infection Flashcards

1
Q

What bug causes lymphogrnuloma venerenum

A

chlamydia trachomatis serovars 1 - 3

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2
Q

how often is pneumococcal vaccine repeated

A

5 yearly

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3
Q

What is treatment for CMV encephalitis

A

ganicilovir

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4
Q

What pathology is seen with pneumocystis jirovecii

A

elevated BDG levels

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5
Q

What is the treatment for trichomonas vaginalis

A

metronidazole

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6
Q

Can treponyma pallidium (syphillis) cause an AKI?

A

yes - acute glomerulonephritis

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7
Q

What ABX should be px for chlamydia in pregnancy

A

azithromycin (not doxycycline tetracyclines)

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8
Q

Given 2 x examples of inactivated vaccines

A

whopping cough, polio, rabies, hep A

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9
Q

Does giardia cause bloody or non bloody diarrhoea

A

non bloody

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10
Q

What are the symptoms of strongyloids stercoralis (threadworm)

A

eosinophili, dermatitis, local haemorrages (skin) and lung disease

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11
Q

Does trachoma eye infection clamydia trachomatis affect one eye or both

A

both

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12
Q

Why does dipheria toxin cause myocarditis

A

because of exotoxin

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13
Q

What organism causes q fever and does it often grow in culture

A

coxiella burnetti. No not often cultured

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14
Q

WHat is the cause of amoebic dysentery

A

entamoeba hystolitica causes bloody diarrhoea

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15
Q

What disease is caused by cocksackie virus

A

hand foot and mouth disease (subtype virus 16 most responsible for outbreaks) however subtype 71 most associated with complications

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16
Q

What is an AIDS defining illness with multiple raised purple lesion in someone with HIV and low CD4 count

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

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17
Q

What disease is cryoglobulinaemia most associated with

A

hepatitis C

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18
Q

What is most common side effect of ribavirin

A

haemolytic anaemia

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19
Q

What is treated with sulfasizide and promethasine

A

toxoplasmosis

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20
Q

What is the most common opportunistic eye disease in the HIV positie population

A

CMV retinitis

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21
Q

What cancers are associated with the EBV genome

A

gastric and nasopharyngeal cancer

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22
Q

What presents with a black eschar

A

typhus infection

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23
Q

How do you treat a needle stick injury in person with known Hep C infection

A

hep C RNA monthly surveillance

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24
Q

What is mechanism of action of gentamicin

A

binds to ribosome sub unit

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25
what is mechanism of action of vancomycin
prevents synthesis of polymers for bacterial cell wall
26
What abx causes oxidative damage to bacterial dna
metronidazole
27
what inhibits reduction of dihydrofolate
trimethoprim
28
what is the treatment for listeria meingitis
amipicillin
29
What antibiotic is used in toxic shock syndrome
clinamycin
30
what is the bacteria in BV
gardanella vaginalis
31
HLA associated with behcet's
HLA B51
32
what disease shows amastigotes in the bone marrow
leishmaniasis - treated with miltefosine
33
WHen is CMV infection seen in patients with transplants
approx 6 weeks
34
What bug causes cat scratch fever
bartonella henselae
35
what HLA subtype is associated with hypersensitivity to hypercavir
HLA B5701
36
what is the treatment for whipple's disease
ceftriaxone
37
what are people post splenectomy most at risk of
n miningitidis, strep pneumoniae, and h influenzae
38
What is tenea solium
Pork tapeworm Can cause cysticercosis
39
How does a VIPoma present
Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap Abdo pain dehydration watery diarrhoea
40
Tx for entamoeba hystolytica
Metronidazole
41
When does food poisoning with bacillus commence
6 hours after eating foods like rice
42
Tx for giardia
Meteonidazole
43
Bacillus incubation Food source Symptoms
7 hours Rice products N and v
44
Campylobacter incubation period Food source
1 to 7 days Meat and dairy
45
Staph aureus incubation Food source?
1 to 6 hours Dairy
46
Ciclosporin MOA
IL-2 inhibition
47
What is strongyloides ? How does it present ? Tx?
Helping infection Abdo pain diarrhoea and urticaria. Eosinophilia. Ivermectin.
48
What category of drug os stavudine
NRTI
49
What statin if preferred when taking NRTIs and protease inhibitors
Pravastatin Metabolism not as dependent on CYP450s as other statins
50
Is GBS flaccid or spastic paralysis
Flaccid
51
What HIV drug causes renal stones
Indinavir
52
Side effects of zidovudine
Anaemia
53
Side effects of zidovudine
Anaemia
54
What causes chancroid
Haemophilus decreyi
55
How does chancroid present
Tender ulcer with ragged edge Easily bleeds
56
Is LGV painless or painful
Painless
57
With what infection can sulphur granules be observed in anaerobic cultures
Actinomyces spp.
58
Most common bug in platelets
Staph epidermis
59
What is the disadvantage in quantifeton and mantoux and PCR of tb
May be positive in latent tb Doesn't necessarily correlate with active disease
60
Tx lymphogranuloma venereum
Doxycycline
61
Difference between syphilis and lgv in terms of lymphadenopathy
Syphilis lymphadenopathy takes 6 weeks to appear Lgv spreads rapidly to LNs Lgv doxy Syphilis pencillin v
62
In vaccination which antibodies are positive
Anti HBs Hbcore antibodies are NEGATIVE there is no HBsAg
63
Which antibodies are present in natural hep b infection
Both core and surface
64
Tx for diphtheria
Azithromycin
65
Name 3 x macrolides
Azithromycin Clarithromycin Erythromycin
66
Tx for campylobacter
Macrolides ezythromycin
67
where is bacillus cereus found?
rice
68
what is erythema gratum repens associated with ?
69
what type of pneumonia is most common in alcoholism
klebsiella pneumoniae > leads to cavitation
70
name 3 x tnf inhibitor
adalimumab golimumab etanercept
71
tx chlamydia in pregnancy
azithromycin 1g
72
Tx for cyclospora
Co trimox
73
Anti tpo graves or hasimotos
Hamishotos Graves thyroid stimulating hormone recepte
74
What tests for measles
Immediately after rash rna 3 days after rash igM 7 -14 days after rash igG