Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRCP 1 > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Metformin SE

A

GI, lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sulfonylurea SE

A

Hypoglycaemia, increase appetite, weight gain, SIADH, cholestasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Glitazones SE

A

weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction, fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tamoxifen SE

A

Menstrual disturbances, hot flushes, VTE, endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning: features

A

Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, bradycardia, hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning: management

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Infliximab

A

Anti-TNF

Used in RA and Crohn’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rituximab

A

Anti-CD20

Used in HNL and RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cetuximab

A

Epidermal growth factor antagonist

Used n metastatic CRC and head and neck cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Trastuzumab

A

HER2 antagonist

Used in metastatic breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Alemtuzumab

A

Anti CD52

Used in CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Abciximab

A

Glycroprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist

Prevention of ischaemia in PCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

OKT3

A

Anti-CD3

Prevention of organ rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pharmacokinetics: Phase 1

A

Oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pharmacokinetics: Phase 2

A

Conjugation and excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pharmacokinetics: first pass metabolism

A

Concentration of a drug is greatly reduce prior to being metabolised requiring higher doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pharmacokinetics: zero order

A

Metabolism is independent of the concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

First pass metabolism eg (x9)

A

aspirin, isosorbide dinitrate, GTN, lignocaine, propanolol, verapamil, isoprenaline, testosterone, hydrocortison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Zero order kinetics eg (x4)

A

Phenytoin, salicylates, heparin, ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Drugs affected by acetylator status

A

I proposed with very glossy lipstick while testing strawberries
Isosorbide, Propranolol, Verapamil, GTN, Lidocaine, Aspirin, Isoprenanline, Testosterone, Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Enzyme Inducers

A 
Carbemazapine
Rifampicin
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone
Sulphonylureas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Enzyme Inhibitors

A 
Sodium valproate
Isoniazide
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulfonamides
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DRESS Syndrome

A

Drug rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lithium toxicity: precipitations (x6)

A

Dehydration, renal failure, diuretics, ACE, NSAIDs, metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lithium toxicity: features

A

Coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizure, coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lithium toxicity: management

A

Fluids, dialysis, bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Paracetamol OD: RF

A

Enzyme inducers, malnourishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Alpha 1 agonists

A

Decongestants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Alpha 2 agonists

A

Glaucoma e.g. brionidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Alpha antagonists

A

BPH (tamsulosin)

HTN (doxazosin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Beta 1 agonists

A

Inotropes e.g. dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Beta 1 antagonists

A

Beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Beta 2 agonists

A

Bronchodilators e.g. salbutamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Beta 2 antagonists

A

Non-selective beta blockers e.g. propranolol and labetalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Dopamine agonists

A

Parkinson’s

Prolactinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dopamine antagonists

A

Schizophrenia

Anti-emetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Histamine 1 antagonists

A

Antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Histamine 1 antagonists

A

Antacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Muscarinic agonists

A

Glaucoma e.g. pilocarpine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Muscarinic antagonists

A

Atropine, ipratropium, oxybutynin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Nicotinic agonists

A

Nicotine, depolarising muscle relaxant (suxamethonium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Nicotinic antagonists

A

Non-depolarising muscle relaxants (atracurium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Serotonin agonists

A

Triptans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Serotonin antagonists

A

Anti-emetics (ondansetron)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Inhibits cell wall formation

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbopenems
Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Inhibits protein synthesis: 50s sub unit

A 
Macrolides
Chlorampehnicol
Clindamycin
Linezolid
Stretogrammins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Inhibits protein synthesis: 30s sub unit

A

Amintoglycosides

Tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Inhibits DNA synthesis

A

Quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Damages DNA

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Inhibits folic acid

A

Sulphonamides

Trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Inhibits RNA synthesis

A

Rifampicin

52
Q

Alpha-1

A

Vasconstriction
Relaxation of smooth muscle
Salivary secretion
Hepatic glycogenolysis

53
Q

Alpha-2

A

Presynpatic
Inhibits insulin
Platelet aggregation

54
Q

Beta-1

A

Heart rate and force

55
Q

Beta-2

A

Vasodilation
Bronchodilation
Relaxation of GI muscle

56
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Selective oestrogen receptor modulator

57
Q

Exemestane

A

Adjuvant in early stage breast cancer in post menopausal women

58
Q

Lapatinib

A

Combination for HER2-postive metastatic breast cancer in post menopausal women

59
Q

Anastrazole

A

ER positive breast cancer

60
Q

Trastuzumab

A

HER2 receptor

61
Q

Ig Uses (9)

A

Immunodeficiency, ITP, myasthenia gravis, GBS, Kawasaki, TEN, pneumonoitis, post transplant, dermatomyositis

62
Q

Anion Gap

A

Na - (Cl + HCO3)

63
Q

Cataracts

A

Steroids

64
Q

Corneal Opacities

A

Amiodarone

Indomethacin

65
Q

Optic Neuritis

A

Ethambutol, amiodarone, metronidazole

66
Q

Retinopathy

A

Chloroquine, quinine

67
Q

Ion channels eg

A

lidocaine (Na voltage gated channels)

68
Q

G protein coupled receptors eg

A

adrenoreceptors

69
Q

Tyrosine kinase receptors eg

A

insulin

70
Q

nuclear receptors eg

A

levothyroxine

71
Q

Methanol poisoning: features

A

drunk

visual impairment

72
Q

Methanol poisoning: management

A

fomepizole or ethanol

haemodialysis

73
Q

Ethylene glycol toxicity - what is it?

A

Coolant or antifreeze

74
Q

Ethylene glycol toxicity features?

A
  1. alcohol intoxication
  2. metaboic acidosis with anion gap
  3. AKI
75
Q

Ethylene glycol toxicity - management

A

fomepizole

dialysis

76
Q

Serotonin syndrome: management

A

Supportive

Benzo’s

77
Q

Serotonin syndrome: causes

A

MAOi
SSRIs
Ecstasy
Amphetamines

78
Q

Acute Intermittent Porphryia: precipitants

A 
Baribiturates
Halothane
Benzo's
Alcohol
OCP
Sulphonamides
79
Q

Drugs causing photosensitivity

A

Thiazides, tetracyclines, ciprofloxacin, amiodarone, NSAIDs, psoralens, sulphonylureas

80
Q

Haemodialysis in overdose

A 
BLAST
barbiturates
lithium 
alcohol
salicylates
theophyllines
81
Q

Drugs causing pulmonary fibrosis

A

Pulmonary Busting CAN Result in fibrosis

Pergolide, bromocriptine, carbergoline, cytotoxics, amiodarone, nitrofurantoin, anti-Rheumatics

82
Q

Anti-arrhythmics: 1a

A

Block Na channels. Increases AP

Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide

83
Q

Anti-arrhythmics: 1b

A

Blocks Na channels. Decreases AP

Lidocaine, mexiletine, tocainide

84
Q

Anti-arrhythmics: 1c

A

Block Na channels

Felcainide, encainide,

85
Q

Anti-arrhythmics: 2

A

Beta-adrenoreceptor antagonists

86
Q

Anti-arrhythmics: 3

A

Blocks K channels

Amiodarone, sotalol,

87
Q

Anti-arrhythmics: 4

A

CCB

Verapamil, diltiazem

88
Q

Cyanide Poisoning: Features

A

Brick red skin, smell of almonds, hypoxia, hypotension, headache

89
Q

Cyanide Poisoning: Mx

A

IV hydroxocobalamin

90
Q

Quinine toxicity: features

A

Arrhythmias, hypoglycaemia

91
Q

Oculogyric crisis: features

A

restlessness, agitation

Upward deviation of eyes

92
Q

Oculogyric crisis: causes

A

antipsychotics, metoclopramide, post encephalitic PD

93
Q

Oculogyric crisis: Mx

A

IV antimuscarinic

94
Q

Amiodarone Induced Thyrotoxicosis: Type 1 - what?

A

Excess iodine induced thyroid hormone synthesis

95
Q

Amiodarone Induced Thyrotoxicosis: Type 1 - goitre?

A

Present

96
Q

Amiodarone Induced Thyrotoxicosis: Type 1 - Mx?

A

Carbimazole or K perchlorate

97
Q

Amiodarone Induced Thyrotoxicosis: Type 2 - what?

A

Amiodarone related destructive thyroiditis

98
Q

Amiodarone Induced Thyrotoxicosis: Type 2 - Mx?

A

Steroids

99
Q

King’s College criteria for liver transplant

A

pH <7.3 post 24 hours
PT >100 seconds
Cr >300
Grade III or IV encephalopathy

100
Q

TCA OD: features

A

Arrhythmias
Seizures
Metabolic acidosis
Coma

101
Q

TCA OD: ECG

A

Sinus tachycardia
QRS widening
QT prolongation

102
Q

Therapeutic monitoring: lithium

A

12 hours post dose

103
Q

Therapeutic monitoring: ciclosporin

A

Trough levels before dose

104
Q

Therapeutic monitoring: digoxin

A

6 hours post dose

105
Q

Octreotide: what?

A

Long acting analogue of somatostatin

106
Q

Octreotide: uses (6)

A 
Variceal haemorrhage
Acromegaly 
Carcinoid Sx
Post pancreatic surgery
VIPomas
Refractory diarrhoea
107
Q

Drugs causing cataracts

A

Steroids

108
Q

Drugs causing corneal opacities

A

amiodarone, indomethacin

109
Q

Drugs causing optic neuritis

A

ethambutol, amiodarone, metronidazole

110
Q

Drugs causing impaired glucose tolerance

A 
Thiazides
Steroids
Tacrolimus, ciclosporin
Interferon-a
Nicotinic acid 
Antipsychotics
111
Q

Phase 1 reactions

A

oxidation
reduction
hydrolysis

112
Q

Phase 2 reactions

A

conjugation

113
Q

Phase 1 enzymes

A

alcohol dehydrogenase

xanthine oxidase

114
Q

Causes of increased anion gap

A 
lactic acidosis
DKA
Renal failure
Methanol
Ethylene glycol
Salicyclates
115
Q

Antibodies in HIT

A

Platelet factor 4 and heparin

116
Q

Finasteride: SE

A

Impotence
Decreased libido
Gynaecomastia
Decreased PSA

117
Q

Monitoring in LMWH

A

Factor Xa levels

118
Q

Fomepizole: MoA

A

Competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase

119
Q

Dopamine agonists are used in…

A

Parkinsons
PRL
Cyclical breast disease
Acromegaly

120
Q

Aspirin MoA

A

Decreases formation of thomboxane A2

Inhibits COX 1 and 2

121
Q

Doxasin: MoA

A

Alpha 1 antagonist

122
Q

Tamsulosin MoA

A

Alpha 1b antagonist

123
Q

Causes of urticaria

A

Aspirin
Penicillin
NSAIDs
Opiates

124
Q

When should ciprofloxacin not be used…

A

In G6PD deficiency

125
Q

VTE prophylaxis in poor renal function

A

Unfractioned heparin

126
Q

Bendroflumethathiazide causes..

A

Gout

MRCP 1 (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions