Pharma- indications and MOA

Question 1

Active against PRSPs

Answer 1

Ceftriaxone, cefotaxime

Question 2

ADH antagonist tetracycline

Answer 2

Demeclocycline

Question 3

AML M3 treatment

Answer 3

Retinoic acid

Question 4

Anaerobes above the diaphragm

Answer 4

Clindamycin (static, 50S)

Question 5

Anaerobes below the diaphragm

Answer 5

Metronidazole (disulfiram rxn, metallic taste)

Question 6

Anti-liver schizonts

Answer 6

Primaquine

Question 7

Anti-sense DNA (for CMV)

Answer 7

Fomivirsin

Question 8

Atypical antipsychotic

Answer 8

Clozapine (D4 and 5-HT2 selective), Olanzapine (5-HT2)

Question 9

AV nodal arrhythmias

Answer 9

Adenosine

Question 10

Biliary excretion (beta-lactams)

Answer 10

Cefoperazone, Ceftriaxone, Nafcillin

Question 11

Cestodes

Answer 11

Praziquantel and niclosamide

Question 12

Chagas disease

Answer 12

Nifurtimox

Question 13

Chronic heart failure

Answer 13

Labetalol, carvedilol, metoprolol

Question 14

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

Answer 14

Imatinib (Gleevec)

Question 15

Claudication

Answer 15

Cilostazol

Question 16

CMV retinitis

Answer 16

Ganciclovir

Question 17

Cysticercosis

Answer 17

Albendazole, praziquantel

Question 18

Decreases post-op ileus

Answer 18

Erythromycin, Ketorolac

Question 19

Depletes magnesium

Answer 19

Amphotericin, AGs, Foscarnet, Cisplatin, Ifosfamide

Question 20

Derma steroid of choice (oral)

Answer 20

Prednisone

Question 21

Not dialyzable

Answer 21

Amphotericin B, cefonicid, cefoperazone, ceftriaxone, erythromycin, nafcillin, tetracycline, vancomycin

Question 22

Disulfiram-like reaction

Answer 22

Metronidazole, TMP-SMX, cefotetan, cefoperazone, cefamandone, 1st-gen sulfonylureas

Question 23

Dissociative anesthesia

Answer 23

Ketamine

Question 24

Elective bowel surgery

Answer 24

Neomycin and erythromycin

Question 25

Eschar treatment

Answer 25

Mafenide acetate

Question 26

Exacerbate psoriasis

Answer 26

Beta-blockers, lithium, ACE inhibitors

Question 27

Gynecomastia

Answer 27

Spironolactone, Digitalis, Cimetidine, Alcohol, Ketoconazole, Furosemide, Diazepam, Verapamil, MJ

Question 28

Hydatid disease

Answer 28

Albendazole

Question 29

Iodine-containing antiarrhythmic

Answer 29

Amiodarone

Question 30

Increase insulin secretion

Answer 30

B2 agonists

Question 31

Increase renin secretion

Answer 31

B1 agonists

Question 32

Leishmaniasis

Answer 32

Sodium stibogluconate

Question 33

Longest-acting B-blocker

Answer 33

Nadolol

Question 34

Mast cell degranulation blocker

Answer 34

Cromolyn sodium

Question 35

Mountain sickness

Answer 35

Acetazolamide

Question 36

Myasthenia gravis diagnosis

Answer 36

Edrophonium

Question 37

Nephrotoxic agent used in surgery

Answer 37

Furosemide (also AGs, vanco)

Question 38

Neutropenic nadir post-chemotherapy

Answer 38

7-10 days

Question 39

Onchocerciasis (river blindness)

Answer 39

Ivermectin

Question 40

Opioid with minimal histamine release

Answer 40

Fentanyl, remifentanil

Question 41

Parenteral NSAID

Answer 41

Ketorolac

Question 42

Partial _-agonists

Answer 42

Labetalol, pindolol, acebutolol

Question 43

Pneumocystis pneumonia

Answer 43

TMP-SMX

Question 44

Poxvirus inhibitor

Answer 44

Methisazone

Question 45

Quinine-resistant malaria

Answer 45

Artemesins (artesunate, artemether)

Question 46

[Most] S phase specific antimetabolite

Answer 46

Cytarabine

Question 47

Sildenafil interaction

Answer 47

Nitrates (may cause hypotension)

Question 48

�Stage-fright�

Answer 48

Propranolol

Question 49

Tamoxifen optimum treatment time

Answer 49

5 years

Question 50

TCA with H1/H2 blocking actions

Answer 50

Doxepin

Question 51

Thrombolytic toxicity (antidote)

Answer 51

Aminocaproic acid

Question 52

Topical steroid for face and intertriginous areas

Answer 52

Hydrocortisone acetate (low-potency)

Question 53

Urge incontinence

Answer 53

Oxybutyrin, metaproterenol

Question 54

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

Answer 54

Amiodarone, Flecainide