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(CBSE) All Subjects > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

1
Q

What is diptheria casued by? Where are the primary manifestations?

A

Cor-y-ne-bacterium Diphtheriae…NASO AND OROPHARYNX!!

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2
Q

What are the three sequential treatments for the treatment of acute diptheria?

A

1.Diptheria antitoxin (passive immunization) 2.Penicillin or erythromycin 3.DPT vaccine (active immunization)

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3
Q

What is the 3 stage life cycle of HEP B?

A

DS DNA –> +RNA template –> DS DNA progeny

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4
Q

What is the 3 stage replication cycle of HERPES?

A

DS DNA–>DS DNA template–>DS DNA progeny

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5
Q

Gram negative coccobacilli causing swelling of the right knee..what bacterium and what is its main virulence factor?

A

H. Influenzae and a CAPSULE

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6
Q

Haemophilus influenzae LOVES ______ and it requires both ___ factor and ___ factor to grow

A

BLOOD. X factor and V factor

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of ASEPTIC meningitis? what are the typical CSF protein and glucose levels?

A

Enteroviruses…modestly elevated protein, normal glucose

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8
Q

In bacterial meningitis, what are the two main bugs causing it in ADULTS? What are the CSF glucose and protein levels like?

A

Strep Pneumo and N. Meningitidis…elevated protein, low glucose

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9
Q

If I use cardiolipin, lecithin and cholesterol and observe extensive flocculation, what bug am I testing for?

A

Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

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10
Q

What virus is notorious for outbreaks in crowded quarters? What is the main clinical presentation? What type of DNA/RNA does it have?

A

ADENOVIRUS..pharyngo-conjunctival fever…DS-DNA

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11
Q

COOL: What species of bug causes terminal hematuria, dysuria, and frequent urination, hydronephrosis, pyeloneprosis, and SSC of the bladder? Found in Africa and Mid-East? UH. WHAT ORGANISM INFECTS HUMANS?

A

SCH-IS-TO-SO-MIA-SIS Hae-mat-o-bi-um..Freakin freshwater snails bro

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12
Q

What about the Hep C genome yields genetic variation in its envelope antigen?

A

Hep C is RNA and has no proofreading mechanism

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13
Q

What component of the human cell is the target for C. Diff’s toxins A and B?

A

the cytoskeleton (toxins distrupt actin cytoskeleton structure)

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14
Q

What is the main lab tool used to differentiate Strep and Staph?

A

STREP=catalase NEGATIVE…Staph = catalase POSITIVE

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15
Q

AWESOME, you got the association between S. Aureus and yellow-honey crust on a cutaneous wound…but now…what is this condition called?

A

IMPETIGO

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16
Q

What bug is most commonly associated with intraabdominal abscesses following abdominal trauma or surgery? (endometriosis and complications of gynecologic procedures)

A

Bacterioides Fragilis

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17
Q

What are the three most common associated diseases with GROUP B Strept?

A

1.Neonatal Sepsis 2.Chorioamnionitis 3.Endometriosis (ALL BIRTHING THINGS!)

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18
Q

What bug underlies skin diseases like ecthyma gangrinosum, HOT TUB folliculitis (lol), pyoderma, green nail syndrome, and botryomycosis?

A

Pseudonomas Aeruginosa (aeruginosa means copper-green rust) (look up in latin book at home lol)

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19
Q

COOL! A bug NOT trying to kill us! _______ is a normal component of skin flora and if found in wound culture is considered a contaminant

A

Staphylococcus Epidermidis

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20
Q

INTERESTING! Mechanism of Action for Antibiotic Resistance…In general most ABX freely cross bacterial membranes, so what is the most common method for resistance?

A

Bacterial ability to PUMP (through H+, ATP, or Na+ gradient channels)

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21
Q

DNA viruses have diploid or haploid DNA?

A

haploid

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22
Q

________ are very small bacteria that have single, circular DNA genomes…INTERESTING, research has shown that these MAY have evolved from gram + bacteria!

A

MYCOPLASMAS

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23
Q

Since one mechanism of APOPTOSIS is the inability to perform new translation of proteins, the proteins that are required to be translated need an alternate method WHICH IS….???

A

INTERNAL RIBOSOME ENTRY

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24
Q

Which sequence (hint-someone’s name) helps initiate translation in EUKARYOTES?

A

KOZAK consensus sequence

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25
Q

Which sequence (hint-scientist names) helps initiate translation in PROKARYOTES?

A

Shine-DalGARno sequence

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26
Q

Papallomaviruses: small or large?

A

small

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27
Q

Papallomaviruses: enveloped or nonenveloped?

A

nonenveloped

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28
Q

Papallomavirus: what type of genome?

A

CIRCULAR, DOUBLE-STRANDED DNA

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29
Q

Viral proteins inactivate ____ and ___ proteins, thus causing the cell to enter S-phase

A

p53 and Rb

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30
Q

OOOO INTERESTING!!! _____ viruses (((EXCEPT FOR ______))) replicate in the NUCLEUS

A

DNA….except for POXVIRUSES

31
Q

OOOO INTERESTING!!! _____ viruses ((** EXCEPT FOR ________ and ________**)) replicate in the CYTOPLASM

A

RNA…except ORTHO-MYXO-VIRUSES and RETROVIRUSES

32
Q

Paramyxoviruses: enveloped or nonenveloped?

33
Q

Paramyxoviruses: what type of genome?

A

single-stranded RNA

34
Q

Togavirus: enveloped or nonenvelopled?

A

enveloped (WEARING A TOGA!!)

35
Q

Togavirus: what type of genome?

A

Single-stranded RNA virus

36
Q

PicoRNAvirus: enveloped or nonenveloped?

37
Q

PicoRNAvirus: what type of genome?

A

single-stranded RNA

38
Q

Poxvirus: large or small??

39
Q

Poxvirus: what type of genome?

A

Double-stranded DNA genome

40
Q

What organism causes VALLEY FEVER?

A

Cocci-DI-oides IMMITIS (a DI morphic fungus)

41
Q

WHAT IS THE CLASSIC presentation of a KLEBSIELLA PNEUMONIAE infection in EtOHlics?

A

currant JELLY hemotysis

42
Q

Legionella PenumoPHILA is a gram ______ bacillus that causes disease when areosolized organisms are inhailed from __________

A

gram NEGATIVE….contaminated WATER

43
Q

What are the two possible outcomes from a Legionella PneumoPHILA infection? (hint-one mild, one severe)

A

Mild: PONTIAC fever (flu-like illness) SEVERE: Legionnaire disease)

44
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a SMALL, atypical bacterium (NO ______) that causes “_________”

A

(no cell wall)….”WALKING PNEUMONIA”

45
Q

Pneumo-cys-its Jir-OV-Eci is an atypical _____ organism known for causing WHAT? WHAT IS THE HALLMARK SIGN?

A

Fungal…opportunistic pneumonia in HIV+ pt’s with <200mm3 CD4 counts…Hallmark: GROUND GLASS appearance on chest xray

46
Q

Which opportunistic fungal infection in HIV+ pt’s with CD4’s <200mm3 appears with a GROUND GLASS appearance on a chest x-ray?

A

PNEUMO-CYS-TIS JI-RO-VEC-I

47
Q

What class of viruses (first BROAD class, then subdivision, THEN 4 examples in the subdivision!!!) account for 90% of VIRAL MENINGITIS??

A

PICO-RNA-VIRIDAE—>ENTEROVIRUSES—>1.Enterovirus 2.Coxsackie A and B 3.Echovirus 4. Poliovirus

48
Q

All pico-RNA-viruses are _____, icosahedral, _____-standed, and POSITIVE-sense RNA viruses

A

NAKED, SINGLE-stranded

49
Q

Besides the Enteroviruses of the PicoRNAviridae family, what are two other common viruses in this family?

A

Hepatovirus (Hep A) and Rhinovirus

50
Q

Huh GROSS… ______virus are NEGATIVE-sense, SINGLE-stranded RNA viruses that cause HEMORRHAGIC fever when dirt or dust contaminated by RODENT URINE is inhailed

A

ARENAviruses

51
Q

_____viruses are positive-sense, SINGLE-stranded RNA viruses. The most common is the NOROvirus which is a COMMON CAUSE OF ________

A

CALI-ci-viruses…GASTROENDERITIS

52
Q

CORONAvirus is a _____-sense, _____-stranded, (RNA or DNA??) virus that is a major cause for the common cold

A

POSITIVE-sense, SINGLE-stranded, RNA

53
Q

PARAmyxOviruses are _____-sense, ____-stranded (RNA or DNA??) viruses that include ______, _____, and respiratory syncytial viruses

A

NEGATIVE-sense, SINGLE-stranded, RNA…MUMPS, MEASLES

54
Q

Members of the REOvirus family have DOUBLE-stranded RNA genomes, ____virus is a common cause of GASTROENTERITIS in infants

55
Q

Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B-cells: During Antigen processing, the ______ chain brings the alpha and beta chains together in the RER.

A

invariant chain

56
Q

What type of cell recognizes the MHC Class II antigen?

A

CD4+ T helper cells

57
Q

CD4+ T helper cells recognize MHC Class __ antigens

58
Q

________ is a STAIN commonly used to identify FUNGAL elements in histologic sections of tissue

A

METH-EN-AMINE SILVER

59
Q

ASPERGILLUS fumigatus has a “_________-like” appearnce

A

BROOM-like

60
Q

Patients with a Hx of TB can develop WHICH FUNGAL infection (in the old cavities caused by the TB..GROSS)

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

61
Q

________ is a GRAM POSTIVIE bacteruim that classically causes MOUTH (WHEELHOUSE) or GI tract abscesses following TRAUMA…YELLOW “SULFUR” GRANULES!!!

A

Actino-myces ISRAELII

62
Q

What is responsible for the removal of RNA primers and the synthesis of new DNA in its place during Prokaryotic DNA syntesis?

A

DNA polymerase I

63
Q

What is the key factor for N. Gonorrhoeae establishment and infection?

A

PILI…they help adhere

64
Q

What is the key factor for N. Meningitidis establishment and infection?

A

a CAPSULE that is anti-phagocytic

65
Q

Ok, so I KNOW that Pneumocystis JiroVecii occurs in HIV+ pts with less than 200 CD4s, but WHICH VIRUS causes problems in pts with less than 20 CD4s??

66
Q

Holy shit! ORAL POLIO VACCINE contains attinuated live virus that can revert to a virulent form and cause vaccine-associated PARALYTIC _________..whereas INACTIVATED polio vaccine contains killed virus that can’t revert…FASCINATING!!

A

PolioMyelitis (its 3:1,000,000 odds)

67
Q

Which virus is famous for Negri bodies in Hippocampal neurons and painful pharyngeal spasms??

A

Rabies virus

68
Q

Fresh stool exam reveals occasional TROPHOZOITES with phagocytosed RBCs…what bug?

A

Enantomoeba Histo-Lytica

69
Q

Woah, dont be fooled-stool exam reveals trophozoites WITHOUT RBCs

A

Giardia Lamb-Lia

70
Q

Naegleria FOWLERI can colonized nasal passages and invade the brain resulting in fatal __________

A

meningoencephalitis

71
Q

WHICH BUG can you NOT treat with cell wall synthesis inhibitor drugs?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis…it has an unusual cell wall!

72
Q

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis osteomyelitis (Pott disease) is a potential cause of a Psoas abscess…where will the pt have symptoms?

73
Q

________ is a NON-lactose fermenting, oxidase negative, gram negative rod and is a common cause of OSTEOMYELITIS in patients with SICKEL CELL DISEASE

A

Salmonella

74
Q

ACUTE Hep A infection will have which antibody produced? What antibody will develop later?

A

IgM…IgG will come later

(CBSE) All Subjects (10 decks)

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