Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What drugs cause increased risk of toxicity by interaction with metformin? What is the likely biochemical abnormality?

A

Aminoglycosides, alcohol, cyclosporin and contrast media. Metabolic acidosis.

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2
Q

Metabolic abnormality caused by aspirin toxicity?

A

Initially respiratory alkalosis due to direct stimulation of respiratory centre and hyperventilation. Subsequently metabolic acidosis due to uncoupling of oxydative phosphorylation and build up of lactic acid and fatty acid metabolites.

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3
Q

Which chemotherapeutic agents are most frequently associated with CV complications?

A

Athracyclines eg doxorubicin, daunorubicin, idarubicin and mitoxantrone

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4
Q

What is the mechanism of Doxorubicin causing CV complications ?

A

Myocardial necrosis causing a dilated cardiomyopathy (reduced LVEF)

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5
Q

Most significant SE of platinum based chemotherapeutic agents eg cisplatin?

A

Peripheral nerve damage

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6
Q

SE of bleomycin

A

Interstitial pneumonitis

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7
Q

What renal disease does lead poisoning cause

A

interstitial nephritis

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8
Q

What are the neurotoxic SEs of vinicristine

A

peripheral neuropathy, paraesthesias, foot drop and wrist drop. Also SIADH

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9
Q

Which chemotherapeutic agents cause cardiomyopathy

A

Doxorubicin and danorubicin

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10
Q

What is most common SE of methotrexate

A

hepatic and pulmonary fibrosis

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11
Q

SE of cyclophosphamide

A

Haemorrhagic cystitis

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12
Q

What ABX causes haemolytic anaemia in G6PD deficiency

A

Sulfonamides eg co-trimoxazole

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13
Q

What antihypertensive increases tublar resorption of lithium

A

ACEI

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14
Q

How is drug metabolism affected in the liver

A

Drug processing via mixed function oxidases are affected in early liver disease whereas conjugation reactions are affected to a lesser extent and problems only arise in much later disease

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15
Q

Which hepatic substrate transporter is rovustatin a substrate for

A

OATP1B1

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16
Q

Name some substrates of CYP4502C9

A

NSAID, sulphonureas, ARB2 and warfarin

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17
Q

What electrolyte abnormality does amphetamines cause

A

Hypokalaemia

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18
Q

What metabolic abnormality is often associated with cisplatin treatment

A

Renal tubular acidosis

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19
Q

Why is mild biochemical hyperthyroidism seen in pregnancy

A

bHCG stimulates production of thyroid hormone in similar manner to TSH

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20
Q

What are the conventional indictations for dialysis in ethyle glycol ingestion

A

Acidosis <7.25pH, acute kidney disease or ethylene glycol level >500

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21
Q

What is main enyme pathway responsible for metabolism of pioglitazone

A

CYP2C8

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22
Q

Which enzyme pathway is responsible for metabolism of antipsychotics and also converts codeine to morphine

A

CYP2D6

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23
Q

What level of lithium requires immediate haemodyalisis

A

> 4

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24
Q

What chemotherapeutic agent causes peripheral neuropathy

A

cisplatin

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25
What are the features of theophylline toxiciy
N + V, seizures, tachycardia and hypokalaemia
26
Which antibiotic is associated with acute tendon rupture
Quinolones
27
What is hypertrichosis, gum hyperplasia and hyperuricaemia associated with (chemotherapeutic drug)
ciclosporin
28
WHere do drugs like granisetron (5HT3 receptor antagonists) work?
Medulla oblongata
29
Where do betahistine and prochlorperazine work?
vestibular nerve
30
Drug treatment for partial epilepsy
Lamotrigine, note is safe for use with oestrogen OCP
31
Treatment of cluster headaches
Sumatriptan if acute attack, lithium or verapamil if 3 or more attacks
32
Why does digoxin need to be loaded
Very large volume of distribution meaning it is rapidly distributed to body parts and resulting in low blood levels
33
What is bosantan
Endothelin A and B receptor antagonist
34
What are rapid acetylators of isoniazid more likely to be exposed to ?
peripheral neuropathy
35
Which TB drug causes visual disturbance
ethambutol
36
What are the types of drug reaction?
A - dose related, likely predictable B - unpredictable C - in setting of prolonged drug use D - late after treatment E - related to withdrawal
37
What antithyroid drug causes alopecia, N + V, agranulocytosis, pruritus and arthralgia
carbimazole
38
What antiepileptic drug causes acne
phenytoin
39
How is gold administered for RA
IM
40
Main side effects d penicillamine
pancytopenia and acute interstitial nephritis
41
How does activated charcoal work in poisoning
aids elimination of drugs that are prone to enterohepatic circulation - absorbs drugs excreted in bile and prevents reabsorption in small bowel
42
When is thiopurine methyltransferase measured
when assessing risk of leukopenia when starting azathioprine
43
Mode of action of ciclosporin
Il- 2 inhibitor (CYP3A4 also)
44
What chemotherapeutic agent causes chemical cystitis?
Cyclophosphamide
45
What are main SEs of chlorambutol
myelosuppression, hepatoxicity and azoospermia
46
SEs of mephalan
BM suppression, amenorrhoea, sterility, pulmonary infiltrates and inappropriate secretion of ADH
47
What cardiac drug causes GI and mucosal ulceration?
nicorandil (nifedipine causes gingival hypertrophy)
48
What antibiotic can cause intracranial hypertension and how can it present
Tetracycline, amiodarone, OCP - presents with VIth nerve palsy(headache, blurred vision, convergent squint and unable to adduct L eye beyond midline)
49
What drugs does charcoal bind?
aspirin and paracetamol. does not bind lithium
50
What conditions can exacerbate isoniazid's role in causing peripheral neuropathy
High doses, slow acelator status and other conditions such as AIDS, alcoholism, diabetes and malnutrition
51
Drugs that cause hyperprolactinaemia
Amitryptaline, chlorpromazine, haloperidol, risperidone, metocloperamide, methyldopa, TCAs, MAOIs, isoniazid
52
Name these antimalarials in order of schizonticide fast to slow ( artemisinin, pyrimethamine, mefloquine, mecaprine and quinine
artemisinin (fast), mecaprine (f), quinine, (intermediate) mefloquine (intermediate), doxycycline is slow, pyrimethamine is slow
53
What antibiotics increase INR in warfarin therapy
macrolides and quinolones. also metronidazole, cimetidine and allopurinol . Enzyme inhibitors
54
mechanism of action of azathioprine
purine synthetase inhibitor. essential step in purification of lymphocytes and leukocytes
55
What medications are inhibitors of CYP3A4 that need to be treated with caution when using ciclosporin (increase levels)
macrolides, imidazole antifungals, diltiazem and verapamil
56
Common causes of drug induced lupus
Procainamide, hydralazine, phenytoin, ethosiximide
57
What do beta lactams (pencillins, cephalosporins and monobactams eg aztreonam) and peptidoglycans (vanc and teicloplanin) have in common
both inhibit cell wall synthesis therefore ineffective against bacteria that have no peptidoglycan cell wall eg chlamydia
58
mechanism of action of progesterone only OCP
thickens cervical mucous
59
mechanism of action of theophylline
adenosine receptor antagonist. also blocks phosphodiesterase
60
Causes of drug induced haemolysis (in context on G6PD deficiency)
dapsone, primaquine, aspirin or quinolones. AI acquired haemolysis recognised complication of penicillins, quinine, quinidine or methyldopa
61
What causes methaemoglobinaemia (Heinz bodies)
Nitrates
62
Mechanism of action of dipyridamole
phosphodiesterase inhibitor
63
What effect does ethambutol have on INR if used with warfarin therapy
increases it - enzyme inhibitiro
64
what cancer are people with venous ulcers most at risk of
scc
65
what drug is associated with HLA b 1502 causing SJ syndrome in a chinese population
carbamezapine
66
What antipsychotics can cause an oculogyric crisis
metocloperamide and prochlorperazine
67
What is sitgliptin
DPP4 inhibitor - gliptin
68
what is dapagliflozin
SGLT2 inhibitor - flozin
69
what is liraglutide
GLP1 agonist - tide
70
What can occur in lithium toxicity in nephrotic syndrome
Dyslipidaemia
71
Site of k sparing diuretics
Distal distal convoluted tubule
72
Moa adalimumab
Tnf alpha inhibitor
73
Two main ketone produced by liver
Acetoacetatw and beta hydroxybuterate
74
When is bisprolol contraindicated in pregnancy
First trimester
75
What causes hypoglycaemia when drinking alcohol in t2dm
Increased first phase response
76
What causes neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Dopamine antagonists
77
Signs with NMS
RIGIDITY HYPOREFLEXIA
78
Serotonin syndrome sx (x3)
Ocular clonus Myoclonus Hyperreflexia
79
What electrolyte abnormality ca dioxin lead to
Malignant hyperkalaemia
80
What drugs inhibit PDE-4
Copd drugs eg ronflumilast
81
Which phase do most chemotherapeutic drugs act on
Metaphase
82
Hla b1502
Risk of sjs when taking carbameezappine if Chinese han
83
Have b27
Ank Spon Anterior uveitis IBD
84
Hla dr2
Anti GBM SLE MS PBC
85
Hla dr4
rheumatoid arthritis
86
Can Beta blockers cause erectile dysfunction yes or no
Yes
87
Is Ramipril CI in pregnancy
Yes
88
who produces interferon gamma
Th1 differentiated T cells and NK cells
89
What is I'll-4's function?
drives differentiation of naive t helper cells to Th2 cells
90
91
what is benzobromarone
OAT-1 inhibitior - alternative when xanithine oxidase inhibitors ineffective
92
what is febuxostat and what is a potential side effect
XOxidase inhibitor significant bone marrow depression
93
what is MOA ticagrelor and clopidogrel
CYp12 inhibitor
94
example of Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibition
tirofiban
95