Pharm autonomic drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Number of neurons in sequence in the sympathetic versus parasymp versus somatic nervous systems

A

For sympathetic, it is two neurons in sequence (Ach, then norepi). For parasymp, it is two neurons in seq (Ach, then Ach), and somatic is a single neuron (Ach) to skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is sympathetic to the sweat glands and sympathetic to the renal vasculature different from normal sympathetic innervation?

A

With normal, it is Ach then norepi; with sweat glands, it is Ach then Ach; for renal it is Ach then Dopamine receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ach receptors

A

Nicotinic Ach receptors are the first ones; muscarinic Ach receptors are the second ones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Nicotinic Ach receptors

A

ligand-gated Na+/K+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Muscarinic Ach receptors

A

G-protein coupled receptors that usually act through second messengers; 5 subtypes are M1, M2, M3, M4, and M5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

alpha 1 receptors

A

G protein class q; increase vascular smooth muscle contraction, increase pupillary dilator muscle contraction, increase intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

alpha 2 receptors

A

G protein class I; decreased sympathetic outflow, decrease insulin release, decrease lipolysis, increase platelet aggregation, decrease acqueous humor production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

beta 1 receptors

A

G protein class s; increase HR, increase contractiliy, increae renin release, increase lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

beta 2 receptor

A

G protein class s; vasodilation, bronchodilation, increase lipolysis, increase insulin release, decreaes uterine tone (tocolysis), ciliary muscle relaxation, increase acqueous humor production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

M1 parasymp receptor

A

G protein class q; CNS, enteric NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

M2 parasymp receptor

A

G protein class I; decrease HR and contractility of atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

M3 parasymp receptor

A

G protein class q; increase exocrine gland secretions, increase gut peristalsis, increase bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, increase pupillary sphincter muscle contraction (miosis), ciliary muscle contraction (accomodation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

D1 dopamine receptor

A

G protein class s; relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

D2 dopamine receptor

A

G protein class I; modulates transmitter release, esp in brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

H1 histamine receptor

A

G protein class q; increase nasal and bronchial mucus production, increase vascular permeability, contraction of bronchioles, pruritis, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

H2 histamine receptors

A

G protein class s; increase gastric acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vasopressin V1

A

G protein class q; increase vascular smooth muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vasopressin V2

A

G protein class s; increase water permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney (V2 is found in the 2 kidneys)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Way to remember the G protein class

A

Qiss and qiq until you’re siq of sqs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is Gq involved in the receptor pway?

A

Receptor activates Gq, which turns on phospholipase C, which leads to conversion of PIP2 into DAG and IP3; IP3 leads to increase in calcium into the cell and contraction of the smooth muscle; DAG activates protein kinase C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How are Gs and Gi involved in the receptor pway?

A

Gs turns on adenylate cyclase, whereas Gi inhib adenylyl cyclase; adenylyl cyclase converts ATP into cAMP, which activates protein kinase A, which increases calcium in the heart and inhibits myosin LCK in smooth muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do cholinergic neurons work?

A

The choline needs to get into the cell, get aceylated by Acetyl-co-A, which turns it into Ach, which gets packaged into the vesicle; Then when calcium gets into the cell, the vesicle can be released; Achesterase chomps up the Ach back into choline and acetate and the cycle continues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hemicholinum

A

inhibits the choline from getting into the neuron so that it cannot be made into Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Vesamicol

A

inhibits the Ach from being taken up into the vesicle in the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Botulinum

A

inhibits the release of the vesicle into the nerve terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do noradrenergic neurons work?

A

Tyrosine gets taken up into the cell, then converted to DOPA, which is converted to dopamine; dopamine gets into the vesicle, where it is converted to norepi; the norepi is released when release-modulating receptors on the surface of the cell (ATII,pro, and alpha 2, inhib) signal it to be released by the intake of calcium into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

metyrosine

A

inhibits convesion of tyrosine into DOPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Reserpine

A

inhibits the uptake of dopamine into the vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Bretylium, guanethidine

A

inhibits release of vesicle into the post-synaptic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cocaine, TCAs, amphetamine

A

inhibit the reuptake of norepi in the presynaptic neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

AT II receptor on the surface of the neuron

A

signals that the norepi vesicle should be released into the synapstic space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

alpha 2 recepotr

A

norepi acting on the alpha 2 receptor inhibits the release of the norepi into the synapse (negative feedback)

33
Q

Bethanecol

A

cholinomimetic direct agonist; used for post-op ileus, neurogenic ileus, urinary retention; activates bowel and bladder smooth muscle; resistant to Achesterase

34
Q

Carbachol

A

cholimimetic direct agonist; constricts pupil and relieves intraocular pressure in glaucoma; this is just like acetycholine

35
Q

Methacholine

A

cholimimetic direct agonist; used for challenge test for diagnosis of asthma; stimulates muscarinnic receptors in the airway when inhaled

36
Q

Pilocarpine

A

cholimimetic direct agonist; potent stumulator fo sweat, tears, and saliva; open angle and closed angle glaucoma; contracts ciliary muscle of eye (open-angle glaucoma), pupillary sphincter (closed angle glaucoma), resistant to AChE

37
Q

donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine

A

acetylcholinesterase inhib; used for alzheimer’s disease

38
Q

edrophonium

A

increase Ach; ued for dx of myasthenia gravis in the past; now MG is dx by anti-AChR Ab test

39
Q

neostigmine

A

increases Ach; postop and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, MG, reversal f NMJ blockade post-op; no CNS penetration; Neo=no

40
Q

physostigmine

A

used to treat anticholinergic toxicity, crosses BBB; “phyxes” atropine overdose

41
Q

pyridostigmine

A

used to treate MG (long acting); does not penetrate CNS

42
Q

what to be careful with the cholinergic agents

A

Exacerbation of COPD, asthma, and peptic ulcers when giving to susceptible patients

43
Q

cholinesterase inhib poisoning

A

results in too much Ach; often due to organophosphates, such as parathion that irreversibly inhibit AChE; causes DUMBBELSS diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, lacrimation, sweating, and salivation

44
Q

antidote for organophosphate poisoning

A

atropine (competitive inhib) with pralidoxime (regenerates AChEsterase if given early)

45
Q

atropine, homatropine, tropicamide

A

muscarinic antags that produce mydriasis and cycloplegia (i.e. affect the eye)

46
Q

benztropine

A

muscarinic antag that is used to treat parkinsons disease and acute dystonia

47
Q

glycopyrrolate

A

muscarinic antag that is used IV often pre-op to reduce airway secretions

48
Q

hyoscyamine, dicyclomine

A

muscarinic antag used as antispasmodic for IBS

49
Q

ipratropriu, tiotroprium

A

muscarinic antag used for COPD and asthma

50
Q

oxybutinin, solifenacin, tolterodine

A

muscarinic antag used to reduce bladder spasms and urge incontinence (overactive bladder)

51
Q

scopolamine

A

muscarinic antag used for motion sickness

52
Q

atropine

A

used to treat bradycardia and for opthalmic applications

53
Q

atropine’s effect on eye, airway, stomach, gut, bladder

A

increae pupil dilaton, cycloplegia, decrease airway secretions, decrease stomach acid, decrease motility in the gut, decrease urgency in cystitis

54
Q

Toxicity of atropine

A

increase body temp (due to decrease sweating), rapid pulse, dry mouth, dry, flushed skin, cycloplegia, constipation, disorientation; can cause acute angle-closure glaucoma in elderly (due to mydriasis), urinary retention in men with prostatic hyperplasia and hyperthermia in infants

55
Q

tetrodotoxin

A

Muscarinic antag; highly potent toxin that binds fast voltage gated Na channels in cardac and nerve tissue, preventing depol; causes nausea, diarrhea, paresthesias, weakness, dizziness, loss of reflexes, treatment is supportive; poisoning can result from poorly prepared puffer fish (Japan)

56
Q

Ciguatoxin

A

muscarinic antag; causes ciguatera fish poisoning; opens Na channels causing depol. Sx are like cholinergic poisoning: temp dyasthesia (cold feels hot and vice versa) is a spec finding; treatment is supportive

57
Q

scombroid poisoning

A

muscarinc antag; acute onset burning sensation in the mouth, flushing of face, erythema, urticaria, pruritis, HA. May cause anaphylaxis-like presentation; treat supportively with antihistamines or anti-anaphylactics; caused by eating dark meat fish improperly stored at room temp

58
Q

albuterol, salmeterol

A

B2 greater than B1 agonist; used for asthma or COPD control

59
Q

dobutamine

A

B1 greater than B2 and alpha; used in HF as an ionotrope more often then a chronotrope and in cardiac stress testing

60
Q

dopamine

A

D1 and D2, greater than beta, greater than alpha; used for unstable bradycardia, HF, shock; ionotropic and chronotropic alpha (?) effects predominate at high doses

61
Q

epinephrine

A

beta greater than alpha; used to treat anaphylaxis, asthma, open angle glaucoma; alpha effects predominate at high doses. Significantly stonger effect at beta 2 recepotr than norepi

62
Q

isopreterenol

A

b1 and b2; used for the electrophysiologic eval of tachyarrhythmias. Can worsen ischemia

63
Q

norepi

A

alpha 1 greater than alpha 2 greater than beta 1; used to treat hypotension (but decreases renal perfusion); signif weaker effect at beta 2 receptor than epi

64
Q

phenylephrine

A

alpha 1 greater than alpha 2; used to treat hypotension, used for ocular procedure (bc it is mydriatic), used to treat rhinitis

65
Q

amphetamine

A

indirect general sympathetic agonist bc it is a reuptake inhib, aso releases stored catecholamines; used to treat narcolepsy, obesity, ADHD

66
Q

cocaine

A

inidrect general sympathetic agonist; reuptake inhib; causes vasoconstriction and local anesthesia; never give beta blockers if cocaine intox is suspected because it can lead to unopposed alpha 1 activation and extreme HTN

67
Q

ephedrine

A

indirect general sympathetic agonist; releases stored catecholamines; used for nasal congestion, urinary incont, hypotension

68
Q

norepi versus isopreteronol

A

norepi increases systolic and diastolic pressures as a result of alpha 1 mediated vasoconstriction leading to incr mean arterial presure leading to relex bradycardia; isoproterenol has little allpha effect but causes b2 mediated vasodilation, resulting in decreased MAP and increased HR through B1 and reflex activity

69
Q

clonidine

A

alpha 2 agonist; used to hypertensive urgency, does nor decreae renal blood flow; also used for ADHD and Tourette’s; toxicity is CNS depression, bradycardia, hypotension, resp depression, miosis

70
Q

alpha methyldopa

A

alpha 2 agonist; used for HTN in pregnancy; toxicity has direct Coomb’s pos hemolysis, SLE-like syndrome

71
Q

phenoxybenzamine

A

irreversible nonselective alpha blockers; used to treat pheochromocytoma preop to prevent catecholamine crisis; can cause orthostatic hypotension, and reflex tachycardia

72
Q

Phentolamine

A

reversible non-selective alpha blocker used for patients on MAOis who eat tyramine containing foods; can, again, cause orthostatic hypotension, relfex tachycardia

73
Q

Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin

A

selective alpha 1 blocker; used for urinary sx of BPH, PTSD (prazosin), hypertension (except tamsulosin); side effects are orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, HA

74
Q

mirtazapine

A

selective alpha 2 blocker; used to treat depression; side effects are sedation, increased serum cholesterol, increase appetiite

75
Q

Effect of beta blockers (what are they used for clinically?)

A

used for angina to decrease HR and contractility, resulting in decreased oxygen consumption; used in SVT to decrease AV condution velocity (class II antiarrhythmics), HTN (decrease CO, decrease renin secretion), glaucoma (decr secretion of acqueous humor)

76
Q

toxicity of beta blockers

A

impotence, CV adverse effects (bradycardia, AV bock, HF), CNS adverse efffects (seizures, sedation, sleep alterations), dyslipidemia (metop), and asthma/COPD exacerbations

77
Q

Beta 1 selective antags

A

Acebutolol (partial agonist), atenolol, betaxolol, esmolol, metoprolol; mostly A-M (first half of alphabet)

78
Q

Nonselective beta antags

A

nadolol, pindolol, propranolol, timolol; mostly go from N to Z

79
Q

Nonselective alpha and beta antags

A

carvedilol, labetolol; “olol”