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Jared's paradise > Nutri midterm > Flashcards

Nutri midterm Flashcards

1
Q

initiates drinking behavior.

A

the hypothalamus

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2
Q

on the other hand, is rare but can occur with excessive water consumption and
kidney disorders that reduce urine production.

A

Water intoxication,

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3
Q

stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb water rather than excrete it.

A

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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4
Q

Water excretion is regulated by the

A

brain and the kidneys.

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5
Q

The body must excrete a minimum of about ____milliliters (about 1⁄2 quart) each day as
urine—enough to carry away the waste products generated by a day’s metabolic activities.

A

500

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6
Q

depends on a certain minimum amount of physical activity or exercise.

A

fitness

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7
Q

activity in which the body’s large muscles move in a rhythmic
manner for a sustained period of time.

A

Aerobic physical activity:

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8
Q

also called endurance activity, improves
cardiorespiratory fitness.

A

Aerobic activity,

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9
Q

physical activity that requires some increase in
breathing and/or heart rate and expends 3.5 to 7 kcalories per minute.

A

Moderate-intensity physical activity

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10
Q

physical activity that requires a large increase in
breathing and/or heart rate and expends more than 7 kcalories per minute.

A

Vigorous-intensity physical activity:

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11
Q

allows the joints to move freely, reducing the risk of injury.

A

Flexibility

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12
Q

supports the ongoing activity of the heart and lungs.

A

Cardiorespiratory endurance

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13
Q

enable muscles to work harder and longer without fatigue.

A

Muscle strength
and muscle endurance

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14
Q

improves as physical activity supports lean body tissues and reduces excess body fat.

A

Body
composition

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15
Q

is the most potent single predictor of the infant’s future health and survival.

A

weight gain during
pregnancy

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16
Q

likely to be large for gestational age,

A

Infants born to obese women

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17
Q

is both a supply depot and a waste-removal system for the fetus.

A

The placenta

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18
Q

is the pipeline from the placenta to the fetus.

A

The umbilical cord

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19
Q

surrounds and
cradles the fetus, cushioning it with fluids.

A

amniotic sac

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20
Q

The newly fertilized ovum is called a

A

zygote

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21
Q

the blastocyst floats down into the uterus, where it will embed itself
in the inner uterine wall—a process known as

A

implantation

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22
Q

the pregnant woman needs
no additional energy, but as pregnancy progresses, her energy needs rise.

A

first trimester,

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23
Q

She requires an additional
340 kcalories daily

A

during the second trimester

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24
Q

and an extra 450 kcalories each day during the

A

third trimester.

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25
Q

is
necessary to fuel the fetal brain and spare the protein needed for fetal growth.

A

Ample carbohydrate

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26
Q

is often prescribed for a short period after surgery to
give your GI tract a rest. The diet consists of clear juices, broth, popsicles, gelatin, and tea.
Coffee may be allowed with your physician’s approval.

A

Clear Liquid Diet-

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27
Q

is prescribed after surgery as a transition from clear liquids
to a regular diet. This diet includes all the foods on a clear liquid diet plus the addition of dairy
products such as: milk, yogurt, pudding, and smooth cream soups.

A

Full Liquid Diet-

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28
Q

, sometimes called the “house diet” consists of normal foods
similar to home. Our “Regular” diet follows the Dietary Guidelines for Americans and is
moderate in salt, sugar, and fat.

A

The regular diet

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29
Q

is sometimes called the Low fat, Low Cholesterol diet. The diet
consists of foods which are low in saturated fat, cholesterol and salt. Whole grains and
abundant vegetables and fruit, lean meat,

A

The Cardiac diet

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30
Q

is low in sugar and fat. The diet is designed to keep blood
glucose (sugar) levels under control. Many sugar free items are offered. The Diet Aide will
modify your selections based on the calorie level prescribed for you.

A

The Diabetic diet

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31
Q

diet is prescribed for people who have high blood
pressure, pneumonia, kidney disease, or who retain water.

A

The Low Sodium

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32
Q

serves as a transition from liquids to a regular diet for individuals who are
recovering from surgery or a long illness.

A

The soft diet

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33
Q

It gets its name from the fact that
household tools and machines, like a blender, meat grinder, or knife, are used to make foods
easier to chew and swallow.

A

Mechanical Soft Diet

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34
Q

easily digested and leave no undigested residue in your intestinal tract.

A

Clear liquid diet

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35
Q

is made up only of fluids and foods that are normally liquid and foods that turn to
liquid when they are at room temperature, like ice cream.

A

Full liquid diet

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36
Q

diet if you have mouth or throat problems or if your jaw is wired.

A

Blenderized Diet

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37
Q

After stomach surgery, some patients may have what is commonly known as _____

A

dumping
syndrome.

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38
Q

∙ Occurs 15 to 30 minutes after eating
∙ Caused by rapid entry of food into the small intestine

A

Early Dumping Phase

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39
Q

Occurs 90 minutes to 3 hours after eating
∙ Caused by a rapid rise in blood sugar and then a rapid decrease in blood sugar

A

Late Dumping Phase

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40
Q

is a disorder that damages your small intestine and keeps it from absorbing
the nutrients in food.

A

Celiac disease

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41
Q

is a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.

A

gluten

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42
Q

is the only treatment if you’ve been diagnosed with celiac disease.

A

A gluten-free diet

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43
Q

generally means not eating most grains, pasta, cereals,
and processed foods.

A

A gluten-free diet

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44
Q

Inflammation of liver, resulting from damage to liver tissue
* Cause often infection with specific viruses (A, B, C)
* Usual transmission

A

HEPATITIS

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45
Q

most active organ in body

A

Liver—

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46
Q

Most common of liver disorders

A

I. Fatty Liver & Hepatitis

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47
Q

Accumulation of fat in liver tissue; represents imbalance between fat synthesized from the
blood & the amount exported to the blood via VLDL

A

Fatty Liver

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48
Q

End-stage condition resulting from chronic liver disease

A

Cirrhosis

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49
Q

When your pancreas becomes swollen or inflamed, it cannot perform its function. This
condition is called .

A

pancreatitis

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50
Q

A deficiency of retardation. — Is one of the world’s most common preventable causes
of mental
a. zinc
b. lodine
c. selenium
d.magnesium

A

b. lodine

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51
Q

Which mineral is critical to keeping the heartbeat steady and plays a major role in
maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance?
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Magnesium

A

c. Potassium

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52
Q

Which of the following characteristics is not a component of fitness?
a. Muscle endurance”
b. Conditioning
c. Flexibility
d. Muscle strength

A

d. Muscle strength

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53
Q

The levels of this macronutrient in the body are most depleted after a day of fasting or
into starvation:
a. Amino acids
b.Glycogen
c. Triglycerides
d. Fatty acids

A

b.Glycogen

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54
Q

Which of the following is one of the functions of Vitamin E?
A. Anti-inflammatory
b. Antidiuretic
c. Antimicrobial
D. Antioxidant

A

D. Antioxidant

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55
Q

Low sodium diet is recommended in advanced liver stages to treat:
a. Ascites
b. Beriberi
c. Congestive heart failure
d.Coma

A

a. Ascites

56
Q

Which of the following groups of water soluble vitamins are synthesized by gut bacteria?
A. Choline and B12
b. B2 and B12
c. B6 and B12

A

c. B6 and B12

57
Q

Which of the following carries triglycerides synthesized from the liver?
A. Chylomicrons
B. HDL
C. LDL
D. VLDL

A

A. Chylomicrons

58
Q

All of the following are indicators of fiuid requirement, except:
A. Nitrogen balance B. Blood pressure
C. Body temperature D.Dehydration

A

A. Nitrogen balance

59
Q

This is how excess carbohydrate intake leads to obesity.
* The pancreas is stimulated to produce more lipase, leading to more fat to digest & absorb
* The pancreas is stimulated to release more glucagon, leading to fat deposition
* Excess carbohydrates stimulate the release of ghrelin, leading to increased food intake
* Excess carbohydrates are readily converted to triglycerides in the body

A
  • Excess carbohydrates are readily converted to triglycerides in the body
60
Q

Which of the following questions might lead to administration of parenteral nutrition?
A. Is the GI tract functional?
B.Is intake grossly deficient?
C. Can the patient eat normally?
D. Can the patient tolerate nutrients well?

A

B.Is intake grossly deficient?

61
Q

Which of the following is the most significant factor in the development of type 2
diabetes mellitus?
A. alcoholism
b. Smoking
c. Stress
d.Obesity
e.High BP

A

d.Obesity

62
Q

Where is ghrelin produced?
A. Small intestines
B. Pancreas
C. Stomach
D. None of the

A

C. Stomach

63
Q

What is the second step in moving a nutrient through the GI tract?
A. Ingestion
B. Digestion
C. Absorption
D. Utilization

A

B. Digestion

64
Q

Which of the following is true about Diabetes Mellitus Type 1?
A. Insulin resistance
C. Decreased risk of diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Insulin dependence
D. Insulin insensitivity

A

A. Insulin resistance

65
Q

After the body has been fasting for some time, which of the following is used to
provide the fuel the brain requires?
A. Glycerol
B. . Amino acids
C. Ketones
D. FATTY ACIDS

A

C. Ketones

66
Q

What is/are the effects of electrolyte imbalance?
A. Disturbed acid-base balance
B. Bulimia nervosa
C. Sudden heart failure
D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

67
Q

What happens to the excess amino acids when the body’s protein and energy are
met.
A. Stored as protein
B.Stored as fat
C. Excreted in feces

A

B.Stored as fat

68
Q

What is the largest part of the small intestine?
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Colon

A

C. Ileum

69
Q

This is the lifestyle factor that has the most significant on ones vitamin C
requirements?
a. Alcoholism
b. Smoking with conrad

A

b. Smoking with conrad

70
Q

Which of the following has the highest vit C content?
A.Milk
B. Beef
C.Green pepper
D.Eggs

A

C.Green pepper

71
Q

Which of the following is a function of sodium?
A. It serves as an antioxidant
B. It maintains water balance
C. It is crucial in hematopolesis
D. It serves as a cofactor of metalloenzymes

A

D. It serves as a cofactor of metalloenzymes

72
Q

Water-soluble vitamins function in:
A. Red blood cell production or cell replication
B. Energy metabolism
C. All or the abov

A

C. All or the above

73
Q

Who are at risk of electrolyte imbalances?
A. Children w/ SAM
B. CKD patients
C. Bulimic patients
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

74
Q

Which of the following exemplifies an improper use of supplements?
A. Use of folic acid supplements for a woman who might get pregnant
B. Use of vit C supplements for an Individual with healthy immunity
C.Use of a multivitamin supplement for an individual who follows a low-calorie diet
D. Use of vit B12 supplements for a vegan

A

B. Use of vit C supplements for an Individual with healthy immunity

75
Q

Olive oil contains what particular type of fatty acid?
A. Polyunsaturated fat
B. Omega-3 fat
C. Omega-6 fat
D. Omega-9 fa

A

D. Omega-9 fat

76
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of kidneys?
A. Create hormones
B. Filter the blood
C. Excrete Urea
D. Conserve bicarbonates if there is metabolic alkalosis
E. None

A

E. None

77
Q

What two systems coordinate and control all digestive/absorptive processes?
A. Muscular and nervous
B. Muscular and endocrine
C. Nervous and endocrine
D. Nervous and cardiovascular

A

C. Nervous and endocrine

78
Q

What nutrients would most likely be deficient in an alcoholic patient?
A. Calcium and vitamin C
B. Folate and fiber
C. Omega-3 and fiber
D. Thiamin and folate

A

D. Thiamin and folate

79
Q

What is the deficiency disease of calcium called in adults?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Tetany
C. Osteomalacia
D. Rickets

A

C. Osteomalacia

80
Q

Physical active young especially those who are endurance athletes are prone to:
a. energy excess.
b. Iron deficiency
c. protein overload.
d. iodine deficiency

A

b. Iron deficiency

81
Q

During pregnancy, the combination of high blood pressure and protein in the urine
signals:
a. jaundice
b. preeclampsia.
c. gestational diabetes.
d. gestational hypertension.

A

b. preeclampsia.

82
Q

A pre milk substance containing mostly serum with antibodies and white blood cells,
a. Colostrum
b. Pasteurized milk.
c. Skimmed milk

A

a. Colostrum

83
Q

In what month do you begin to give iron-fortified cereal mixed with breast milk,
formula, or water to an infant?
a. 2 - 3 months
b. 8 - 9 months
c. 10 - 12 months
d. 4 - 6 months

A

d. 4 - 6 months

84
Q

The two nutrients that are usually lacking in a adolescents’ diets are:
a. Zinc and fat
b. Iron and calcium.
c. protein and thiamin.
d. vitamin A

A

b. Iron and calcium

85
Q

Which of the following describes the body’s initial reaction to absorbing large
amounts of carbohydrates?
A. Breakdown of glycogen
B. Breakdown of body fat
C. Production and storage of glycogen

A

C. Production and storage of glycogen

86
Q

Abnormal immune response to a food by the body believing it is hazardous
a. Food allergy
B. Food poisoning

A

a. Food allergy

87
Q

What characteristic(s) do vitamins D and K have in common?
A. Both are produced in the body
B.. Neither has no relation w/ blood function
C. Both function in normal vision
D. Neither has no relation w/ bone function

A

A. Both are produced in the body

88
Q

Which of the following is rich in omega 3 fats?
A Cream
B. Coconut oil
D. Fish oil

A

D. Fish oil

89
Q

Which of the following is a rich source of vitamin D2
A. Milk
B. Liver
C. Mushrooms
D. None of the above

A

C. Mushrooms

90
Q

Hyperglycemia is a risk factor for:
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Fractures
C. Gallstones
D. Poor wound healing

A

D. Poor wound healing

91
Q

Which of the following is not an important function of stomach acid in digestion and
absorption of nutrients?
A. It activates pepsin
B. It destroys pathogenic bacteria
C. It helps in the hydrolysis of proteins
D. It activates pancreatic enzymes

A

D. It activates pancreatic enzymes

92
Q

In glycogen storage diseases which sign is shared across all types?
A. hyperglycemia
B. Hypertension
C. Hypotension
D. Hypoglycemia

A

D. Hypoglycemia

93
Q

. Within 24 hours of ICU admission, COVID-19 patients should be initiated with
A. Enteral feeding
B. Parenteral feeding
C. Transpyloric feeding
D. Supplemental PN

A

A. Enteral feeding

94
Q

A nurse notices food on a patient’s tray and is not sure if the food is allowed on the
patient’s diet. An appropriate action for the nurse to take would be to check the:
a. diet manual.
b. diet order.
c. nutrition care plan.
d. medical record.

A

b. diet order.

95
Q

Mr. Segobre experiences loss of appetite, difficulty swallowing, and mouth pain as a
consequence of illness. Mr. Segobre is at risk of malnutrition due to:
A. altered metabolism.
B. reduced food intake.
c. altered excretion of nutrients.
d. altered digestion and absorption.

A

B. reduced food intake.

96
Q

Examples of medication-related symptoms that can significantly limit food intake
include:
a. ringing in the ears.
b. persistent nausea and vomiting.
c. Insomnia
d. skin rash.

A

b. persistent nausea and vomiting.

97
Q

Medications that reduce stomach acidity, Can impair the absorption of:
a. fat-soluble vitamins.
B. thiamin and riboflavin.
c. sodium and potassium,
D. vitamin B12, folate, and iron.

A

D. vitamin B12, folate, and iron.

98
Q

Adverse drug effects are most likely when:
a. multiple medications are used drugs.
c. patients begin using a new medication.
b. generic drugs are substituted for brand-name
d. medications are taken for just one or two days.

A

a. multiple medications are used drugs.

99
Q

Most benign Spread by oral fecal contact
a. Hepatitis D
c. Hepatitis A
d. Hepatitis D

A

c. Hepatitis A

100
Q

Spread by blood or sex, attacks the RNA.
a. Hepatitis E
b. Hepatitis C
c. Hepatitis A
d. Hepatitis D

A

b. Hepatitis C

101
Q

Formally called serum hepatitis: H
a. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis A
d. Hepatitis D

A

a. Hepatitis B

102
Q

Also known as Hepa delta Virus
a. Hepatitis C
b. Hepatitis E
d. Hepatitis D

A

d. Hepatitis D

103
Q

Spread through oral fetal contact
a. Hepatitis D
b. Hepatitis E
c. Hepatitis A

A

b. Hepatitis E

104
Q

Chronic irreversible degenerative replacement of normal liver cells with non
functioning scar tissue called hobnail liver.
a. Hepatitis D
b. cirrhosis
c. Liver cancer
d. Hepatitis D

A

b. cirrhosis

105
Q

Primary and benign tumors are rare; men are five times more likely to develop,
usually discovered late or at the end stage, confirmed by biopsy treatment chemotherapy
surgery radiation.
a. Hepatitis D
b. cirrhosis
c. Liver cancer
d. Hepatitis D

A

c. Liver cancer

106
Q

. A hormone responsible for milk production during pregnancy and after birth. It is also
secreted during and after next fproduce the next feed.
a. oxytocin
b.Prolactin
C. Serotonin
D. Adrenaline

A

b.Prolactin

107
Q

. All of the following in breastfeeding is correct, except.
a. Protects mothers’ health
C.Helps bonding and development
D.Mothers will transmit illness to their baby.

A

D.Mothers will transmit illness to their baby

108
Q

It is the special breast milk that women produce in the first few days after delivery. It
is thick, and yellowish or clear in color. It contains more protein than later milk.
a. Casein
B. Prolactin

A

a. Casein

109
Q

What nutrient is found in dark-green leaves and yellow-coloured fruits and vegetables
that help a child to have healthy eyes and fewer infections?a
a.Iron
b.Vitamin A
c.Vitamin K d.
D. Vitamin D

A

b.Vitamin A

110
Q

It means giving other foods in addition to breast milk starting at 6 months of age
a.Dietary supplementation
c.Complementary feeding

A

c.Complementary feeding

111
Q

The days from conception to childbirth
a, 270’
C. 280
d. 290

A

C. 280

112
Q

A diet with a fat-free broth
a. Soft Diet
b. Full liquid diet
c. Clear Liquid Diet
d. test meals

A

c. Clear Liquid Diet

113
Q

The term gluten usually refers to the elastic network of wheat grains protein.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

114
Q

Poor child feeding during first 2 years of life harms growth and brain development.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

115
Q

An infant aged 6 up to 9 months needs to eat at least 2 times a day in addition to
breastfeeding.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

116
Q

pregnant women need to eat 1 more meal per day than usual.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

117
Q

At 4 months, infants need water and other drinks in addition to breast milk.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

118
Q

Giving information alone to a mother on how to feed her child is effective in changing
her infant feeding practices.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

119
Q

A woman who is malnourished can still produce enough good quality breast milk for
her baby
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

120
Q

Excessive alcohol consumption is primary cause of liver disease
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

121
Q

The mother of a sick child should wait until her child is healthy before giving him/her
solid foods.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

122
Q

At six months,the first food a baby takes should have the texture of breast milk so
that the young baby can swallow it easily.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

123
Q

. During the first six months, a baby living in a hot climate needs water in addition to
breast milk.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

124
Q

A young child (aged 6 up to 24 months) should not be given animal foods such as
eggs and meat.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

B. FALSE

125
Q

A newborn baby should always be given colostrum.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

126
Q

If you have pancreatitis, u should limit, red meat, organ meats, fries and potato chips
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A. TRUE

127
Q

Men play an important role in how infants and young children are fed.
A.TRUE
B. FALSE

A

A.TRUE

128
Q

9-12 or more glasses of water per day ____

A

B. adult male

129
Q

¾ - 1 cup of cooked noodles ____

A

c adolescence

130
Q

¾ - 1 cup cooked rice ____

A

b. adult

131
Q

½ - 1 small chicken ____

A

d. children

132
Q

Non fat milk ____

A

a. Older person

133
Q

Used of herbs for seasoning ____

A

b. Adult male

134
Q

Sugar free products ___

A

a older person

135
Q

Unsaturated butter ____

A

C. adolescence

136
Q

Low Sodium canned fish ___

A

low sodium diet

Jared's paradise (9 decks)

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