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Pharmacology NPLEX2 > Pharm 2 - Exam 1 > Flashcards

Pharm 2 - Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which opioid receptor site is for pain?

A

Mu

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2
Q

These receptor sites are found throughout the body and can lead to many systemic effects.

A

Opioid

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3
Q

This opioid analgesic has a high affinity for mu receptors and is known to blunt perception.

A

Morphine/ MS Contin

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4
Q

This drug might be used in the case of pain, anxiety and acute MI due to its vasodilatory effect.

A

Morphine/MS Contin

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5
Q

Respiratory depression is the most common cause of death related to this drug.

A

Morphine/MS Contin

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6
Q

These three s/sx are an indicator of opiate analgesic use.

A

pinpoint pupils
itching
respiratory depression

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7
Q

How do opiates cause constipation or even paralytic ileus?

A

Mu receptors in the GI are stimulated and reduce GI motility.

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8
Q

Which are the routes of administration for morphine?

A

IV, PO, rectal

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9
Q

This drugs has 80x the analgesic strength of morphine.

A

Fentanyl/Duragesic

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10
Q

What are the routes of administration for Fentanyl/Duragesic?

A

IV, transdermal patch, buccal lozenge, sublingual spray, LOLLIPOP

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11
Q

Patients using concomitant CYP450 inhibitors are at risk for fatal blood level of this drug.

A

Fentanyl/Duragesic

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12
Q

Fentanyl/Duragesic patches can be rendered less effective/not work as intended by doing what two things?

A

cutting the patch in half

placing heat over the patch

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13
Q

This opiate analgesic is also an effective antitussive.

A

Codeine

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14
Q

Which opiate analgesic prescription can be called in?

A

Codeine

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15
Q

This centrally-acting analgesic also affect neurotransmitters and so may improve mood.

A

Tramadol/Ultram

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16
Q

Spell the common name of Diacetylmorphine.

A

H-E-R-O-I-N (there is no E)

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17
Q

Name the synthetic opioid that is used to control withdrawal from heroin and morphine.

A

Methadone

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18
Q

This drug is known for the rapid reversal of opiate effects in addicted patients.

A

Nalaxone/Narcan

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19
Q

This drug is the dextro-isomer of codeine.

A

Dextromethorphan (DM)

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20
Q

What compounds do NSAIDs prevent the synthesis of?

A

prostaglandins (via COX-1 and COX-2)

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21
Q

Name the COX-2 inhibitor

A

Celecoxib/Celebrex

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22
Q

Does aspirin reversibly/irreversibly inhibit COX-1?

A

Irreversibly

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23
Q

What medications can be used for migraine prophylaxis?

A

Beta-blockers, Ca Channel Blockers, Methysergide, Tricyclic antidepressants, ergotamine, anti-seizure medications

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24
Q

Which medication is used during the prodromal phase of migraine management?

A

Triptans (mc Sumatriptan/Imitrex)

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25
Q

Which medications are used for the actual headache phase of the migraine?

A

Analgesics

Anti-emetics

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26
Q

Name the drug and class of beta blocker (selective/non-selective) that is used for migraine prophylaxis.

A

Non-selective, e.g. Propranolol/Inderal

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27
Q

This tricyclic antidepressant is used in the treatment of migraine/tension HA.

A

Amitriptyline/Elavil

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28
Q

This anticonvulsant is used for the treatment of migraines and may also be used for weight loss and for drug withdrawal.

A

Topiramate/Topamax

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29
Q

Methysergide/Sansert is an ergot derivative - serotonin 2 receptor ____________ (agonist/antagonist), therefore causing ____________ (vasodilation/vasoconstriction.)

A

Antagonist

Vasoconstriction

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30
Q

What are the three most concerning side effects of Methysergide/Sansert?

A
  1. vasoconstriction
  2. pulmonary fibrosis and retroperitoneal fibrosis
  3. heart valve thickening&raquo_space;> murmurs
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31
Q

This migraine med is Category X

A

Methysergide/Sansert

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32
Q

Sumatriptan/Imitrex is a serotonin-1 _________ (agonist/antagonist) used during the prodromal phase of migraine HAs. It results in stronger ______________ (vasoconstriction/vasodilation).

A

agonist

vasoconstriction

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33
Q

What is the recommended maximum # of doses of 100mg Sumatriptan/Imitrex in a day?

A

2 (Max: 200mg daily)

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34
Q

This migraine drug is Category C.

A

Sumatriptan/Imitrex

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35
Q

What are the potential symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

A 
diarrhea (most common)
agitation
tremor
ataxia
fever
chills
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36
Q

What class of drugs has the potential of causing serotonin syndrome?

A

Triptans

37
Q

Name the most common NSAIDS

A 
Ibuprofen (motrin, advil)
Indomethacin
Aspirin
Naproxen
Acetaminophen
38
Q

Unlike Aspirin, this NSAID is known for its reversible inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes

A

Ibuprofen

39
Q

This migraine drug is a mixed agonist-antagonist of opioid receptors and is generally given as a nasal spray.

A

Butorphanol/Stadol

40
Q

This drug is a typical neuroleptic anti-emetic used when vomiting is associated with migraine HAs.

A

Prochlorperazine/Compazine

41
Q

What are the side effects of Prochlorperazine/Compazine ?

A

drowsiness, dry mouth constipation, urinary retention and lowered seizure threshold.

42
Q

What is the indication and MOA of Ondansetron/Zofran?

A

Severe nausea

Blockage of 5HT3 serotonin receptor.

43
Q

What 3 drugs could you use for an acute gout attack?

A

NSAIDs
Steroids
Colchicine

44
Q

What 3 drugs could you use for prophylactic treatment of gout?

A

colchincine
allopurinol
probenecid

45
Q

What is the first-line treatment for gout?

A

NSAIDs

46
Q

What do COX-1 and COX-2 target in particular?

A

COX-1: stomach mucosa

COX-2: fevers and inflammation

47
Q

What is Sampter’s Triad?

A

Aspirin allergy, asthma, nasal polyps

48
Q

What is the most common SE of Colchicine?

A

Neuropathy: hands, feet, GI problems

49
Q

What is the MOA of Colchicine?

A

inhibits neutrophil motility and activity = anti-inflammatory

50
Q

Name a purine analog (decreases uric acid production) used in the treatment of gout and hyperuricemia.

A

Allopurinol/Zyloprim

51
Q

What enzyme does Allopurinol/Zyloprim inhibit?

A

Xanthine oxidase

52
Q

Define anti-uricosuric

A

Substances that decrease the excretion of uric acid in the urine.

53
Q

Name a uricosuric that is used in the treatment of hyperuricemia and gout.

A

Probenecid/Probalan

54
Q

What is the most notable SE of Probenecid/Probalan?

A

uric acid renal stones (esp. with renal insufficiency)

55
Q

T/F. Probenecid/Probalan may cause an acute gout attack at the onset of use?

A

true

56
Q

Which two drugs are know for interfering with Folate metabolism?

A

Methotrexate

Sulfa

57
Q

When prescribing Methorexate/MTX, which patients would you want to supplement folate with and which would you would not?

A

Yes: Auto-immune patients
No: Cancer patients

58
Q

T/F. Oral methotrexate is dosed daily.

A

False. Weekly

59
Q

How is methotrexate delivered?

A

All the ways.

PO, IM, IV, SQ, IT (intra-thecal)

60
Q

What lung pathology might Methotrexate cause?

A

pulmonary fibrosis

61
Q

Name the purine anti-metabolite immunosuppressant used in the treatment of transplant rejection, IBD, SLE, RA.

A

Azathioprine/Imuran

62
Q

What is the desired outcome when cyclosporines are used in the eyes?

A

to stimulate tear production

63
Q

What is the most potent immunosupressive drug?

A

Tacrolimus/Prograf

64
Q

What is a notable side effect of DMARDS?

A

ITP (platelet drop)

65
Q

Name the class and MOA of Etanercept/Enbrel.

A

DMARD

Anti-TNFalpha = anti-inflammatory

66
Q

How is Infliximab delivered?

A

IV (often every 2 months)

67
Q

Of Infliximad/Remicade and Etanercept/Enbrel, which has show efficacy in the treatment of Crohn’s and UC?

A

Infliximab/Remicade

68
Q

This drug is an anti-malarial drug that is also used for autoimmune disease treamtment.

A

Hydroxychloroquine/Plaquenil

69
Q

This drug can cause the corneas to become opaque when used long-term and in higher doses, as in the treatment of AI conditions. Frequent eye exams are mandated.

A

Hydroxychloroquine/Plaquenil

70
Q

Patients with G6PD who take Hydroxychloroquine can develop what?

A

severe anemia

71
Q

Define tachyphylaxis

A

a rapid decrease in response to a drug over a short time

72
Q

Name the MC short acting glucocorticoid (8-12hrs).

A

Hydrocortisone

73
Q

Name the MC intermediate acting glucocorticoid (18-36hrs)

A

Prednisone

74
Q

Name the 2 MC long acting glucocorticoid (24-72hrs)

A

Dexamethasone

Betamethasone

75
Q

Rank Hydrocortisone, Dexamethason, Betamethasone, and Prednisone in terms of anti-inflammatory potency.

A

Hydrocortisone
Prednisone
Dexamethasone
Betamethasone

76
Q

What may happen if glucocorticoids are abruptly ceased?

A

acute adrenal insufficiency syndrome aka Addisonian crisis

may be lethal

77
Q

The greater the glucocorticoid action, the _________ (weaker/greater) the mineralcorticoid action.

A

weaker

78
Q

What are the symptoms are Addisonian crisis?

A

severe lethargy, vomiting, diarrhea, low bp, confusion, LOC, convulsions, mb death

79
Q

Name the fluorinated corticosteroid

A

Dexamethasone/Decadron

80
Q

This corticosteroid is used for Asthma and COPD and is not indicated for treating an acute asthma attack.

A

Triamcinolone inhaler/Azmacort

81
Q

What is the indicator that a patient’s asthma is no longer well controlled?

A

When they are needing to use their steroid inhaler more than 4 times per day.

82
Q

Name a mineralocorticoid used in the treatment of Addison’t disease or other cases of hyponatremia and does not have any anti-inflammatory affect.

A

Fludrocortisone/Florinef

83
Q

MAOIs are known for what serious side effects?

A

Hypertensive emergencies and fatal accelerated HTN

84
Q

What side effects do Tricyclic antidepressants cause?

A

anti-cholinergic signs: dry mouth, constipation, urinary hesitancy, orthostatic hypotension and sedation

85
Q

What other type of antidepressant should Tricyclic antidepressant not be mixed with?

A

MOAIs

86
Q

Who would most benefit from TCAs?

A

Those suffering from insomnia and depression

87
Q

Name the TCA

A

Amitriptyline/Elavil

88
Q

Name the SSRI

A

Fluoxetine/Prozac

Pharmacology NPLEX2 (8 decks)

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