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(CBSE) All Subjects > Pharm > Flashcards

Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

What medication can shorten the course of influenza A and B if taken within 48 hrs? What is the MechOfAction?

A

OS-ELT-AM-IVIR (Tamiflu)..neuraminidase inhibition

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2
Q

What is the most common side effect of elderly patients and benzodiazapenes?

A

confusion! (insomnia is not an adverse effect)

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3
Q

What is an IRREVERSIBLE, long-acting, alpha-adrenergic BLOCKER that prevents peripheral vasoconstriction and is therefore used to resect a PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA which is spewing out EPI???

A

PHEN-OXY-BENZ-AMINE

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4
Q

Which CHEMO drug is notorious for causing TINNITUS and hearing loss??

A

Cis-Platin

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5
Q

What is a common antiemetic drug Rx’d to Pt’s on chemo?

A

ON-DAN-Set-Ron

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6
Q

Name that Chemo Drug based on its side effects: vertigo and psychosis

A

glucocorticoids (prednisone)

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7
Q

Name that Chemo Drug based on its side effects: alopecia, GI irritation and myelosupression

A

E-TOP-O-SIDE

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8
Q

Name that Chemo Drug based on its side effects: Alopecia, MYOCARDIAL DAMAGE, and myelosuppression

A

DOX-O-RUBICIN

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9
Q

Name that Chemo drug based on its side effects: myelosuppression and FATTY change in the liver

A

METH-o-TREX-ate

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10
Q

HEY, one of my pt’s is on this…What med can cause intersitial pneumontits (dyspnea, cough, dry inspiritory crackels)?

A

AMIDARONE (antiarythmic agent)

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11
Q

_______ and other anticoagulant agents can predispose patients to diffuse alveolar hemorrhage (DAH)

A

API-X-ABAN

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12
Q

What are the two main side effects of HydroxyChloroquine?

A

1.skin pigmentation changes and 2.retinopathy

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13
Q

LONG TERM prednisone use is associated with ________ syndrome

A

Cushing’s

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14
Q

The two main adverse effects of SOTALOL include:

A
  1. torsades de pointes 2.excessive beta blockade
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15
Q

What receptor in the stomach does MISO-PRO-STOL affect?

A

Prostaglandin E receptors

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16
Q

WHY do NSAIDS cause gastric ulcers???

A

NSAIDS block COX1. W/o COX 1 no prostaglandins are made. No prostaglandins = less MUCUS secretion in stomach

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17
Q

What is a good med to combat NSAID induced peptic ulcer?

A

Miso-Pro-Stol (no not miso soup, which is good for your stomach too :))

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18
Q

What are two examples of HISTAMINE blockers used to treat stomach acid?

A

Cim-et-IDINE and Ran-it-IDINE (get it!? the end in INE, like histamINE!!)

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19
Q

ASPIRIN-exacerbated airway disease: 10% of pt with asthma and is caused by DYSREGULATION of _________ metabolism due to __________ inhibition.

A

Arachidonic Acid metabolism…CycloOxygenase inhibition

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20
Q

IF you BLOCK COX 1,2 via Aspirin you can make more Leukotrienes via WHAT ENZYME???

A

5-LipOxyGenase

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21
Q

PLEASE NAME the progression of Membrane Phospholipids to Leukotrienes: Membrane Lipids—>________ enzyme—>_________ intermediate—->________enzyme—->Leukotrienes

A

Membrane PHOSPHOlipids—>PHOSPHOLIPASE A2—>Arachadonic Acid—>5-Lipoxygenase—>Leukotrienes

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22
Q

PLEASE NAME the progression from membrane phospholipids to PROSTAGLANDINS: Membrane phospholipids—>_________ enzyme—–>______intermediate—->_______ enzyme—->Prostaglandins

A

Membrane Phospholipids—>phospholipase A—>arachadonic acid—>cyclooxegenase 1 and 2—> Prostaglandins

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23
Q

What is a good med for aspirin-exacerbated airway disease?

A

montelukast (singulair)

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24
Q

After administration of Nitroglycerin for Angina, what happens to HR and End-Diastolic Left Ventricular Volume?

A

HR = INCREASE (no direct effect, but REFLEX tachycardia)…End-diastolic left ventricular Volume = decrease

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25
Q

What is the category of drug for indomethacin and what is it used for?

A

an NSAID…Prostaglandin E antagonist… INTERESTING: can be used to close a patent ductus arteriosis

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26
Q

the AntiTB drug Isoniazid can induce a pyridoxine deficiency…so vitamin ___ supplementation is required with this drug!

A

B6

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27
Q

_________ disease is caused by a defect in the branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex

A

MAPLE SYRUP URINE disease mmmmm

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28
Q

Severe flushing or diarrhea assoiciated with CARCINOID syndrome can be tx’d with _______, which is a _______ analog that functions by inhibiting the release of bioactive peptides by the carcinoid tumor

A

OCT-REO-TIDE…somatostatin

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29
Q

______ is a pretreatment useful in reducing cutaneous flushing in patients taking niacin

A

ASPIRIN

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30
Q

________ is a prodrug ANTIHISTAMINE associated with QT PROLONGATION in some patients!! (REMOVED FROM US MARKET)

A

TERF-EN-ADINE

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31
Q

PROPANOLOL is a _______ useful in DECREASING HR, BP, and myocardial contractility and myocardial oxygen demand

A

beta-blocker

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32
Q

_______ and all other SULFONYLUREA agents, REDUCE blood glucose levels primarily by stimulating insulin release from pancreatic beta cells

A

CHLOR-PROP-AMIDE

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33
Q

_________ competitively blocks ALPHA-ADGRENERGIC receptors, mitigating HTN caused by EPI and NorEpi. Useful in short-term tx of PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA-induced HTN

A

PHENTOLAMINE

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34
Q

Fungi such as CANDIDA are eukaryotes that have ______ genomes and chitinous cell walls impervious to penicillins.

A

DIPLOID

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35
Q

________ are small, OBLIGATE intracellular bacteria that have MULTIPLE copies of circular, PLASMID-like genomes

A

CHLAMYDIAE

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36
Q

What feature of Chlamydia is unique so that a certain antibiotic cannot treat it? What Antibiotic is this?

A

An unusual peptidoglycan wall impenetrable to PENICILLINS

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37
Q

Chlamydia has a rigid membrane due to its CYSTINE rich proteins that are connected by WHAT?

A

disulfide bonds

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38
Q

WHAT are oral ANTIDIABETIC medications that exert their glucose-lowering effects by decreasing insulin resistance?

A

THIAZO-LID-IN-ED-IONES

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39
Q

What are two examples of Thiazolidinediones?

A

Pio-Glit-aZONE and Rosi-Glit-aZONE

40
Q

What are the two mechanisms of action for Thiazolidnediones?

A

1.increase GLUT4’s 2.increase amount of adipocytes

41
Q

________ is a intestinal brush border alpha-gucosidase inhibitor that decreases postprandial hyperglycemia by reducing GI absorption of polymeric glucose

A

A-CARB-OSE

42
Q

_______ is a Na-glucose cotransporter-2 inhibitor that acts in the kidney to decrease reabsorption of filtered glucose

A

DAPA-GLIF-LOZIN

43
Q

________ (like GLYBURIDE) and ________ (like REPAGLINIDE) bind to an close ATP-sensitive K channels in the pancreatic beta cells. Increased Ca2+ = increased insulin release.

A

SUL-FONYL-UREAS and MEG-LIT-INIDES

44
Q

BUST OUT THE PENCIL AND PAPER: What are the 8 (YES 8) classes of meds/meds that are CYP450 INHIBITORS and therefore ENHANCE the effect of WARFARIN (increased bleeding risk)??

A

1.Acetaminophen/NSAIDS 2.Antibiotics/Antifungals 3.Ami-o-Darone (antiarrythmic) 4.Cim-et-idine 5.Cranberry juice/gingo/vit E 6.Omeprazole 7.Thyroid hormone 8. SSRIs

45
Q

BUST OUT THE PENCIL AN PAPER: What are the 7 classes of meds/meds that are CYP450 INDUCERS therefore DECREASING the effect of warfarin and can lead to clotting blood?

A

1.CarBamAZePine (antiseizure) 2.Phenytoin 3.Ginseng 4.St. John’s Wort 5.Oral Contraceptives 6.Phenobarbital (epilepsy med) 7.Rifampin

46
Q

The quickest acting medication for an asthma attack is _______ because it is a _________ and can increase O2 intake within 5 minutes. What intracellular SIGNALING PATHWAY does this drug use??

A

ALBUTEROL (duh), BETA-2 AGONIST….Gs–>Adenyl Cyclase–>cAMP (relaxes smooth muscle)

47
Q

IPRA-TRO-PIUM can be used during an asthma attack. What type of drug is it? How long does it take to have an effect?

A

ANTI-CHOLINERGIC…30min

48
Q

What are the two classes of ANTIPLATELET drugs used in Acute coronary syndrome?

A
  1. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors 2. P2Y12 receptor blockers (plavix)
49
Q

What class of drug BLOCKS the degredation of LDL receptors in the liver, thus increasing the amount of LDL clearance?

A

PCS-K9 monocoloidal antibodies

50
Q

What class of drugs is typically used for pts with prostate cancer that slows the production of testosterone and therefore the progression of the disease?

A

GnRH analog (inhibiting the secretion of FSH and LH, thus inhibiting test syn)

51
Q

5alpha-Reductase inhibitors (e.g. _________) are used to treat BPH and MALE-PATTERN BALDNESS

A

FIN-AS-TERIDE

52
Q

What are two drugs that can mediate TNFa activity? (two different mechanisms)

A

1.IN-FLIX-IMAB 2.ET-AN-ER-CEPT

53
Q

PREDNISONE reduces inflammation by suppressing _________ migration AND lessens capillary ________

A

PMN…PERMEABILITY

54
Q

What drug is given to TRANSPLANT patients and SEVERE atopic dermatitis because it suppresses T-LYMPHOCYTE activation?

A

“T”-ACRO-LIMUS

55
Q

Huh! Interesting!! Selective Cox-2 inhibitors can actually PROMOTE thrombotic events by reducing endothelial production of _________ (___) which is a VASODILATOR and INHIBITOR of platelet aggregation

A

prostacyclin (PGI2)

56
Q

Ok, so I’ve already learned that TTTTACROLIMUS is commonly Rx’d with TTTTransplants, one ‘side effect’ is due to its inhibition of _______, with affects the nephron and therefore causes INCREASES in SERUM _____ and ____ levels as well as INCREASED BP.

A

CAL-CIN-EURIN….BUN and Creatinine

57
Q

What antibiotic is CONTRAINDICATED for Pt’s with PARKINSONS disease?

A

NO: METO-CLO-PRAMIDE (a gut motility drug)

58
Q

I-SON-I-AZ-ID is an anti MYCOBACTERIAL agent that inhibits synthesis of ________ ____, a lipid component pf their cell walls

A

MYCOLIC ACID

59
Q

What condition calls for drugs that inhibit polyprotein clevage? Thus are considered protease inhibitors…

A

HIV+

60
Q

What are the two most common examples of antibiotics that work by inhibiting protein synthesis on ribosomes?

A

1.tetracyclines 2.macrolides

61
Q

What class of antibiotics INHIBIT PROKARYOTIC GYRASE, causing DNA supercoils?

A

FLOUROQUINOLONES

62
Q

GAN-CICLOVIR works by inhibiting ______ ______ _______

A

DNA chain elongation

63
Q

Which RIBOSOMAL SUBUNIT do Chlor-Amphen-i-col, Clindamycin, line-zo-lid, and azithromycin act on??

A

50s ribosomal subunit

64
Q

Oh boy, get into the NITTY GRITTY: which area of the 50s ribosomal subunit does Azithromycin bind to? (hint-its an RNA area)

A

23S rRNA (AZ wasn’t the 23rd State)

65
Q

CEF-TRI-AX-ONE is a 3rd generation CEPHALOSPORIN that binds to TRANSPEPTIDASES to prevent ________.

A

Cell wall cross linking

66
Q

Doxycycline and other TETRACYCLINES bind to the _____ ribosomal subunit. They block aminoacyl-tRNA binding to the A site on the ribosome and thereby inhibit ________

A

30S…ELONGATION

67
Q

MOXI-FLOX-ACIN and other FLOUROQUINOLONES inhibit prokaryotic DNA replication by binding to and stabilizing __________ enzymes

A

TOPOISOMERASE

68
Q

VANCO-MYCIN inhibits CELL WALL SYNTHESIS by binding to __________ in the bacterial cell wall

A

D-alanyl-D-alanine

69
Q

Which inflammatory cytokine is reduced when transplant antibiotics (cyclosporine/tacrolimus) are Rx’d?

A

IL-2

70
Q

IN-FLIX-IMAB is a _______ blocker

A

TNFa

71
Q

ANA-KIN-RA is a ______ blocker

A

IL-1 receptor

72
Q

What drug would you NOT Rx to treat Psoriasis in a prego pt?

A

ACI-TRET-IN (a synthetic retinoid, all retinoids are teratogenic)

73
Q

Whats the most common way for a bacterium to be resistant to AMINOGLYCOSIDES? (its a 30S ribosomal binder)

A

poor penetrance into the cell

74
Q

A-CARB-OSE is an ________ drug that inhibits pancreatic a-amylase and a-glucosidase enzymes

A

ANTIDIABETIC

75
Q

COLES-EVE-LAM stimulates increased hepatic conversion of _________ to bile acids

A

cholesterol

76
Q

EZE-TIM-IBE decreases small intestine ________ absorption

A

cholesterol

77
Q

DAPA-GLIF-LO-ZIN is an ANTIDIABETIC drug that inhibits _______ transport proteins, thus causing glycosuria and weightloss

A

GLUT2

78
Q

_________ inhibits intestinal LIPASE and therefore decreases fat absorption and causes side effects

A

ORLISTAT

79
Q

What is the drug of choice for a Chlamydia Trachomatis infection? What is its mech of action?

A

Azithryomycin…bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor

80
Q

What is the molecule that azole anti-fungals inhibit?

A

ERGO-STEROL

81
Q

What is used as an adjunct along with penicillin to block tubular secretion of the drug in the kidney?

A

PRO-BENE-CID

82
Q

__________ is usually used to treat BIPOLAR disorder OR SEIZURES, not major depression. It has NUMEROUS side effects, including cutaneous hypersensitivity, hepatotoxicity etc

A

car-BAM-aze-pine

83
Q

________ is an antipsychotic reserved for treatment-refractory pts due to the risk of AGRANULOCYTOSIS..not used for depression, can cause tachycardia

A

CLOZ-a-Pine

84
Q

What type of drug is FLUOXETINE? (sexual side effects)

A

SSRI

85
Q

What type of drug is VEN-LA-FAX-ine?

A

SNRI (serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor)

86
Q

______ is a mood stabilaizer used to tx BIPOLAR disorder, its adverse effects are hypothyroidism and nephrogic diabetes insipidus

A

Lithium

87
Q

RIS-per-IDONE is a second-generation ________

A

anti-psychotic

88
Q

What class of drug is AMI-TRIP-TYLINE?

A

TCA (tricyclic antidepressant)

89
Q

What is the mechanism by witch the drug PAC-LIT-AXEL works when it is coated on a coronary artery stent?

A

inhibits hyperplasia of the tunica INTIMA

90
Q

Patients taking LOOP DIURETICS are predisposed to HYPO________EMIA and contraction alkalosis

A

hypokalemia

91
Q

HIV Retrovirals: anything ending in “-NAVIR” is what class of drug?

A

PROTEASE INHIBITORS

92
Q

enFUvirtide acts against HIV by what mechanism?

A

blocks the HIV from FUsion to the host cell membrane

93
Q

FLUM-AZ-ENIL competitively inhibits WHICH neuro drug?

A

benzodiazepines

94
Q

Amphotericin B is what class of antifungal? It opens pores in fungal membranes. What is the major adverse effect? (80 freakin % of pts!!)

A

macrolide..nephrotoxic

95
Q

DI-HYDRO-PYRIDINE Ca2+ channel blockers are selective for _______ smooth muscle.

A

ARTERIOLAR (they relax the arteriols to decrease resistance)

96
Q

What drug is notorious for causing SUBtheraputic effects on WARFARIN though CYP450 interactions?

A

CAR-BAM-azepine

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