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MRCP > infection > Flashcards

infection Flashcards

1
Q

What bug causes lymphogrnuloma venerenum

A

chlamydia trachomatis serovars 1 - 3

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2
Q

how often is pneumococcal vaccine repeated

A

5 yearly

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3
Q

What is treatment for CMV encephalitis

A

ganicilovir

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4
Q

What pathology is seen with pneumocystis jirovecii

A

elevated BDG levels

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5
Q

What is the treatment for trichomonas vaginalis

A

metronidazole

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6
Q

Can treponyma pallidium (syphillis) cause an AKI?

A

yes - acute glomerulonephritis

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7
Q

What ABX should be px for chlamydia in pregnancy

A

azithromycin (not doxycycline tetracyclines)

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8
Q

Given 2 x examples of inactivated vaccines

A

whopping cough, polio, rabies, hep A

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9
Q

Does giardia cause bloody or non bloody diarrhoea

A

non bloody

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10
Q

What are the symptoms of strongyloids stercoralis (threadworm)

A

eosinophili, dermatitis, local haemorrages (skin) and lung disease

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11
Q

Does trachoma eye infection clamydia trachomatis affect one eye or both

A

both

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12
Q

Why does dipheria toxin cause myocarditis

A

because of exotoxin

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13
Q

What organism causes q fever and does it often grow in culture

A

coxiella burnetti. No not often cultured

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14
Q

WHat is the cause of amoebic dysentery

A

entamoeba hystolitica causes bloody diarrhoea

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15
Q

What disease is caused by cocksackie virus

A

hand foot and mouth disease (subtype virus 16 most responsible for outbreaks) however subtype 71 most associated with complications

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16
Q

What is an AIDS defining illness with multiple raised purple lesion in someone with HIV and low CD4 count

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

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17
Q

What disease is cryoglobulinaemia most associated with

A

hepatitis C

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18
Q

What is most common side effect of ribavirin

A

haemolytic anaemia

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19
Q

What is treated with sulfasizide and promethasine

A

toxoplasmosis

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20
Q

What is the most common opportunistic eye disease in the HIV positie population

A

CMV retinitis

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21
Q

What cancers are associated with the EBV genome

A

gastric and nasopharyngeal cancer

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22
Q

What presents with a black eschar

A

typhus infection

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23
Q

How do you treat a needle stick injury in person with known Hep C infection

A

hep C RNA monthly surveillance

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24
Q

What is mechanism of action of gentamicin

A

binds to ribosome sub unit

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25
Q

what is mechanism of action of vancomycin

A

prevents synthesis of polymers for bacterial cell wall

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26
Q

What abx causes oxidative damage to bacterial dna

A

metronidazole

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27
Q

what inhibits reduction of dihydrofolate

A

trimethoprim

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28
Q

what is the treatment for listeria meingitis

A

amipicillin

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29
Q

What antibiotic is used in toxic shock syndrome

A

clinamycin

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30
Q

what is the bacteria in BV

A

gardanella vaginalis

31
Q

HLA associated with behcet’s

A

HLA B51

32
Q

what disease shows amastigotes in the bone marrow

A

leishmaniasis - treated with miltefosine

33
Q

WHen is CMV infection seen in patients with transplants

A

approx 6 weeks

34
Q

What bug causes cat scratch fever

A

bartonella henselae

35
Q

what HLA subtype is associated with hypersensitivity to hypercavir

A

HLA B5701

36
Q

what is the treatment for whipple’s disease

A

ceftriaxone

37
Q

what are people post splenectomy most at risk of

A

n miningitidis, strep pneumoniae, and h influenzae

38
Q

What is tenea solium

A

Pork tapeworm
Can cause cysticercosis

39
Q

How does a VIPoma present

A

Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap

Abdo pain dehydration watery diarrhoea

40
Q

Tx for entamoeba hystolytica

A

Metronidazole

41
Q

When does food poisoning with bacillus commence

A

6 hours after eating foods like rice

42
Q

Tx for giardia

A

Meteonidazole

43
Q

Bacillus incubation
Food source
Symptoms

A

7 hours
Rice products
N and v

44
Q

Campylobacter incubation period
Food source

A

1 to 7 days
Meat and dairy

45
Q

Staph aureus incubation
Food source?

A

1 to 6 hours
Dairy

46
Q

Ciclosporin MOA

A

IL-2 inhibition

47
Q

What is strongyloides ?
How does it present ?
Tx?

A

Helping infection
Abdo pain diarrhoea and urticaria. Eosinophilia.
Ivermectin.

48
Q

What category of drug os stavudine

A

NRTI

49
Q

What statin if preferred when taking NRTIs and protease inhibitors

A

Pravastatin
Metabolism not as dependent on CYP450s as other statins

50
Q

Is GBS flaccid or spastic paralysis

A

Flaccid

51
Q

What HIV drug causes renal stones

A

Indinavir

52
Q

Side effects of zidovudine

A

Anaemia

53
Q

Side effects of zidovudine

A

Anaemia

54
Q

What causes chancroid

A

Haemophilus decreyi

55
Q

How does chancroid present

A

Tender ulcer with ragged edge
Easily bleeds

56
Q

Is LGV painless or painful

A

Painless

57
Q

With what infection can sulphur granules be observed in anaerobic cultures

A

Actinomyces spp.

58
Q

Most common bug in platelets

A

Staph epidermis

59
Q

What is the disadvantage in quantifeton and mantoux and PCR of tb

A

May be positive in latent tb
Doesn’t necessarily correlate with active disease

60
Q

Tx lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Doxycycline

61
Q

Difference between syphilis and lgv in terms of lymphadenopathy

A

Syphilis lymphadenopathy takes 6 weeks to appear
Lgv spreads rapidly to LNs

Lgv doxy
Syphilis pencillin v

62
Q

In vaccination which antibodies are positive

A

Anti HBs

Hbcore antibodies are NEGATIVE
there is no HBsAg

63
Q

Which antibodies are present in natural hep b infection

A

Both core and surface

64
Q

Tx for diphtheria

A

Azithromycin

65
Q

Name 3 x macrolides

A

Azithromycin
Clarithromycin
Erythromycin

66
Q

Tx for campylobacter

A

Macrolides ezythromycin

67
Q

where is bacillus cereus found?

A

rice

68
Q

what is erythema gratum repens associated with ?

A
69
Q

what type of pneumonia is most common in alcoholism

A

klebsiella pneumoniae > leads to cavitation

70
Q

name 3 x tnf inhibitor

A

adalimumab
golimumab
etanercept

71
Q

tx chlamydia in pregnancy

A

azithromycin 1g

72
Q

Tx for cyclospora

A

Co trimox

73
Q

Anti tpo graves or hasimotos

A

Hamishotos

Graves thyroid stimulating hormone recepte

74
Q

What tests for measles

A

Immediately after rash rna
3 days after rash igM
7 -14 days after rash igG

MRCP (14 decks)

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