PHARM - Drugs for the Treatment of Hypertension - Week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What do diuretic drugs do?

A

Decreases plasma volume, which decreases TPR.

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2
Q

In what way do diuretics affect cardiac output (4)?

A

Lowers stroke volume by lowering preload.

This is done by lowering intravascular volume by affecting Na+/H2O retention

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3
Q

Name three factors that affect Na+/H2O retention, and the effect they have.

A

Sympathetic system - increase
Aldosterone - increase
ADH - increase

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4
Q

When are diuretics used in a hypertnesion treatment therapy?

A

Early strategy for hypertension management - after Na+ balance by dietary salt restriction.

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5
Q

What kind of drug is viable as a diuretic, and does this class have other effects?

A

Orally active thiazide diuretics - have antihypertensive effects alone, and enhance efficacy of all other hypertensive drugs.

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6
Q

What is the primary effect of a diuretic?

A

Decreases reabsorption of Na+ and Cl- from filtrate, increasing water loss, and increasing excretion of salt.
It decreases blood volume and therefore BP.

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7
Q

Where on a nephron do thiazide diuretics act?

A

Distal convoluted tubule.

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8
Q

Briefly describe in 2 steps the mechanism of Na+ reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, and how thiazides act here.

A

Na+ is absorbed apically by Na+/Cl- co-transporter (C3) down its concentration gradient.
It is pumped out basolaterally by Na+/K+-ATPase.
Thiazides inhibit C3, increasing Na+ secretion.

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9
Q

How do thiazides affect K+?

A

K+ loss may be significant because K+ excretion is regulated by Na+ reabsorption.

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10
Q

Name 4 adverse effects of thiazides, and their mechanisms.

A
  • Uric acid retention (gout) - uric acid excretion is decreased because thiazides compete for tubular secretion mechanisms
  • Impaired glucose tolerance - activation of Katp channels in pancreatic islet cells, inhibiting insulin secretion
  • Allergic reaction
  • Hypokalaemia (decreased K+)
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11
Q

In what case does K+ loss with diuretics cause problems?

A

If thiazides are co-administered with:

-cardiac glycosides/antidysrhythmic drugs whose toxicity is increased by low plasma K+

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12
Q

How does Na+ reabsorption affect K+ secretion?

A

Na+ reabsorption increases driving force for K+ secretion.

K+ loss increases when more Na+ reaches the collecting duct.

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13
Q

What effect do ACE inhibitors and AT1 receptor antagonists have on blood pressure, and how?

A

They decrease blood pressure by decreasing total peripheral resistance.

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14
Q

What is renin and what is its action?

A

An enzyme made and secreted by the kidney.

It converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.

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15
Q

What is angiotensinogen, and where is it made and secreted?

A

A globulin made and secreted by the liver.

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16
Q

What is ACE, where is it found (2), and what does it do?

A

An enzyme found 40% in lung endothelium, and 60% elsewhere.

It converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

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17
Q

What effect does angiotensin II have at the adrenal cortex?

A

Aldosterone production

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18
Q

What effect does angiotensin II have at the renal proximal tubule?

A

Increases NaCl reabsorption

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19
Q

What effect does angiotensin II have at the renal efferent arterioles?

A

Vasoconstriction to maintain GFR

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20
Q

What effect does angiotensin II have at systemic arterioles?

A

Vasoconstriction, increasing TPR

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21
Q

What effect does angiotensin II have at the hypothalamus?

A

Thirst, and increased ADH

22
Q

What effect does aldosterone have?

A

Increased renal NaCl reabsorption

23
Q

How many receptors for angiotensin II are there?

Where are they found (9)?

A

2 - AT1 and AT2
AT1 - vascular smooth muscle, myocardial tissue, adrenal cortex, kidney, and the brain
AT2 - adrenal medulla, kidney, brain, and foetus

24
Q

By which angiotensin II receptor are most of its known actions mediated by?

A

AT1

25
Q

What is renin made and secreted by?

A

The juxtaglomerular apparatus.

26
Q

Where are juxtaglomerular apparatus found?

A

Smooth muscle cells that line afferent and efferent arterioles of glomeruli

27
Q

What three factors increase renin release?

A

Fall in BP sense by afferent artioles
Sympathetic innervation of juxtaglomerular cells by B1 adrenoceptors
[Na+] decrease in the distal nephron lumen

28
Q

In addition to inhibitng ACE, what else do ACE inhibitors inhibit, and what effect does this have?

A

Inhibits bradykinin breakdown, which results in vasodilation, decreasing TPR, and therefore BP

29
Q

Give two examples of ACE inhibitors.

A

Captopril

Enalapril - better compliance due to 1 per day dose and less side effects

30
Q

Name 4 side effects of ACE inhibitors, and their mechanisms.

A

1st dose hypotension
Hyperkalaemia - less AngII, less aldosterone, and more K+ retention
Acute renal failure - in patients with renal artery stenosis
Dry cough - more bradykinin

31
Q

Describe two side effects of ACE inhibitors with sulfhydryl groups.

A

Altered/loss of taste

Rash

32
Q

Consider AT1 receptor antagonists. Do they affect bradykinin levels?

A

Noh

33
Q

Name three side effects of AT1 receptor antagonists.

A

1st dose hypotension
Hyperkalaemia - less AngII, less aldosterone, and more K+ retention
Acute renal failure - in patients with renal artery stenosis
No dry cough due to no change in bradykinin levels

34
Q

Name the four different types of voltage operated calcium channels.

A

L, N, P, and T

35
Q

How many subunits do voltage operated calcium channels have?

A

4

36
Q

What is the basis for using L-type Ca2+ channel antagonists to treat hypertension (3)?

A
  • BP increase is due to an increase in TPR
  • Vascular smooth muscle contraction is dependent on free [Ca2+]
  • Inhibition of transmembrane Ca2+ movement through L-type Ca2+ channels leads to decreased [Ca2+] and vascular smooth muscle vasodilation
37
Q

What effect do Ca2+ channel antagonists have at the SA node and AV node?

A

SA node - decreased automaticity

AV node - decreased conduction

38
Q

What effect do Ca2+ channel antagonists have at cardiac myocytes and coronary arteries (2 each)?

A

Cardiac myocytes - decreased afterload, decreased myocardial O2 demand
Coronary arteries - increased vasodilation, increased mycardial O2 supply

39
Q

What effect do Ca2+ channel antagonists have at peripheral arteries and veins (4)?

A

Arteries - Vasodilation, decreased afterload, increased myocardial O2 demand
Veins - minimal vasodilation

40
Q

In 5 steps, briefly describe the mechanism of action for Ca2+ channel antagonists.

A
  • Inhibit L-type Ca2+ channels
  • Decrease Ca2+ entry to vascular smooth muscle
  • Decrease cascular contractile tone
  • Decrease TPR - especially due to arteriolar dilation
  • Decrease BP
41
Q

Name the three classes of Ca2+ channel antagonists.

A

Dihydropyridines
Benzothiazepines
Phenylalkylamines

42
Q

Do Ca2+ channel antagonists affect preload?

A

Noh

43
Q

Do Ca2+ channel antagonists affect skeletal muscles? Why is this so?

A

Little effect, because the sarcoplasmic reticuli have Ca2+ pools.

44
Q

What is the preferred class of Ca2+ channel antagonist to treat hypertenstion and why?

A

Vascular-specific dihydropyridines as it lowers TPR

45
Q

Name 5 side effects of dihydropyridines.

A

Reflex tachycardia, palpitations, nausea, flushing, headache

46
Q

Name 2 side effects of benzothiazepines.

A

Bradycardia, AV block

47
Q

Name 2 side effects of phenylalkylamines.

A

Bradycardia, AV block

48
Q

Do AT1 receptor blockers target cardiac output or total peripheral resistance?

A

Cardiac output

49
Q

What percentage of patients will not respond adequately to hypertension treatment, and what is done in these cases?

A

Up to 50%, combination therapy is used.

50
Q

Name three general guidelines for combination therapy for treating hypertension.

A

Use drugs from different classes with complimentary actions
Aim for the least additive effects
Avoid combinations such as B-adrennoceptor antagonists and phenylalkylamines (compromises cardiac function)