PRELIM 03 - Pharmacodynamics Flashcards

1
Q

Refers to the cellular macromolecule or macromolecular complex with which the drug interacts to elicit a cellular or systemic response

A

Receptor/Drug targets

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2
Q

Refers to the ability to bind to receptors

A

Affinity

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3
Q

Refers to the ability to activate receptors and generate a response

A

Efficacy/Intrinsic activity

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4
Q

Refers to the amount of drug needed to produce an effect; affected by both affinity and efficacy

A

Potency

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5
Q

Refers to the ability to distinguish between receptors

A

Specificity

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6
Q

Tissue response is proportional to number of receptors occupied; by Clark and Gadum (Theories of drug receptor interaction)

A

Occupancy theory

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7
Q

Retains the assumption that tissue response is proportional to number of receptors occupied; by Ariens and Stephenson (Theories of drug receptor interaction)

A

Modified occupancy theory

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8
Q

Drug receptor interaction effect is proportional to the rate of drug receptor combination; by Croxatto and Paton (Theories of drug receptor interaction)

A

Rate theory

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9
Q

According to the rate theory, __________ has a high rate of association and dissociation

A

Agonist

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10
Q

According to the rate theory, __________ has a high rate of association and low rate of dissociation

A

Antagonist

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11
Q

Combination of ligand and receptor produces a change in conformation of the receptor; by Koshland (Theories of drug receptor interaction)

A

Induced fit theory

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12
Q

Interaction of small molecules (drug) with macromolecule (receptor) results in SCP and NSCP; by Belleau (Theories of drug receptor interaction)

A

Macromolecular perturbation theory

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13
Q

According to the macromolecular perturbation theory, the _________ has an agonist effect

A

Specific conformational perturbation (SCP)

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14
Q

According to the macromolecular perturbation theory, the __________ has an antagonist effect

A

Nonspecific conformational perturbation (NSCP)

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15
Q

Proposes that when a ligand binds, this results in a change in receptor stage from inactive to active; by Black and Leff (Theories of drug receptor interaction)

A

Two-state receptor theory

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16
Q

Uses equilibrium dissociation constants for the interactions between the receptor and each ligand; by De lean et al. (Theories of drug receptor interaction)

A

Ternary complex model

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17
Q

According to the ternary complex model, the __________ factor denotes the mutual effect of the two ligands on each other’s affinity for the receptor

A

Cooperativity

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18
Q

__________ activity indicates the production of physiologic effect without the drug

A

Constitutive

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19
Q

2 receptor states (AI)

A

Active (Ra), Inactive (Ri)

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20
Q

Intrinsic activity is 1; Maximal shift to Ra (Characteristic of drug effect)

A

Agonist

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21
Q

Intrinsic activity is >0 and <1; Partial shift to Ra (Characteristic of drug effect)

A

Partial agonist

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22
Q

Intrinsic activity is 0; No effect on equilibrium (Characteristic of drug effect)

A

Antagonist

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23
Q

Intrinsic activity is <0; Shift to Ri (Characteristic of drug effect)

A

Inverse agonist

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24
Q

Prevents activation of receptor by agonist; may be competitive or noncompetitive (Types of antagonist)

A

Receptor antagonist

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25
Opposes effects of agonist through a different receptor (Types of antagonist)
Physiologic antagonist
26
Renders a substance inactive by binding to it (Types of antagonist)
Chemical antagonist
27
Structurally similar to agonist, binds reversibly to the same site of agonist; can be overcome by increasing agonist concentration (Types of receptor antagonist)
Competitive antagonist
28
Cannot be overcome by increasing agonist concentration (Types of receptor antagonist)
Noncompetitive antagonist
29
Binds irreversibly (covalently) to the same site of agonist (Types of noncompetitive antagonist)
Irreversible antagonist
30
Binds to a different site (allosteric site) from the site of the agonist (Types of noncompetitive antagonist)
Allosteric inhibitor
31
Refers to the conversion of a signal carried by a chemical messenger into an intracellular response
Signal transduction
32
Channels that allow passive diffusion of ions down electrochemical gradients across the cell membrane
Ion channels
33
Action potential across the cell membrane causes conformational change in the channel that opens or closes the gate (Types of ion channels)
Voltage-gated channels
34
Binding of a chemical substance (a ligand) with the channel causes conformational in the channel that opens or closes the gate (Types of ion channels)
Ligand-gated channels
35
3 components of G protein-coupled receptor (GEH)
G protein, Effector enzyme, Heptahelical receptor
36
The largest and most diverse group of receptors
G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR)
37
Meaning of G protein
Guanosine-nucleotide binding protein
38
3 subunits of G protein (ABG)
Alpha (α), Beta (β), Gamma (γ)
39
cAMP, DAG, IP3, and Ca2+ are all examples of __________
2° messengers
40
Are enzymes that phosphorylates proteins
Receptor protein kinases
41
Are enzymes that binds kinases which can phosphorylate proteins
Receptor bind protein kinases
42
An example of receptor protein kinase that has intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity
Receptor tyrosine kinase
43
Signal transducer protein of receptor tyrosine kinase
Grb2
44
__________ is a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for Ras
Son of sevenless (SOS)
45
SOS is a GEF for __________, a monomeric G protein located in the plasma membrane
Ras
46
__________ is a serine protein kinase that is also called MAPKKK (Mitogen activated protein kinase kinase kinase)
Raf
47
_________ is a factor that allows exchange of GDP for GTP; involved in activation
Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF)
48
________ are proteins that increase GTPase activity of G proteins or Ras; involved in inactivation
GTPase activating proteins (GAP)
49
An example of receptor protein kinase that has intrinsic serine/threonine kinase activity
Receptor serine/threonine kinase
50
Signal transducer protein of receptor serine/threonine kinase
Smad
51
An example of receptor bind protein kinase that binds with JAK (Janus kinase), an example of tyrosine kinase
Cytokine receptor/JAK-STAT receptor
52
Signal transducer protein of cytokine receptor/JAK-STAT receptor
Signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT)
53
A receptor enzyme that has intrinsic guanylyl cyclase activity
Receptor guanylyl cylase
54
2 kinds of receptor guanylyl cyclase (MS)
Membrane-bound, Soluble
55
2° messenger of receptor guanylyl cyclase
cGMP
56
Signal cascade of receptor guanylyl cyclase
PKG
57
__________ receptors are used for hydrophobic drugs
Intracellular
58
2 kinds of intracellular receptors (CN)
Cytosolic, Nuclear
59
Signal cascade of intracellular receptors
Response element
60
Refers to the ability of receptors to amplify signal duration and intensity
Signal amplification
61
Response may be __________ or __________ (NG)
Non-genomic, Genomic
62
E.g. ion influx/efflux, alteration of protein activity; is usually immediate and brief (Types of response)
Non-genomic
63
E.g. gene expression; usually delayed and prolonged (Types of response)
Genomic
64
Refers to a decrease in response to a drug due to continued stimulation of receptors with agonists
Desensitization
65
Refers to a rapid desensitization
Tachyphylaxis
66
Happens due to endocytosis of receptors and sequestration inside cells
Downregulation
67
A plot of the degree of a given response against the plasma concentration/dose of the drug
Graded-dose response curve
68
A measure of the amount of drug necessary to produce an effect
Potency
69
A measure of the ability of the drug to elicit a response when it interacts with a receptor; involves a drug's maximum effect
Efficacy
70
A plot of the proportion of the population that produces a response against the dose of the drug
Quantal-dose response curve
71
__________ effect is also known as either-or effect
Quantal
72
The dose at which 50% of individuals exhibit the specified quantal therapeutic effect
Median effective dose (ED50)
73
The dose at which 50% of individuals exhibit the specified quantal toxic effect
Median toxic dose (TD50)
74
The dose at which 50% of individuals exhibit the specified quantal lethal effect
Median lethal dose (LD50)
75
Refers to the range between the minimum therapeutic dose and the minimum toxic dose
Therapeutic window
76
Refers to the ratio of the dose that produces toxic effect in half the population (TD50) to the dose that produces therapeutic effect (ED50) in half the population
Therapeutic index
77
Refers to the ratio of the dose that produces toxic effect in 1% of the population (TD1) to the dose that produces therapeutic effect (ED99) in 99% of the population
Margin of safety
78
__________ is an example of a drug that has a small therapeutic index
Warfarin
79
__________ is an example of a drug that has a large therapeutic index
Penicillin