PHARMA SEMIS Flashcards
1
Q
drug used to treat disorders involving thought processes;
dopamine receptor blocker that helps affected people to organize their
thoughts and respond appropriately to stimuli
A
antipsychotic:
2
Q
behavioral syndrome characterized by an
inability to concentrate for longer than a few minutes and excessive
activity
A
attention deficit disorder
3
Q
behavioral disorder that involves extremes of
depression alternating with hyperactivity and excitemen
A
bipolar disorder:
4
Q
former name of antipsychotic drugs; the name is no
longer used because it implies that the primary effect of these drugs is
sedation, which is no longer thought to be the desired therapeutic
action
A
major tranquilizer
5
Q
state of hyperexcitability; one phase of bipolar disorders, which
alternate between periods of severe depression and mania
A
mania
6
Q
mental disorder characterized by daytime sleepiness and
periods of sudden loss of wakefulness
A
narcolepsy:
7
Q
a drug with many associated neurological adverse effects
that is used to treat disorders that involve thought processes (e.g.,
schizophrenia)
A
neuroleptic:
8
Q
the most common type of psychosis; characteristics
include hallucinations, paranoia, delusions, speech abnormalities, and
affective problems
A
schizophrenia:
9
Q
are taken orally for the management of manic
episodes and prevention of future episodes.
A
Lithium salts (Lithobid)
10
Q
Mental disorders are now thought to be caused by some inherent
dysfunction within the brain that leads to abnormal thought
processes and responses. They include
a. depression.
b. anxiety.
c. seizures.
d. schizophrenia.
A
D
11
Q
Antipsychotic drugs are basically
a. serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
b. norepinephrine blockers.
c. dopamine receptor blockers.
d. acetylcholine stimulators
A
C
12
Q
Adverse effects associated with antipsychotic drugs are related to the
drugs’ effects on receptor sites and can include
a. insomnia and hypertension.
b. dry mouth, hypotension, and glaucoma.
c. diarrhea and excessive urination.
d. increased sexual drive and improved concentration.
A
B
13
Q
Lithium toxicity can be dangerous. Patient assessment to evaluate
for appropriate lithium levels would look for
a. serum lithium levels >3 mEq/L.
b. serum lithium levels >4 mEq/L.
c. serum lithium levels <1.5 mEq/L.
d. undetectable serum lithium levels.
A
A
14
Q
Your patient, a 6-year-old boy, is starting a regimen of
methylphenidate (Ritalin) to control an attention deficit disorder.
Family teaching should include which of the following?
a. This drug can be shared with other family members who might
seem to need it.
b. This drug may cause insomnia, weight loss, and GI upset.
c. Do not alert the school nurse to the fact that this drug is being
taken because the child could have problems later.
d. This drug should not be stopped for any reason for several years.
A
B
15
Q
Antipsychotic drugs are also known as neuroleptic drugs because
a. they cause numerous neurological effects.
b. they frequently cause epilepsy.
c. they are also minor tranquilizers.
d. they are the only drugs known to directly affect nerves.
A
A
16
Q
Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (the inability to concentrate
or focus on an activity) and narcolepsy (sudden episodes of sleep)
are both most effectively treated with the use of
a. neuroinhibitors.
b. dopamine receptor blockers.
c. major tranquilizers.
d. CNS stimulants.
A
D
17
Q
Haloperidol (Haldol) is a potent antipsychotic that is associated with
a. severe extrapyramidal effects.
b. severe hyperactivity.
c. severe hypotension.
d. severe anticholinergic effects.
A
A
18
Q
type of generalized seizure that is characterized by
sudden, temporary loss of consciousness, sometimes with staring or
blinking for 3 to 5 seconds; formerly known as a petit mal seizure
A
absence seizure:
19
Q
drug used to treat the abnormal and excessive energy bursts
in the brain that are characteristic of epilepsy
A
antiepileptic
20
Q
tonic–clonic muscular reaction to excessive electrical energy
arising from nerve cells in the brain
A
convulsion
21
Q
collection of various syndromes, all of which are characterized
by seizures
A
epilepsy:
22
Q
seizure that begins in one area of the brain and
rapidly spreads throughout both hemispheres
A
generalized seizure:
23
Q
also called focal seizures; seizures involving one area of
the brain that do not spread throughout the entire organ
A
partial seizures:
24
Q
sudden discharge of excessive electrical energy from nerve cells
in the brain
A
seizure:
25
state in which seizures rapidly recur; most severe form
of generalized seizure
status epilepticus:
26
type of generalized seizure that is characterized by
serious involuntary muscle contractions followed by relaxation
appearing as an aggressive spasm in addition to a loss of
consciousness, with exhaustion and little memory of the event on
awakening; formerly known as a grand mal seizure
tonic–clonic seizure:
27
When teaching a group of students about epilepsy, which
characteristic should the nurse include?
a. Always characterized by grand mal seizures
b. Only a genetic problem
c. The most prevalent neurological disorder
d. The name given to one brain disorder
C
28
Which type of seizure would the nurse be least likely to include as a
type of generalized seizure?
a. Petit mal seizures
b. Febrile seizures
c. Grand mal seizures
d. Complex seizures
D
29
Which instruction would the nurse encourage a patient receiving an
antiepileptic drug to do?
a. Give up his or her driver’s license.
b. Wear or carry a MedicAlert identification.
c. Take antihistamines to help dry up secretions.
d. Keep the diagnosis a secret to avoid prejudice
B
30
Drugs that are commonly used to treat grand mal seizures include
a. barbiturates, benzodiazepines, and hydantoins.
b. barbiturates, antihistamines, and local anesthetics.
c. hydantoins, phenobarbital, and phensuximide.
d. benzodiazepines, phensuximide, and valproic acid.
A
31
The drug of choice for the treatment of absence seizures is
a. valproic acid.
b. methsuximide.
c. phensuximide.
d. ethosuximide.
D
32
Focal or partial seizures
a. start at one point and spread quickly throughout the brain.
b. are best treated with benzodiazepines.
c. involve only part of the brain.
d. are easily diagnosed and recognized.
C
33
One drug that is used alone in the treatment of partial seizures is
a. carbamazepine.
b. topiramate.
c. lamotrigine.
d. gabapentin.
A
34
Treatment of epilepsy is directed at
a. blocking the transmission of nerve impulses into the brain.
b. stabilizing overexcited nerve membranes.
c. blocking peripheral nerve terminals.
d. thickening the meninges to dampen brain electrical activity.
B
35
drug that opposes the effects of acetylcholine at
acetylcholine receptor sites
anticholinergic:
36
difficulty in performing intentional movements and
extreme slowness and sluggishness; characteristic of Parkinson disease
bradykinesia:
37
part of the brain that reacts with the substantia nigra to
maintain a balance of suppression and stimulation
corpus striatum:
38
drug that increases the effects of dopamine at receptor
sites
dopaminergic:
39
debilitating disease characterized by progressive loss
of coordination and function, which results from the degeneration of
dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra
Parkinson disease
40
Parkinson disease–like extrapyramidal symptoms that are
adverse effects associated with particular drugs or brain injuries
parkinsonism:
41
a part of the brain rich in dopamine and dopamine
receptors; site of degenerating neurons in Parkinson disease
substantia nigra:
42
Parkinson disease is a progressive, chronic neurological disorder that
is usually
a. associated with severe head injury.
b. associated with chronic diseases.
c. associated with old age.
d. known to affect people of all ages with no known cause.
C
43
Parkinson disease reflects an imbalance between inhibitory and
stimulating activity of nerves in the
a. reticular activating system.
b. cerebellum.
c. basal ganglia.
d. limbic system.
C
44
The main underlying problem with Parkinson disease seems to be a
decrease in the neurotransmitter
a. acetylcholine.
b. norepinephrine.
c. dopamine.
d. serotonin.
C
45
Anticholinergic drugs are effective in early Parkinson disease. They
act to
a. block stimulating effects of acetylcholine in the brain to bring
activity back into balance.
b. block the signs and symptoms of the disease, making it more
acceptable.
c. inhibit dopamine effects in the brain and increase neuron
activity.
d. increase the effectiveness of the inhibitory neurotransmitter
gamma-aminobutyric acid.
A
46
A patient receiving an anticholinergic drug for Parkinson disease is
planning a winter trip to Tahiti. The temperature in Tahiti is 70
degrees warmer than at home. What precautions should the patient
be urged to take?
a. Take the drug with plenty of water to stay hydrated.
b. Reduce the dose, and take precautions to reduce the risk for heat
stroke.
c. Wear sunglasses and use sunscreen because of photophobia that
will develop.
d. Avoid drinking the water to prevent gastric distress
B
47
Replacing dopamine in the brain would seem to be the best treatment
for Parkinson disease. This is difficult because dopamine
a. is broken down in gastric acid.
b. is not available in drug form.
c. cannot cross the blood–brain barrier.
d. is used peripherally before reaching the brain
C
48
A patient taking levodopa and over-the-counter megavitamins might
experience
a. a cure from Parkinson disease.
b. the return of Parkinson symptoms.
c. improved health and well-being.
d. a resistance to viral infections
B
49
A patient who has been diagnosed with Parkinson disease for many
years and whose symptoms were controlled using Sinemet has
started to exhibit increasing signs of the disease. Possible treatment
might include
a. an increased exercise program.
b. adding iron to the person’s diet.
c. combination therapy with an anticholinergic drug.
d. changes in diet to eliminate vitamin B6.
C
50
lower area of the brain, associated with coordination of
unconscious muscle movements that involve movement and position
basal ganglia
51
lower portion of the brain, associated with coordination of
muscle movements, including voluntary motion, as well as
extrapyramidal control of unconscious muscle movement
cerebellum:
52
cells from the cortex and subcortical areas,
including the basal ganglia and the cerebellum, which coordinate
unconsciously controlled muscle activity; allows the body to make
automatic adjustments in posture or position and balance
extrapyramidal tract:
53
simple reflex arcs that involve sensory receptors in
the periphery that respond to stretch and spinal motor nerves and cause
muscle fiber contraction: Responsible for maintaining muscle tone and
keeping an upright position against the pull of gravity
gamma loop system:
54
state of excessive muscle response and activity
hypertonia:
55
neuron in the CNS that communicates with other neurons,
not with muscles or glands
interneuron:
56
fibers within the CNS that control precise, intentional
movement
pyramidal tract
57
sustained muscle contractions
spasticity:
58
A muscle spasm often results from
a. damage to the basal ganglia.
b. CNS damage.
c. injury to the musculoskeletal system.
d. chemical imbalance within the CNS.
C
59
Muscle spasticity is the result of
a. direct damage to a muscle cell.
b. overstretching of a muscle.
c. tearing of a ligament.
d. damage to neurons within the CNS
D
60
Signs and symptoms of tetanus, which include severe muscle spasm,
are best treated with
a. baclofen.
b. diazepam.
c. carisoprodol.
d. methocarbamol.
B
61
The drug of choice for a patient experiencing severe muscle spasms
and pain precipitated by anxiety is
a. methocarbamol.
b. baclofen.
c. diazepam.
d. carisoprodol.
C
62
Dantrolene (Dantrium) differs from the other skeletal muscle
relaxants because
a. it acts in the highest levels of the CNS.
b. it is used to treat muscle spasms as well as muscle spasticity.
c. it cannot be used to treat neuromuscular disorders.
d. it acts directly within the skeletal muscle fiber and not within the
CNS.
D
63
The use of neuromuscular junction blockers may sometimes cause a
condition known as malignant hyperthermia. The drug of choice for
prevention or treatment of this condition is
a. baclofen.
b. diazepam.
c. dantrolene.
d. methocarbamol.
C
64
Dantrolene is associated with potentially fatal cellular damage. If
your patient’s condition is being managed with dantrolene, the
patient should
a. have repeated complete blood counts during therapy.
b. have renal function tests done monthly.
c. be monitored for signs of liver damage and have liver function
tests done regularly.
d. have a thorough eye examination before and periodically during
therapy
C
65
large-diameter nerve fibers that carry peripheral impulses
associated with touch and temperature to the spinal cord
A fibers
66
small-diameter nerve fibers that carry peripheral impulses
associated with pain to the spinal cord
A-delta fibers:
67
unmyelinated, slow-conducting fibers that carry peripheral
impulses associated with pain to the spinal cord
C fibers:
68
drug that causes a vascular constriction in the brain and
the periphery; relieves or prevents migraine headaches but is associated
with many adverse effects
ergot derivative
69
theory that states that the transmission of a nerve
impulse can be modulated at various points along its path by
descending fibers from the brain that close the “gate” and block
transmission of pain information and by A fibers that are able to block
transmission in the dorsal horn by closing the gate for transmission for
the A-delta and C fibers
gate control theory:
70
headache characterized by severe, unilateral,
pulsating head pain associated with systemic effects, including
gastrointestinal (GI) upset and sensitization to light and sound; related
to a hyperperfusion of the brain from arterial dilation
migraine headache:
71
drugs originally derived from opium that react with specific
opioid receptors throughout the body
narcotics
72
: drugs that react at opioid receptor sites to stimulate the
effects of the receptors
narcotic agonists:
73
drugs that react at some opioid receptor
sites to stimulate their activity and at other opioid receptor sites to
block activity
narcotic agonists–antagonists:
74
: drugs that block the opioid receptor sites; used to
counteract the effects of narcotics or to treat an overdose of narcotics
narcotic antagonists
75
receptor sites on nerves that react with endorphins and
enkephalins, which are receptive to narcotic drugs
opioid receptors:
76
sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or
potential tissue damage
pain:
77
nerve pathway from the spine to the thalamus along
which pain impulses are carried to the brain
spinothalamic tract:
78
selective serotonin receptor blocker that causes a vascular
constriction of cranial vessels; used to treat acute migraine attacks
triptan
79
According to the gate control theory, pain
a. is caused by gates in the CNS.
b. can be blocked or intensified by gates in the CNS.
c. is caused by gates in peripheral nerve sensors.
d. cannot be affected by learned experiences.
B
80
Opioid receptors are found throughout the body
a. only in people who have become addicted to opiates.
b. in increasing numbers with chronic pain conditions.
c. to incorporate pain perception and blocking.
d. to initiate the release of endorphins.
C
81
Most narcotics are controlled substances because they
a. are very expensive..
b. can cause respiratory depression.
c. can be addictive.
d. can be used only in a hospital setting
C
82
Injecting a narcotic into an area of the body that is chilled can be
dangerous because
a. an abscess will form.
b. the injection will be very painful.
c. an excessive amount may be absorbed all at once.
d. narcotics are inactivated in cold temperatures.
C
83
Proper administration of an ordered narcotic
a. can lead to addiction.
b. should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need
for larger doses.
c. would include holding the drug as long as possible until the
patient really needs it.
d. should rely on the patient’s request for medication.
B
84
Migraine headaches
a. occur during sleep and involve sweating and eye pain.
b. occur with stress and feel like a dull band around the entire head.
c. often occur when drinking coffee.
d. are throbbing headaches on one side of the head
D
85
The triptans are a class of drugs that bind to selective serotonin
receptor sites and cause
a. cranial vascular dilation.
b. cranial vascular constriction.
c. clinical depression.
d. nausea and vomiting.
B
86
The only triptan that has been approved for use in treating cluster
headaches as well as migraines is
a. naratriptan.
b. rizatriptan.
c. sumatriptan.
d. zolmitriptan.
C
87
loss of memory of an event or procedure
amnesia
88
loss of pain sensation
analgesia:
89
drug used to cause complete or partial loss of sensation
anesthetic:
90
use of several different types of drugs to achieve
the quickest, most effective anesthesia with the fewest adverse effects
balanced anesthesia:
91
use of drugs to induce a loss of consciousness,
amnesia, analgesia, and loss of reflexes to allow performance of
painful surgical procedures
general anesthesia:
92
time from the beginning of anesthesia until achievement of
surgical anesthesia
induction
93
use of powerful nerve blockers that prevent
depolarization of nerve membranes, blocking the transmission of pain
stimuli and, in some cases, motor activity
local anesthesia
94
the period from stage 3 until the surgical procedure is
complete
maintenance:
95
enzyme found in plasma that immediately breaks down
ester-type local anesthetics
plasma esterase:
96
the period from discontinuation of the anesthetic until the
patient has regained consciousness, movement, and the ability to
communicate
recovery:
97
loss of awareness of one’s surroundings
unconsciousness:
98
liquid that is unstable at room temperature and releases
vapors; used as an inhaled general anesthetic, usually in the form of a
halogenated hydrocarbon
volatile liquid:
99
The most dangerous period for many patients undergoing general
anesthesia is during which stage?
a. Stage 1, when communication becomes difficult
b. Stage 2, when systemic stimulation occurs
c. Stage 3, when skeletal muscles relax
d. There is no real danger during general anesthesia
B
100
Recovery after a general anesthetic refers to the period of time
a. from the beginning of anesthesia until the patient is ready for
surgery.
b. during the surgery when anesthesia is maintained at a certain
level.
c. from discontinuation of the anesthetic until the patient has
regained consciousness, movement, and the ability to
communicate.
d. when the patient is in the most danger of CNS depression
C
101
While a patient is receiving a general anesthetic, he or she must be
continually monitored because
a. the patient has no pain sensation.
b. generalized CNS depression affects all body functions.
c. the patient cannot move.
d. the patient cannot communicate.
B
102
The nursing instructor determines that teaching about general
anesthetics was successful when the students identify which person
as being most qualified to administer general anesthetics?
a. Nursing supervisor
b. Graduate nurse
c. Trained physician
d. Surgeon
C
103
Local anesthetics are used to block feeling in specific body areas. If
given in increasing concentrations, local anesthetics can cause loss
in the following order:
a. Temperature sensation, touch sensation, proprioception, and
skeletal muscle tone
b. Touch sensation, skeletal muscle tone, temperature sensation,
and proprioception
c. Proprioception, skeletal muscle tone, touch sensation, and
temperature sensation
d. Skeletal muscle tone, touch sensation, temperature sensation,
and proprioception
A
104
area on the muscle cell membrane where
acetylcholine (ACh) reacts with a specific receptor site to cause
stimulation of the muscle in response to nerve activity
acetylcholine receptor site:
105
stimulation of a
muscle cell, causing it to contract with no allowance for repolarization
and restimulation of the muscle; characterized by contraction and then
paralysis
depolarizing neuromuscular junction (NMJ) blocker:
106
reaction to some NMJ drugs in susceptible
individuals; characterized by extreme muscle rigidity, severe
hyperpyrexia, acidosis, and in some cases death
malignant hyperthermia:
107
the synapse between a nerve and a
muscle cell
neuromuscular junction (NMJ):
108
no
stimulation or depolarization of the muscle cell; prevents
depolarization and stimulation by blocking the effects of acetylcholine
nondepolarizing neuromuscular junction (NMJ) blocker:
109
lack of muscle function
paralysis
110
functional unit of a muscle cell, composed of actin and
myosin molecules arranged in layers to give the unit a striped or
striated appearance
sarcomere
111
theory explaining muscle contraction as a
reaction of actin and myosin molecules when they are freed to react by
the inactivation of troponin after calcium is allowed to enter the cell
during depolarization
sliding filament theory:
112
Nondepolarizing NMJ blockers
a. antagonize ACh to prevent depolarization of muscle cells.
b. act as agonists of ACh, leading to depolarization of muscle cells.
c. prevent the repolarization of muscle cells.
d. are associated with painful muscle contractions on
administration.
A
113
Curare is used as a poison on arrow tips in some cultures. Curare
a. is a depolarizing NMJ blocker.
b. causes muscle paralysis in the brain.
c. is not affected by cooking.
d. has no clinical use today
C
114
Succinylcholine has a more rapid onset of action and a shorter
duration of activity than the nondepolarizing NMJ blockers because
it
a. does not bind well to receptor sites.
b. rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier and is lost.
c. is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the
plasma.
d. is very unstable.
C
115
When planning the care of a patient who is to receive an NMJ
blocker, the nurse would expect which about the patient?
a. Transfer to an intensive care unit would be essential.
b. Intubation would be necessary to maintain respirations.
c. He would have no memory of any events.
d. No adverse effects would occur after the drug is stopped.
B
116
Malignant hyperthermia can occur with any NMJ blocker, but it
most often occurs with succinylcholine. The nurse would expect to
see which drug ordered?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Pancuronium
c. Dantrolene
d. Diazepam
C
117
Patient recovery from an NMJ blocker
a. is predictable based on the drug given.
b. can be affected by genetic enzyme deficiency.
c. can always be ensured because of the drug half-life.
d. can be shortened by administration of oxygen.
B
118
When preparing NMJ blockers for administration, it is important that
they
a. are not mixed in with any alkaline solutions.
b. are not exposed to light.
c. are not mixed with any other drug.
d. are not mixed with heparin.
A
119
enzyme responsible for the immediate breakdown
of acetylcholine when released from the nerve ending; prevents
overstimulation of cholinergic receptor sites
acetylcholinesterase:
120
receptor sites on effectors that respond to
norepinephrine/epinephrine
adrenergic receptors:
121
adrenergic receptors that are found in smooth muscles
alpha-receptors
122
portion of the central and peripheral nervous
systems that, with the endocrine system, functions to maintain internal
homeostasis
autonomic nervous system:
123
adrenergic receptors that are found in the heart, lungs,
and vascular smooth muscle
beta-receptors:
124
receptor sites on effectors that respond to
acetylcholine
cholinergic receptors:
125
groups of closely packed nerve cell bodies
ganglia
126
enzyme that breaks down norepinephrine,
dopamine, and serotonin to make them inactive
monoamine oxidase:
127
cholinergic receptors that also respond to
stimulation by muscarine
muscarinic receptors:
128
cholinergic receptors that also respond to stimulation
by nicotine
nicotinic receptors:
129
“rest-and-digest” response
parasympathetic nervous system
130
“fight-or-flight” response mediator
sympathetic nervous system:
131
When describing the functions of the ANS, which would the
instructor include?
a. Maintenance of balance and posture
b. Maintenance of the special senses
c. Regulation of integrated internal body functions
d. Coordination of peripheral and central nerve pathways
C
132
The ANS differs from other systems in the CNS in that it
a. uses only peripheral pathways.
b. affects organs and muscles via a two-neuron system.
c. uses a unique one-neuron system.
d. bypasses the CNS in all of its actions.
B
133
If you suspect that a person is very stressed and is experiencing a
sympathetic stress reaction, you would expect to find
a. increased bowel sounds and urinary output.
b. constricted pupils and warm, flushed skin.
c. slow heart rate and decreased systolic blood pressure.
d. dilated pupils and elevated systolic blood pressure.
D
134
The nurse determines that the beta2-receptors in the SNS have been
stimulated by which finding?
a. Increased heart rate
b. Increased myocardial contraction
c. Bronchial dilation
d. Uterine contraction
C
135
Once a postganglionic receptor site has been stimulated, the
neurotransmitter must be broken down immediately. The
sympathetic system breaks down postganglionic neurotransmitters
by using
a. liver enzymes and acetylcholinesterase.
b. acetylcholinesterase and MAO.
c. COMT and liver enzymes.
d. MAO and COMT.
B
136
The parasympathetic nervous system, in most situations, opposes the
actions of the SNS, allowing the ANS to
a. generally have no effect.
b. maintain a fine control over internal homeostasis.
c. promote digestion.
d. respond to stress most effectively
B
137
Cholinergic neurons, those using ACh as their neurotransmitter,
would be least likely to be found in
a. motor nerves on skeletal muscles.
b. preganglionic nerves in the sympathetic and parasympathetic
systems.
c. postganglionic nerves in the parasympathetic system.
d. the adrenal medulla
D
138
Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would cause
a. slower heart rate and increased GI secretions.
b. faster heart rate and urinary retention.
c. vasoconstriction and bronchial dilation.
d. pupil dilation and muscle paralysis.
A
139
a drug that stimulates the adrenergic receptors of the
sympathetic nervous system, either directly (by reacting with receptor
sites) or indirectly (by increasing norepinephrine levels)
adrenergic agonist:
140
specifically stimulating to the alpha-receptors within the
sympathetic nervous system, causing body responses seen when the
alpha-receptors are stimulated
specifically stimulating to the alpha-receptors within the
sympathetic nervous system, causing body responses seen when the
alpha-receptors are stimulated
141
specifically stimulating to the beta-receptors within the
sympathetic nervous system, causing body responses seen when the
beta-receptors are stimulated
beta-agonist:
142
breakdown of stored glucose to increase the blood
glucose levels
glycogenolysis:
143
drug that mimics the sympathetic nervous system
(SNS) with the signs and symptoms seen when the SNS is stimulated
sympathomimetic:
144
The instructor determines that teaching about adrenergic drugs has
been successful when the class identifies the drugs as also being
called
a. sympatholytic agents.
b. cholinergic agents.
c. sympathomimetic agents.
d. anticholinergic agents.
C
145
The adrenergic agent of choice for treating the signs and symptoms
of allergic rhinitis is
a. norepinephrine.
b. phenylephrine.
c. dobutamine.
d. dopamine.
B
146
An adrenergic agent being used to treat shock infiltrates into the
tissue with IV administration. Which action by the nurse would be
most appropriate?
a. Watch the area for any signs of necrosis, and report it to the
physician.
b. Notify the physician, and decrease the rate of infusion.
c. Remove the IV, and prepare phentolamine for administration to
the area.
d. Apply ice, and elevate the arm.
C
147
Phenylephrine, an alpha-specific agonist, is found in many cold and
allergy preparations. The nurse instructs the patient to be alert for
which adverse effects?
a. Urinary retention and pupil constriction
b. Hypotension and slow heart rate
c. Personality changes and increased appetite
d. Cardiac arrhythmias and difficulty urinating
D
148
Adverse effects associated with adrenergic agonists are related to the
generalized stimulation of the SNS and could include
a. slowed heart rate.
b. constriction of the pupils.
c. hypertension.
d. increased GI secretions.
C
149
A patient has elected to take an OTC cold preparation that contains
phenylephrine. The nurse would advise the patient not to take that
drug if the patient has
a. thyroid or CV disease.
b. a cough and runny nose.
c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
d. hypotension.
A
150
a drug’s affinity for only adrenergic
receptor sites; certain drugs may have specific affinity for only alphaor only beta-adrenergic receptor sites
adrenergic receptor–site specificity:
151
drugs that block the
postsynaptic alpha1-receptor sites
alpha1-selective adrenergic blocking agents:
152
drugs that, at therapeutic levels,
selectively block the beta-receptors of the sympathetic nervous system
beta-adrenergic blocking agents:
153
drugs that, at therapeutic
levels, specifically block the beta1-receptors in the sympathetic
nervous system while not blocking the beta2-receptors and resultant
effects on the respiratory system
beta1-selective adrenergic blocking agents
154
relaxation of the muscles in the bronchi, resulting in a
widening of the bronchi; an effect of sympathetic stimulation
bronchodilation:
155
a tumor of the chromaffin cells of the adrenal
medulla that periodically releases large amounts of norepinephrine and
epinephrine into the system with resultant severe hypertension and
tachycardia
pheochromocytoma:
156
a drug that lyses, or blocks, the effects of the sympathetic
nervous system
sympatholytic:
157
Adrenergic blocking drugs, because of their clinical effects, are also
known as
a. anticholinergics.
b. sympathomimetics.
c. parasympatholytics.
d. sympatholytics.
D
158
The nurse would anticipate administering drugs that generally block
all adrenergic receptor sites to treat
a. allergic rhinitis.
b. COPD.
c. cardiac-related conditions.
d. premature labor.
C
159
Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker, is most
frequently used
a. to prevent cell death after extravasation of intravenous dopamine
or norepinephrine.
b. to treat COPD in patients with hypertension or arrhythmias.
c. to treat hypertension and BPH in male patients.
d. to block bronchoconstriction during acute asthma attacks
A
160
A patient with which conditions would most likely be prescribed an
alpha1-selective adrenergic blocking agent?
a. COPD and hypotension
b. Hypertension and BPH
c. Erectile dysfunction and hypotension
d. Shock states and bronchospasm
B
161
The beta-blocker of choice for a patient who is hypertensive and has
angina is
a. nadolol.
b. propranolol.
c. timolol.
d. carteolol.
A
162
A nurse would question an order for beta1-selective adrenergic
blocker for a patient with
a. cardiac arrhythmias.
b. hypertension.
c. cardiogenic shock.
d. open-angle glaucoma.
C
163
A smoker who is being treated for hypertension with a beta-blocker
is most likely receiving
a. a nonspecific beta-blocker.
b. an alpha1-specific beta-blocker.
c. beta- and alpha-blockers.
d. a beta1-specific blocker.
D
164
You would caution a patient who is taking an adrenergic blocker
a. to avoid exposure to infection.
b. to stop the drug if he or she experiences flu-like symptoms.
c. that it can be dangerous to stop the drug abruptly.
d. to avoid exposure to the sun.
C
165
enzyme responsible for the immediate breakdown
of acetylcholine when released from the nerve ending; prevents
overstimulation of cholinergic receptor sites
acetylcholinesterase
166
degenerative disease of the cortex with loss of
acetylcholine-producing cells and cholinergic receptors; characterized
by progressive dementia
Alzheimer disease:
167
responding to acetylcholine; refers to receptor sites
stimulated by acetylcholine as well as neurons that release
acetylcholine
cholinergic agonists
168
constriction of the pupil; relieves intraocular pressure in some
types of glaucoma
miosis:
169
autoimmune disease characterized by antibodies to
cholinergic receptor sites leading to destruction of the receptor sites
and decreased response at the neuromuscular junction; it is progressive
and debilitating, leading to paralysis
myasthenia gravis
170
irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used in warfare to
cause paralysis and death by prolonged muscle contraction and
parasympathetic crisis
nerve gas:
171
mimicking the effects of the parasympathetic
nervous system leading to bradycardia, hypotension, pupil constriction,
increased gastrointestinal secretions and activity, increased bladder
tone, relaxation of sphincters, and bronchoconstriction
parasympathomimetic:
172
Indirect-acting cholinergic agents
a. react with acetylcholine receptor sites on the membranes of
effector cells.
b. react chemically with acetylcholinesterase to increase
acetylcholine concentrations.
c. are used to increase bladder tone and urinary excretion.
d. should be given with food to slow absorption.
B
173
A patient is to receive pilocarpine. The nurse understands that this
drug would be most likely used to treat which of the following?
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Neurogenic bladder
c. Sjögren disease dry mouth
d. Alzheimer disease
C
174
Myasthenia gravis is treated with indirect-acting cholinergic agents
that
a. lead to accumulation of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft.
b. block the GI effects of the disease, allowing for absorption.
c. directly stimulate the remaining acetylcholine receptors.
d. can be given only by injection because of problems associated
with swallowing.
A
175
A patient with myasthenia gravis is no longer able to swallow.
Which of the following would the nurse expect the physician to
order?
a. Rivastigmine
b. Memantine
c. Pyridostigmine
d. Edrophonium
C
176
Alzheimer disease is marked by a progressive loss of memory and is
associated with
a. degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the basal ganglia.
b. loss of acetylcholine-producing neurons and their target neurons
in the CNS.
c. loss of acetylcholine receptor sites in the parasympathetic
nervous system.
d. increased levels of acetylcholinesterase in the CNS.
B
177
The nurse would expect to administer donepezil to a patient with
Alzheimer disease who
a. cannot remember family members’ names.
b. is mildly inhibited and can still follow medical dosing regimens.
c. is able to carry on normal activities of daily living.
d. has memory problems and would benefit from once-a-day
dosing.
D
178
Adverse effects associated with the use of cholinergic drugs include
a. constipation and insomnia.
b. diarrhea and urinary urgency.
c. tachycardia and hypertension.
d. dry mouth and tachycardia
B
179
Nerve gas is an irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that can
cause muscle paralysis and death. An antidote to such an agent is
a. atropine.
b. propranolol.
c. pralidoxime.
d. neostigmine
A
180
drug that opposes the effects of acetylcholine at
acetylcholine receptor sites
anticholinergic:
181
a plant that contains atropine as an alkaloid; used to dilate the
pupils as a fashion statement in the past; used in herbal medicine much
as atropine is used today
belladonna:
182
inability of the lens in the eye to accommodate to near
vision, causing blurring and inability to see near objects
cycloplegia
183
relaxation of the muscles around the pupil, leading to pupil
dilation
mydriasis
184
relaxation of the muscles around the pupil, leading to pupil
dilation
parasympatholytic:
185
Anticholinergic drugs are used
a. to allow the sympathetic system to become more dominant.
b. to block the parasympathetic system, which is commonly
hyperactive.
c. as the drugs of choice for treating ulcers.
d. to stimulate GI activity.
A
186
Atropine and scopolamine work by blocking
a. nicotinic receptors only.
b. muscarinic and nicotinic receptors.
c. muscarinic receptors only.
d. adrenergic receptors to allow cholinergic receptors to dominate.
C
187
Which of the following suggestions would the nurse make to help a
patient who is receiving an anticholinergic agent reduce the risks
associated with decreased sweating?
a. Covering the head and using sunscreen
b. Ensuring hydration and temperature control
c. Changing position slowly and protecting from the sun
d. Monitoring for difficulty swallowing and breathing
B
188
Which of the following would the nurse be least likely to include
when developing a teaching plan for a patient who is receiving an
anticholinergic agent?
a. Encouraging the patient to void before dosing
b. Setting up a bowel program to deal with constipation
c. Encouraging the patient to use sugarless lozenges to combat dry
mouth
d. Performing exercises to increase the heart rate
D
189
lobe of the pituitary gland that produces stimulating
hormones as well as growth hormone, prolactin, and melanocytestimulating hormone
anterior pituitary:
190
response of the hypothalamus and then the pituitary and
adrenals to wakefulness, sleeping, and light exposure
diurnal rhythm:
191
organized groups of specialized cells that secrete hormones, or
chemical messengers, directly into the bloodstream to communicate
within the body
glands
192
chemical messengers working within the endocrine system to
communicate within the body
hormones:
193
interconnection of the hypothalamus and
pituitary gland to regulate levels of certain endocrine hormones
through a complex series of negative feedback systems
hypothalamic–pituitary axis
194
“master gland” of the neuroendocrine system; regulates
both nervous and endocrine responses to internal and external stimuli
hypothalamus:
195
control system in which increasing levels of a
hormone lead to decreased levels of releasing and stimulating
hormones, leading to decreased hormone levels, which stimulates the
release of releasing and stimulating hormones; allows tight control of
the endocrine system
negative feedback system
196
the combination of the nervous and endocrine
systems, which work closely together to maintain regulatory control
and homeostasis in the body
neuroendocrine system
197
gland found in the sella turcica of the brain; produces
hormones, endorphins, and enkephalins and stores two hypothalamic
hormones
pituitary gland:
198
lobe of the pituitary that receives antidiuretic
hormone and oxytocin via nerve axons from the hypothalamus and
stores them to be released when stimulated by the hypothalamus
posterior pituitary:
199
chemicals released by the hypothalamus
into the anterior pituitary to stimulate the release of anterior pituitary
hormones
releasing hormones or factors
200
Which of the following best describes aldosterone?
a. It causes the loss of sodium and water from the renal tubules.
b. It is under direct hormonal control from the hypothalamus.
c. It is released into the bloodstream in response to angiotensin I.
d. It is released into the bloodstream in response to high potassium
levels.
D
201
When explaining the role of ADH to a group of students, which fact
would the instructor include?.
a. It is produced by the anterior pituitary.
b. It causes the retention of water by the kidneys.
c. It is released by the hypothalamus.
d. It causes the retention of sodium by the kidneys.
B
202
The endocrine glands
a. form part of the communication system of the body.
b. cannot be stimulated by hormones circulating in the blood.
c. cannot be viewed as integrating centers of reflex arcs.
d. are only controlled by the hypothalamus.
A
203
The hypothalamus maintains internal homeostasis and could be
considered the master endocrine gland because
a. it releases stimulating hormones that cause endocrine glands to
produce their hormones.
b. no hormone-releasing gland responds unless stimulated by the
hypothalamus.
c. it secretes releasing hormones that are an important part of the
HPA.
d. it regulates temperature control and arousal as well as hormone
release
A
204
The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
a. secretes a number of stimulating hormones.
b. produces endorphins to modulate pain perception.
c. has no function that has yet been identified.
d. stores ADH and oxytocin, which are produced in the
hypothalamus
D
205
After teaching a group of students about the negative feedback
system, identification of which of the following as an example
would indicate that the students have understood the teaching?
a. Growth hormone control
b. Prolactin control
c. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone control
d. Thyroid hormone control
D
206
Internal body homeostasis and communication are regulated by
a. the cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
b. the nervous and cardiovascular systems.
c. the endocrine and nervous systems.
d. the endocrine and cardiovascular systems.
C
207
thickening of bony surfaces in response to excess growth
hormone after the epiphyseal plates have closed
acromegaly
208
condition resulting from a lack of antidiuretic
hormone, which results in the production of copious amounts of
glucose-free urine
diabetes insipidus
209
small stature, resulting from lack of growth hormone in
children
dwarfism:
210
response to excess levels of growth hormone before the
epiphyseal plates close; heights of 7 to 8 ft are not uncommon
gigantism
211
lack of adequate function of the pituitary; reflected in
many endocrine disorders
hypopituitarism:
212
Hypothalamic hormones are normally present in small amounts.
When used therapeutically, their main indication is
a. diagnosis of endocrine disorders and treatment of specific
cancers.
b. treatment of multiple endocrine disorders.
c. treatment of CNS-related abnormalities.
d. treatment of autoimmune-related problems.
A
213
Somatropin (Nutropin and others) is a genetically engineered GH
that is used
a. to diagnose hypothalamic failure.
b. to treat precocious puberty.
c. in the treatment of children with growth failure.
d. to stimulate pituitary response
C
214
GH deficiencies
a. occur only in children.
b. always result in dwarfism.
c. are treated only in children because GH is usually produced only
until puberty.
d. can occur in adults as well as children.
D
215
Patients who are receiving GH replacement therapy must be
monitored closely. Routine follow-up examinations would include
a. a bowel program to deal with constipation.
b. tests of thyroid function and glucose tolerance.
c. a calorie check to control weight gain.
d. tests of adrenal hormone levels.
B
216
Acromegaly and gigantism are both conditions related to excessive
secretion of
a. thyroid hormone.
b. melanin-stimulating hormone.
c. growth hormone.
d. oxytocin
C
217
Diabetes insipidus is a relatively rare disease characterized by
a. excessive secretion of ADH.
b. renal damage.
c. the production of large amounts of dilute urine containing no
glucose.
d. insufficient pancreatic activity.
C
218
Treatment with ADH preparations is associated with adverse effects,
including
a. constipation and paralytic ileus.
b. cholecystitis and bile obstruction.
c. nocturia and bedwetting.
d. “hangover” symptoms, including headache, sweating, and
tremors.
D
219
A patient who is receiving an ADH preparation for diabetes
insipidus may need instruction in administering the drug
a. PO or IM.
b. PO or intranasally.
c. PR or PO.
d. intranasally or by dermal patch
B
220
outer layer of the adrenal gland; produces glucocorticoids
and mineralocorticoids in response to adrenocorticotropic hormone
(ACTH) stimulation; also responds to sympathetic stimulation
adrenal cortex
221
inner layer of the adrenal gland; a sympathetic
ganglion, it releases norepinephrine and epinephrine into circulation in
response to sympathetic stimulation
adrenal medulla:
222
steroid hormones produced by the adrenal cortex; include
androgens, glucocorticoids, and mineralocorticoids
corticosteroids
223
response of the hypothalamus and then the pituitary and
adrenals to wakefulness and sleeping; normally, the hypothalamus
begins secretion of corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF) in the evening,
diurnal rhythm:
224
steroid hormones released from the adrenal cortex; they
increase blood glucose levels, fat deposits, and protein breakdown for
energy
glucocorticoids
225
steroid hormones released by the adrenal cortex; they
cause sodium and water retention and potassium excretion
mineralocorticoids
226
Adrenocortical agents are widely used
a. to cure chronic inflammatory disorders.
b. for short-term treatment to relieve inflammation.
c. for long-term treatment of chronic disorders.
d. to relieve minor aches and pains and to make people feel better.
B
227
If a nurse was asked to explain the adrenal medulla to a patient, it
would be appropriate for him or her to tell that patient that it
a. is the outer core of the adrenal gland.
b. is the site of production of aldosterone and corticosteroids.
c. is actually a neural ganglion of the SNS.
d. consists of three layers of cells that produce different hormones
c. is actually a neural ganglion of the SNS.
228
Glucocorticoids are hormones that
a. are released in response to high glucose levels.
b. help regulate electrolyte levels.
c. help regulate water balance in the body.
d. promote the preservation of energy through increased glucose
levels, protein breakdown, and fat formation.
d. promote the preservation of energy through increased glucose levels, protein breakdown, and fat formation.
229
Diurnal rhythm in a person with a regular sleep cycle would show
a. high levels of ACTH during the night while sleeping.
b. rising levels of corticosteroids throughout the day.
c. peak levels of ACTH and corticosteroids early in the morning.
d. hypothalamic stimulation to release CRH around noon
c. peak levels of ACTH and corticosteroids early in the morning.
230
Patients who have been receiving corticosteroid therapy for a
prolonged period and suddenly stop the drug will experience an
adrenal crisis because their adrenal glands will not be producing any
adrenal hormones. Your assessment of a patient for the possibility of
adrenal crisis may include
a. physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift.
b. acne development and hypertension.
c. water retention and increased speed of healing.
d. hyperglycemia and water retention.
a. physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift.
231
A patient is started on a regimen of prednisone because of a crisis in
her ulcerative colitis. Nursing care of this patient would need to
include
a. immunizations to prevent infections.
b. increased calories to deal with metabolic changes.
c. fluid restriction to decrease water retention.
d. administration of the drug around 8 or 9 AM to mimic normal
diurnal rhythm.
d. administration of the drug around 8 or 9 AM to mimic normal diurnal rhythm.
232
A patient who is taking corticosteroids is at increased risk for
infection and should
a. be protected from exposure to infections and invasive
procedures.
b. take antiinflammatory agents regularly throughout the day.
c. receive live virus vaccine to protect him or her from infection.
d. be at no risk if elective surgery is needed.
a. be protected from exposure to infections and invasive procedures
233
Mineralocorticoids are used to maintain electrolyte balance in
situations of adrenal insufficiency. Mineralocorticoids
a. are usually given alone.
b. can be given only IV.
c. are always given in conjunction with appropriate glucocorticoids.
d. are separate in their function from the glucocorticoids
c. are always given in conjunction with appropriate glucocorticoids.
234
drugs used to block bone resorption and lower serum
calcium levels in several conditions
bisphosphonates:
235
hormone produced by the parafollicular cells of the thyroid;
counteracts the effects of parathyroid hormone to maintain calcium
levels
calcitonin
236
lack of thyroid hormone in an infant; if untreated, leads to
mental retardation
cretinism:
237
structural unit of the thyroid gland; cells arranged in a circle
follicles
238
excessive calcium levels in the blood
hypercalcemia
239
excessive parathormone
hyperparathyroidism:
240
excessive levels of thyroid hormone
hyperthyroidism
241
calcium deficiency
hypocalcemia
242
: rare condition of absence of parathormone; may be
seen after thyroidectomy
hypoparathyroidism
243
lack of sufficient thyroid hormone to maintain
metabolism
hypothyroidism
244
important dietary element used by the thyroid gland to produce
thyroid hormone
iodine
245
: a synthetic salt of thyroxine (T4), a thyroid hormone; the
most frequently used replacement hormone for treating thyroid disease
levothyroxine
246
the l-isomer of triiodothyronine (T3) and the most potent
thyroid hormone, with a short half-life of 12 hours
liothyronine:
247
rate at which the cells burn energy
metabolism
248
severe lack of thyroid hormone in adults
myxedema:
249
a genetically linked disorder of overactive osteoclasts that
are eventually replaced by enlarged and softened bony structures
paget disease
250
hormone produced by the parathyroid glands; responsible
for maintaining calcium levels in conjunction with calcitonin
parathormone:
251
condition in which dropping levels of
estrogen allow calcium to be pulled out of the bone, resulting in a
weakened and honeycombed bone structure
postmenopausal osteoporosis
252
drugs used to prevent the formation of thyroid hormone in
the thyroid cells, lowering thyroid hormone levels
thioamides
253
a thyroid hormone that is converted to triiodothyronine in the
tissues; it has a half-life of 1 week
thyroxine:
254
The thyroid gland produces the thyroid hormones triiodothyronine
(T3) and tetraiodothyronine (T4), which are dependent on the
availability of
a. iodine produced in the liver.
b. iodine found in the diet.
c. iron absorbed from the GI tract.
d. PTH to promote iodine binding
b. iodine found in the diet.
255
The thyroid gland is dependent on the hypothalamic–pituitary axis
for regulation. Increasing the levels of thyroid hormone (by taking
replacement thyroid hormone) would
a. increase hypothalamic release of TRH.
b. increase pituitary release of TSH.
c. suppress hypothalamic release of TRH.
d. stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more T3 and T4.
c. suppress hypothalamic release of TRH.
256
Goiter, or enlargement of the thyroid gland, is usually associated
with
a. hypothyroidism.
b. iodine deficiency.
c. hyperthyroidism.
d. underactive thyroid tissue.
b. iodine deficiency.
257
Thyroid replacement therapy is indicated for the treatment of
a. obesity.
b. myxedema.
c. Graves disease.
d. Cushing disease.
b. myxedema.
258
Assessing a patient’s knowledge of his or her thyroid replacement
therapy would show good understanding if the patient stated,
a. “My wife may use some of my drug since she wants to lose
weight.”
b. “I should only need this drug for about 3 months.”
c. “I can stop taking this drug as soon as I feel like my old self.”
d. “I should call if I experience unusual sweating, weight gain, or
chills and fever.”
d. “I should call if I experience unusual sweating, weight gain, or chills and fever.”
259
Administration of propylthiouracil would include giving the drug
a. once a day in the morning.
b. around the clock to assure therapeutic levels.
c. once a day at bedtime to decrease adverse effects.
d. if the patient is experiencing slow heart rate, skin rash, or
excessive bleeding.
b. around the clock to assure therapeutic levels.
260
The parathyroid glands produce PTH, which is important in the body
as
a. a modulator of thyroid hormone.
b. a regulator of potassium.
c. a regulator of calcium.
d. an activator of vitamin D.
c. a regulator of calcium.
261
Which should NOT be used for the treatment of postmenopausal
osteoporosis?
a. risedronate
b. alendronate
c. zoledronic acid
d. parathyroid hormone
d. parathyroid hormone
262
Currently, the medical management of diabetes mellitus is aimed at
a. controlling caloric intake.
b. increasing exercise levels.
c. regulating blood glucose levels.
d. decreasing fluid loss.
c. regulating blood glucose levels.
263
The HbA1c blood test is a good measure of overall glucose control
because
a. it reflects the level of glucose after a meal.
b. fasting for 8 hours before the test ensures accuracy.
c. it reflects a 3-month average glucose level in the body.
d. the test can be affected by the glucose challenge.
c. it reflects a 3-month average glucose level in the body.
264
A patient with hyperglycemia will often present with
a. polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia.
b. polycythemia, polyuria, and polyphagia.
c. polyadenitis, polyuria, and polydipsia.
d. polydipsia, polycythemia, and polyarteritis.
a. polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia.
265
The long-term alterations in fat, carbohydrate, and protein
metabolism associated with diabetes mellitus result in
a. obesity.
b. thickening of the capillary basement membrane.
c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
d. lactose intolerance.
b. thickening of the capillary basement membrane.
266
Insulin is available in several forms or suspensions, which differ in
their
a. effects on the pancreas.
b. onsets and durations of action.
c. means of administration.
d. tendencies to cause adverse effects.
b. onsets and durations of action
267
Which would be the first choice for a newly diagnosed client with
diabetes mellitus type II who does not have any other health
problems?
a. Canagliflozin
b. Liraglutide
c. Pioglitazone
d. Metformin
d. Metformin
268
Miglitol differs from the sulfonylureas in that it
a. greatly stimulates pancreatic insulin release.
b. greatly increases the sensitivity of insulin receptor sites.
c. delays the absorption of glucose, leading to lower glucose levels.
d. cannot be used in combination with other antidiabetic agents
c. delays the absorption of glucose, leading to lower glucose levels.
269
Teaching subjects for the patient with diabetes should include
a. diet and exercise changes that are needed.
b. the importance of avoiding exercise and eating one meal a day.
c. protection from exposure to any infection and avoiding tiring
activities.
d. avoiding pregnancy and taking hygiene measures.
a. diet and exercise changes that are needed
270
hormone produced by adipocytes that acts to increase
insulin sensitivity, decrease the release of glucose from liver, and
protect the blood vessels from inflammatory changes
adiponectin:
271
a metabolic disorder characterized by high blood
glucose levels and altered metabolism of proteins and fats; associated
with thickening of the basement membrane, leading to numerous
complications
diabetes mellitus
272
enzyme that quickly metabolizes
glucagon-like polypeptide-1
dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4):
273
receptors found in the adipose tissue,
muscles, liver, satiety center, and gastrointestinal (GI) tract that are part
of a signaling system within the body to keep the body in a state of
energy gain
endocannabinoid receptors:
274
a peptide produced in the GI tract
in response to carbohydrates that increases insulin release, decreases
glucagon release, slows GI emptying, and stimulates the satiety center
in the brain
glucagon-like polypeptide-1 (GLP-1):
275
storage form of glucose; can be broken down for rapid glucose
level increases during times of stress
glycogen
276
presence of glucose in the urine
glycosuria:
277
a blood glucose marker that provides a 3-
month average of blood glucose levels
glycosylated hemoglobin
278
elevated blood glucose levels leading to multiple signs
and symptoms and abnormal metabolic pathways
hyperglycemia:
279
lower-than-normal blood sugar; o
hypoglycemia
280
peptides that are produced in the GI tract in response to food
that help modulate insulin and glucagon activity
incretins:
281
hormone produced by the beta cells in the pancreas; stimulates
insulin receptor sites to move glucose into the cells; promotes storage
of fat and glucose in the body
insulin
282
breakdown of fats for energy, resulting in an increase in ketones
to be excreted from the body
ketosis
283
increased thirst
polydipsia
284
increased hunger;
polyphagia
285
oral antidiabetic agents used to stimulate the pancreas to
release more insulin
sulfonylureas:
