metronidazole gel 0.75% 5 g intravaginally OD x 5 d

125
Q

How do you treat candidiasis?

A

–Intravaginal OTC azole cream (clotrimazole)

–Fluconazole 150 mg OD x 1 dose (not in pregnancy)

126
Q

How do you treat trichomonas?

A

–Metronidazole 2 g po x 1 dose

127
Q

What are the DSM V criteria for substance use disorder?

A

Need 2 of:

  1. Take substance in larger amounts and over longer time than initially intended
  2. Express persistent desire to cut down/regulate use but may have multiple unsuccessful attempts
  3. Spend great deal of time obtaining, using or recovering from substance
  4. Craving, particularly in environment where drug previously used/obtained
  5. Recurrent use results in failure to fulfill major role obligations
  6. Continued use despite persistent or recurrent social/interpersonal problems caused/exacerbated by use
  7. Give up activities because of use
  8. Recurrent use in situations in which it is physically hazardous
  9. Continued use despite knowledge of having a persistent/recurrent problem caused/exacerbated by the substance
  10. Tolerance
  11. Withdrawal
128
Q

What are risk factors for substance use amonst youth

A 
Street involved
Mental health disorder
Gay, lesbian, bisexual, transgendered
Family history of substance abuse
Family dysfunction
129
Q

What are signs and symptoms suggesting adolescent may have substance abuse problem

A

Home or social life

  • Stealing momeny and stealing and selling valuable items
  • Withdrawing from usual activities
  • Not telling family member where he or she is going
  • Having problems with law

School

  • Drop in grades, poor academic performance
  • Missing/skipping school
  • Sleeping in class
  • Not doing homework
  • Dropping out of sports or other extracurricular activities
  • Memory or concentration problems

Emotional

  • Unexplainable mood swings and behaviour
  • Feeling unhappy or depressed
  • Feeling suspicious or anxious

Physical

  • Bloodshort eyes
  • Prolonged cough, nasal stuffiness
  • Persistent tiredness
  • Losing/gaining weight
  • Change in appetite
130
Q

What is the CRAFFT screen for substance abuse?

A

C: Have you ever ridden in a CAR driven by someone impaired?

R: Do you use drugs to RELAX or fit in?

A: Do you use drugs ALONE?

F: Do you ever FORGET things you did while using drugs?

F: Do your family or FRIENDS tell you to cut down?

T: Have you gotten in TROUBLE while using drugs?

2+ positive answers indicate a need for further assessment

131
Q

What are acute complications of ecstasy?

A

Hyponatremia (polydipsia)
Seizures
Hyperthermia
Rhabdomyolysis

132
Q

What are the acute complications of crystal meth?

A

Chest pain
Hyperthermia
HTN
Tachyarrythmias

133
Q

What are the acute complications of cocaine?

A 
Chest pain
HTN
Tachyarrythmias
Intracranial bleed
Stroke
134
Q

What are the acute complications of GHB?

A

Resp depression
Coma
Seizures

135
Q

What are signs of inhalant abuse?

A

Odour on breath
Stain, paint, glitter on skin or clothing
Perioral dryness or pyoderma (Huffer’s rash)
Facial, oral/nasal, esophagopharyngeal freezing or burning
Edema of lips, oropharynx, trachea
Neurophysiologic impairment – confusion, moodiness, irritability
Pulmonary toxicity – wheezing, emphysema, dyspnea
Poor hygiene, weight loss, fatigue, nosebleeds, conjunctivitis, muscle weakness, nausea, apathy, poor appetite, GI symptoms, changes in school attendance or psychological/psychiatric changes

136
Q

What are the long term effects of inhalant use?

A

Drastic and irreversible neurological effects
–Brainstem dysfunction
–Motor, cognitive and sensory deficits
–Signs may include irritability, tremor, ataxia, nystagmus, slurred speech, decreased visual acuity and deafness
•Cardiomyopathy
•Distal RTA
•Hepatitis
•Dyspnea, emphysema
•Bone marrow toxicity  leukemia, aplastic anemia
•Teratogenic

137
Q

Name 4 causes of death in inhalant abuse

A

Respiratory arrest from CNS depression

Sudden sniffing death syndrome – likely due to primary cardiac arrhythmia
•inhalants disrupt myocardial electrical propagation (enhanced by hypoxia)
•sensitize heart to adrenaline (death after startle or with vivid hallucinations)

Dangerous behaviour from disinhibition and feeling of invincibility

Aspiration, suffocation

138
Q

What are strategies to help adolescent transition to adult care?

A
  • See teens without parents
  • Adolescent involvement in management of the condition
  • Foster personal autonomy and independence
  • Educational, vocational and future financial planning
  • Provide books, newsletters and magazines that deal with youth issues and youth living with health conditions
  • Peer-support
  • Family or teen education days
  • A formal acknowledgement of ‘graduation’
  • Give a transition letter
139
Q

What is the greatest risk factor for re-attempting suicide?

A

Homosexuality

140
Q

Adverse effects of anabolic steroid use

A 
Cardiovascular:
Coronary heart disease
Cardiomyopathy
Erythrocytosis
Hemostasis/coagulation abnormalities
Dyslipidemia
Hypertension

Infection
HIV, hepatitis B and C, MRSA
Unsafe needle practices

Musculoskeletal
Tendon rupture

Neuropsychiatric
Major mood disorders
Aggression, violence
Dependence

Men (reproductive)
Hypogonadism (following withdrawal)
Gynecomastia
Acne
Premature epiphyseal closure (when taken before completion of puberty)
Prostate (potential increased risk for cancer)

Women (reproductive)
Acne
Virilization (hirsutism, deepening of voice, clitoromegaly)
Irregular menses

Hepatic (only with oral 17-alpha-alkylated androgens)
Cholestasis
Peliosis hepatis
Hepatic neoplasms

141
Q

What is the best contraceptive option for a patient with developmental delay?

A

84 day OCP

Not IUD because involves procedure with sedation, irregular menses 3-6 months

142
Q

What is the most dangerous complication of anorexia?

A

Hypokalemia

143
Q

When can a patient become sexual active again after being treated for chlamydia?

A

7 days after patient and their partner treated

144
Q

What dangerous ingredient is present in energy drinks?

A

Guarana (plant-based concentrated caffeine)

145
Q

Why are progestin only pills not frequently used for contraception in adolescents?

A

Requires strict adherance for efficacy (ovulation is suppressed in only 50% of cycles)
Irregular spotting patterns

146
Q

What is the first line recommendation for contraceptives for teens?

A

Mirena IUD

147
Q

Spot diagnosis: https://pedclerk.bsd.uchicago.edu/sites/pedclerk.uchicago.edu/files/uploads/001-002Adenoma_sebaceum_0.jpg

A

Adenoma sebaceum (tuberous sclerosis)

148
Q

What is the peak time for parental conflict in adolescents?

A

Mid adolescence

149
Q

What are the clinical features of cannabanoid hyperemesis syndrome?

A

Cyclic vomiting

Relief with hot shower

150
Q

When do you repeat dosing in a patient taking Plan B who is vomiting?

A

If vomit within 60 minutes of dose

151
Q

What are the DSM V for anorexia nervosa?

A
  1. Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to significantly low body weight in context of age, sex, development
  2. Intense fear of gaining weight or persistent behaviour that interferes with weight gain
  3. Disturbance in way in which one’s body weight/shape is experienced, or undue influence of body weight/shape on self-evaluation, or denial of seriousness of current low weight
152
Q

What bloodwork abnormality do you see in bulimia with parotid gland enlargement?

A

Elevated amylase

153
Q

When does the phosphate level nadir in refeeding syndrome?

A

Day 4

154
Q

When will most patients with anorexia resume menses?

A

2kg above when they lost their menses

Within 6 months of achieving 90% IBW

155
Q

What do most patients with anorexia die of?

A

1) Suicide

2) Arrythmias

156
Q

What is the female athlete triad?

A

Amenorrhea
Decreased BMD
Disordered eating

157
Q

What is the most common cause of missing school for female adolescent?

A

Dysmenorrhea

158
Q

Is delayed sexual behaviour in adolescence is associated with strict parenting?

A

YES

159
Q

What is the most common cause of menmetorrhagia in adolescent girls?

A

VWD

Anovulatory bleeding if just oligomenorrhea

160
Q

Spot diagnosis: https://d1yboe6750e2cu.cloudfront.net/i/3bdd0a4fc9a9ae29e178b3b1646ef2d9c5eef70a

A

Clue cells (BV)

161
Q

What would exclude a diagnosis of PID?

A

Absence of white cells in cervical discharge

162
Q

The majority of teen pregnancies end in abortion-T/F

A

True

163
Q

What is the best medication for ADHD in a patient with history of substance abuse?

A

Vyvanse-prodrug

164
Q

At what SMR stage does menses usually start?

A

Stage 4

165
Q

What is the difference between transfer and transition?

A

Transition is a process

Transfer is a one time event

166
Q

List 2 indications for doing a workup for gynecomastia

A
  1. Lasting >2 years
  2. Diameter >=2 cm
  3. Prepubertal boy
167
Q

Work up for pathologic gynecomastia

A 
TSH
Testosterone
Estradiol
hCG
LH
Prolactin if galactorrhea
168
Q

What are the progesterone-related side effects of OCPs?

A
  • Amenorrhea/intermenstrual bleeding
  • Headaches
  • Breast tenderness
  • Increased appetite
  • Decreased libido
  • Mood changes
  • Hypertension
  • Acne/oily skin*
  • Hirsutism*
  • Weight gain
  • Possible decrease in bone density
169
Q

List 3 situations in which you would have to breech confidentiality

A

Permissive reporting:
1. Risk of imminent serious bodily harm or death to a person/group (imminent risk of suicide or homicide to identified person/group)

Mandatory reporting:

  1. Suspected child abuse/neglect <16 yo - to CAS (not to police)
  2. Impaired driving ability (e.g. teen with seizure) - to DMV
  3. Medical information is subpoenaed - to police/court

FRCPC (27 decks)

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