Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Why are obese patients relatively resistant to succinylcholine?

A

increased butyrylcholinesterase (pseudocholinesterase) levels

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2
Q

Accumulation of which narcotic metabolites is of concern in patients with renal failure?

A
  • hydromorphone-3-glucuronide -> neuro-excitation and cognitive impairment
  • morphine-6-glucuronide -> active metabolite
  • normeperidine -> seizures
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3
Q

Which drugs are metabolized by butyrylcholinesterase (pseudocholinesterase)?

A

succinylcholine

mivacurium

physostigmine

organophosphates

[Fat MOPS sux]

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4
Q

Which drugs are metabolized by plasma esterases?

A

remifentanil

esmolol

ester local anesthetics

succinylcholine

atracurium (also Hoffman elimination)

etomidate (also liver metabolism)

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5
Q

How is lorazepam metabolized?

A

glucuronidation in the liver (also oxazepam and temazepam)

* no active metabolites *

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6
Q

What factors influence myalgias following succinylcholinc administration?

A

more common in women

more common with minor surgery

more common with early ambulation

less common in pregnant vs. non-pregnant women (more common in non pregnant)

less common in children and elderly patients (more common in middle age)

less common with greater muscle tone (more common in fatter)

[more common in non-pregnant, fat me]

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7
Q

What metabolic functions are served by the lung?

A
  • conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
  • inactivation of bradykinin (by ACE)
  • inactivation/uptake of norepinephrine; serotonin; and prostaglandins E1, E2, and F2alpha
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8
Q

How long is a time constant?

A

The time it would take an exponential process to be complete if the initial rate had continued.

1 time constant: 63% complete

2 time contants: 87.5% complete

3 time constants: 95% complete

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9
Q

What is ED95 in the context of muscle relaxants?

A

dose needed to decrease twitch height by 95%

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10
Q

What drugs exhibit zero-order kinetics?

A

ethanol

thiopental

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11
Q

How does renal failure affect volume of distribution? How does this affect drug dosing?

A
  • increases volume of distribution due to decreased plasma binding proteins
  • should increase loading dose and dosing interval
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12
Q

How are midazolam and diazepam metabolized?

A

cytochrome P450 oxidation in the liver

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13
Q

Besides IV administration, which route provides highest plasma levels of midazolam?

A

intramuscular

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14
Q

Where are opioid receptors predominantly located?

A
  • periaqueductal gray (brainstem)
  • amygdala
  • corpus striatum
  • hypothalamus
  • substantia gelatinosa
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15
Q

Which serum proteins bind most drugs?

A

albumin binds acidic drugs

alpha-1 glycoprotein binds basic drugs

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16
Q

Which opioid side effects are associated with Mu 1 receptors? Mu 2 receptors? Kappa receptors? Delta and sigma receptors?

A

Mu 1: urinary retention and euphoria. [#1]

Mu 2: constipation, physical dependence, and hypoventilation. [#2]

Kappa: dysphoria and hallucinations. [like KKKetamine]

Delta and sigma: dysphoria。 [DDD]

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17
Q

Which opioids cause significant histamine release?

A

morphine and meperidine - can cause bronchospasm

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18
Q

Which opioid can cause tachycardia?

A

meperidine - similar structure to atropine

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19
Q

Which opioid effects do not show tolerance?

A

miosis and constipation

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20
Q

How is remifentanil metabolism different between adults and infants?

A

faster in infants

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21
Q

What are the equivalent IV and PO doses of morphine? Hydromorphone?

A

morphine: 10 mg IV = 30 mg oral
hydromorphone: 1 mg IV = 5 mg oral

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22
Q

Which narcotic has local anesthetic activity?

A

meperidine

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23
Q

Which narcotic effects are reversed by naloxone? Which are not?

A

Reversed: respiratory depression, analgesia, pruritis

Not reversed: constipation, nausea/vomitting, muscle rigidity

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24
Q

What is the primary organ for redistribution of propofol when it residtributes from the brain?

A

skeletal muscle

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25
What are the features of propofol infusion syndrome?
metabolic acidosis rhabdomyolysis hyperkalemia bradycardia
26
What are some common indications for ketamine?
cardiac tamponade (increased HR and SVR) bronchial asthma (bronchodilatory) tetralogy of Fallot hypothyroidism
27
What drugs are contraindicated in acute intermittent porphyria?
barbiturates etomidate hydralazine steroids OCPs alpha-methyldopa chlordiazepoxide nitrazepam flunitazepam
28
How much will nitrous oxide expand a pneumothorax?
50% N2O: 2x 66% N2O: 3x 75% N2O: 4x
29
How much of each inhaled anesthetic is metabolized by the body rather than exhaled?
halothane: 20% sevoflurane/enflurane: 2% isoflurane: 0.2% desflurane: 0.02%
30
What are the OSHA guideline for exposure limits to inhaled anesthetics?
N2O: 25 ppm/hour all others: 2 ppm/hour
31
What is the Overton-Mayer theory?
correlation between lipid solubility of anesthetic agents and their potency
32
What factors increase MAC?
neonates chronic alcoholism acute amphetamine use MAOIs, cocaine hyperthermia hypernatremia
33
What factors do NOT affect MAC?
duration of anesthesia gender pH or PaCO2 hypo/hyperthyroidism
34
What factors decrease MAC?
old age pregnancy hyperbaric chamber (nitrogen narcosis) chronic amphetamine use acute alcohol use
35
What factors increase carbon monoxide production in the anesthesia circuit?
desflurane low gas flows dry or warm absorbent baralyme \> sodalyme
36
What is the order of onset and recovery of neuromuscular blockade in different muscle groups?
diaphragm \> laryngeal muscles \> adductor pollicis
37
How do antibiotics affect neuromuscular blockade?
All antibiotics potentiate blockade, EXCEPT: penicillin cepharlosporins erythromycin
38
What is the best clinical test of adequate neuromuscular blockade?
neonates: sustained leg lift adults: masseter muscle tone
39
How is the dosing of rocuronium and neostigmine affected by renal failure?
clearance of both is prolonged, dose should be reduced
40
What is the significance of dibucaine number?
butyrlcholinesterase alleles: 80: WT 40-60: heterozygous 20: mutant
41
How much does succinylcholine increase postassium levels in a normal patient?
0.5 mEq/L
42
Which electrolyte abnormalities prolong neuromuscular blockade?
"Louis CK" hypocalcemia hypokalemia "Hymen" hypermagnesemia hypernatremia
43
Which drugs prolong the duration of action of both depolarizing and non-depolarizing muscle relaxants?
lithium magnesium
44
Which drugs inhibit butyrlcholinesterase and prolong the duration of action of succinylcholine?
metoclopramide pancuronium and mivacurium acetylcholinesterase inhibitors nitrogen mustard, trimataphan, and echothiophate
45
How do ester local anesthetics interact with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (neostigmine, pyridostigmine)?
ester local anesthetics potentiate acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (makes it last longer)
46
What properties affect onset time of local anesthetics?
pKa (lower is faster) concentration
47
Which properties affect the duration of action of local anesthetics?
protein binding (stronger is longer)
48
Which properties affect the potency of local anesthetics?
lipid solubility
49
Which local anesthetics can cause methemoglobinemia?
benzocaine and prilocaine
50
Which drugs are contraindicated in G6PD deficiency?
nitrofurantoin and sulfa isoniazid and dapsone methylene blue anti-malarials
51
Are patients with G6PD deficiency more or less susceptible to methemoglobinemia?
more susceptible
52
What are the properties of tumescent lidocaine used for liposuction?
concentration: 0.025-0.1% dose: 35-55 mg/kg time to peak concentration: 12-14 h epinephrine: 1:1,000,000
53
What are the target receptors of metoclopramide?
D2 antagonist 5HT3 antagonist 5HT4 agonist
54
What are the clinically used ß2 agonists?
albuterol terbutaline ritodrine
55
What are the common side effects of ß2 agonists?
hypotension tachycardia hyperglycemia pulmonary edema hypokalemia
56
What are the clinical uses of glucagon?
hypoglycemia reducing biliary spasm beta-blocker overdose
57
What are the acute and chronic side effects of amiodarone?
acute: hypotension, QT prolongation, torsades chronic: pulmonary fibrosis, hypo/hyperthyroidism
58
What are the clinical features of digoxin toxicity?
arrhythmias (AV block, PVCs, VT) nausea & vomitting xanthopsia
59
What are the indicated treatments for digoxin toxicity?
Digibind treatment of hyperkalemia (EXCEPT CALCIUM) magnesium (EXCEPT WITH AV BLOCK) lidocaine to treat ventricular arrhythmias
60
What are the contraindicated treatments for digoxin toxicity?
calcium procainamide cardioversion
61
What are the indicated uses for ACEIs/ARBs?
systolic heart failure anterior MI w/ low EF diabetic nephropathy
62
When are ACEIs/ARBs contraindicated?
pregnancy bilateral renal artery stenosis h/o angioedema
63
Which supplements can cause mild platelet dysfunction?
ginseng garlic ginko biloba