Pharm 1 - Exam 1: Cardio/Resp Flashcards

1
Q

What is an non-selective adrenergic agonist used in the treatment of asthma?

A

Epinephrine

B-2 agonist

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2
Q

What form of administration is ineffective for Epinephrine?

A

oral

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3
Q

Name the long-acting beta 2 adrenergic agonist for asthma.

A

Salmeterol/Serevent

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4
Q

Which asthma drug must be used in conjunction with other therapies?

A

Salmeterol

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5
Q

What inhibits Salmeterol?

A

beta blockers

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6
Q

What is the class of drugs Ipratropium/Atrovent is in?

A

anticholinergics

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7
Q

Which asthma medication has the narrowest TI and in which class is it?

A

Theophylline/Theo-dur
xanthine/methylthanthine bronchodilator
*looks like caffiene

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8
Q

If you want to give an inhaled corticosteroid to an asthma patient, what med would you use?

A

Beclomethasone

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9
Q

If you have a patient with COPD or worsening asthma, what corticosteroid would you give?

A

Prednisone

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10
Q

Name a leukotriene inhibitor used in the treatment of chronic asthma. What enzymes does this drug inhibit?

A

Zafirlukast/Accolate

CYP450

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11
Q

What other class of drugs is often added to antitussives used in COPD?

A

Antihistamines

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12
Q

Name two antitussives and their classes given for COPD.

A

Codeine (narcotic analgesic/cough suppressant)

Dextromethorphan/DM (synthetic derivative of morphine/cough suppressant)

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13
Q

What is the MOA and #1 side effect for Diphenhydramine/Benadryl?

A

Histamine 1 receptor site blockage

sedation

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14
Q

Which drug is a non-sedating antihistamine used for allergic rhinitis? Why is it non-sedating?

A

Loratadine/Claratin

Don’t cross BBB

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15
Q

T/F. Both Dephenhydramine and Loratadine block the production of histamine.

A

False. The receptor is just blocked.

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16
Q

Which drug would you choose if you wanted a nasal corticosteroid for treating nasal rhinitis?

A

Beclomethasone/Beconase

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17
Q

What is the most addictive OTC drug and its class? Hint: it’s used to treat allergic rhinitis.

A

Phenylephrine/Afrin

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18
Q

This drug has the rebound effects of rhinitis medicosum

A

Phenylephrine/Afrin

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19
Q

What is the most effective smoking cessation drug and its MOA?

A

Varencycline/Chantix

partial agonist of alpha4/beta2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptor sites

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20
Q

What is the second most effective smoking cessation drug? What is it’s MOA?

A

Bupriopion SR/Wellbutrin

dopamine-NE reuptake inhibitor (depression med)

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21
Q

What drug is based on the Ayurvedic herb Khella?

A

Cromolyn

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22
Q

What stage of HTN is a BP of 160-179/100?

A

Stage 2

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23
Q

What stage of HTN is a BP of 140-159/90s?

A

Stage 1

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24
Q

What Stage of HTN is a BP of >180/>110?

A

Stage 3/malignant HTN

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25
Q

Which HTN med is contraindicated in patients with low GFR and gout patients?

A

Hydrochlorthiazide/Hydrodiuril

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26
Q

Is Hydrochlorthiazide/Hydrodiuril K+ sparing or wasting?

A

wasting

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27
Q

Which two drugs help the K+ wasting of Hydrochlorthiazide/Hydrodiuril?

A

ACE inhibitors

B-blockers

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28
Q

Which class of drugs has the strongest diuretic effect?

A

loop diuretics

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29
Q

Name a loop diuretic. Is it safe to use in patients with renal failure?

A

Furosemide/Lasix
No, it’s not effective for pts with renal failure but it is the drug of choice for those with low GFR or in hypertensive emergencies

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30
Q

What are the MC side effects of diuretics?

A

hypotension

edema

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31
Q

Which of the diuretics is most likely to cause hypercalcemia?

A

Hydrochlorthiazide/Hydrodiuril

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32
Q

What is a common dose of K+ given to patients on K+ wasting diuretics?

A

10mE or 750mg KCl

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33
Q

Which diuretic is K+ sparing?

A

Spironolactone/Aldactone

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34
Q

Which diuretic is a direct aldosterone antagonist?

A

Spironolactone/Aldactone

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35
Q

Do not use this diuretic for pts taking K supplements, ACE inhibitors or ARBs OR those with renal insufficiency, uncontrolled DM or osteomyelitis.

A

Spironolactone/Aldactone

36
Q

This K+ sparing diuretic is a Na+ channel blocker

A

Triamterene/Dyrenium

37
Q

Where are the highest concentration of Beta 1 and Beta 2 receptors?

A

B1: heart
B2: lung

38
Q

What is the antidote to b-blockers? MOA?

A

glucagon

increase cAMP in myocardium, bypasses beta adrenergic 2nd messenger system

39
Q

Which patients should not be given Propanolol/Inderal?

A

COPD/asthma (it is known to cause bronchospasm)

cardiac conduction abnormalities

40
Q

What class of drugs may result in rebound tachycardia, HTN, stroke of MI if discontinued suddenly?

A

beta blockers

41
Q

Name 3 Category X drugs

A

Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor)
Warfarin (anticoagulant)
Lorsartan (angiotensin II receptor blocker)

42
Q

This drug is a cardiac specific beta 1 blocker

A

atenolol/tenormin

43
Q

This class of drugs is known to cause weakness, fatigue, lethargy, depression, CNS disturbance, sexual dysfunction, bradycardia

A

beta blockers

44
Q

What three conditions in addition to HTN would lead someone to use a beta blocker as a first line therapy?

A

migraine
angina
MI soothed by beta blockers previously

45
Q

Which of the alpha blockers blocks alpha 1 receptors?

A

Prazosin/Minipress

46
Q

What is the MOA of Rauwolfia Alkaloids/Reserpine?

A

Peripheral adrenergic blockade

47
Q

Name the Ca Channel Blocker

A

Verapamil/Isopten

48
Q

What drug is most indicated for treating vasospastic angina in addition to HTN?

A

Verapamil/Isopten

49
Q

What is the risk of using Ca Channel Blockers with beta blockers?

A

bradycardia

50
Q

What is the drug of choice in treating pts with HTN and DM? What is its class?

A

Lisinopril/Prinivil (ACE inhibitor)

51
Q

Which drug inhibits the degradation of bradykinins, resulting in a dry irritating cough?

A

Lisinopril/Prinivil

52
Q

Someone comes in with angioedema. What drug might they be taking?

A

Lisinopril/Prinivil

53
Q

What class of drugs should Lisinopril never be mixed with?

A

K+ sparing diuretics. It has a potential for hyperkalemia on its own

54
Q

What is the drug of choice in treating HTN with CHF of DM in conjunction with proteinuria? What is it’s class?

A

Losartan/Cozaar (ARB)

55
Q

What is the MOA for Losrtan/Cozaar (ARB)?

A

blocks the effects of angiotensin II, decreasing peripheral vasoconstriction.

56
Q

This drug does not block the degredation of bradykinins and therefore produces less of a cough compared to ACE inhibitors

A

Losartan/Cozaar (ARB)

57
Q

This drug reduces peripheral sympathetic nervous activity by stimulating the presynaptic alpha2 adrenergic receptors in the CNS.

A

Methyldopa/Aldomet

58
Q

What drug might you use when a pt’s HTN does not respond to 2-3 meds concurrently?

A

Methyldopa/Aldomet

59
Q

In what class of drug is Methyldopa/Aldomet?

A

Centrally Acting Alpha Agonist

60
Q

Name 2 direct vasodilators and their most notable side effects.

A

Minoxidil/Loniten (hirsuitism) AKA Rogaine

Hydrakazine/Apresoline (Drug-induced SLE)

61
Q

What drug falls in the category of renin-blocker?

A

Aliskiren/Tekturna

62
Q

What is the MOA of IV Nitroglycerine and IV Sodium Nitroprusside and when might you use them?

A

NO = vasodilation of veins and arteries

Emergency anti-HTN

63
Q

A woman comes in with emergent pregnancy-induced HTN, what drug would be used?

A

IV Labetalol

64
Q

What is the MOA for aspirin?

A

irreversibly inhibits COX 1 and 2 = decrease platelet agg.

65
Q

Someone comes in with hyperventilation, tinnitis, dizziness, n/v. What is this constellation of symptoms called when associated with aspirin?

A

Salicylism

66
Q

In what patients is aspirin indicated to reduce MI?

A

unstable angina

hx of infarction

67
Q

This drug is an ADP receptor antagonist and is known to reduce the risk of thrombotic events

A

Clopidogrel/Plavix

68
Q

This anti-thrombotic drug is CI in pts with internal bleeding, intracranial hemorrhage, head trauma, or stroke w/i 30 days

A

Abciximab/Reopro

69
Q

What class of drug is Abciximab/Reopro?

A

Glycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitor

70
Q

These three anti-coagulants inactivate factor X(Xa)

A

Heparin
Enoxaparin/Lovenox (LMW Heparin)
Rivatoxaban/Xarelto

71
Q

What is the most unique side effect of Enoxaparin?

A

Heparin induced throbocytopenia (HIT) syndrome

discontinue if platelets drop below 100,000/mm3

72
Q

Protamine sulfate antidotes what drugs?

A

Heparin, Enoxaparin/Lovenox (LMW Heparin)

73
Q

This anticoagulant affects vitamin K dependent factors

A

Warfarin/Coumadin

74
Q

This is the only drug that actually lyses clots via the activation of plasmin.

A

Streptokinase

75
Q

What drug should not be given to pts who have had reent head trauma, GI bleed, surgery or intracranial neoplasm within the last 30 days?

A

Streptokinase

76
Q

Which drugs should not be prescribed with Silendafil/Viagra?

A

Nitrates (nitroglycerin and Isosorbide Dinitrate/Isordil)

77
Q

This is a long acting nitrate vasodilator

A

Isosorbide Dinitrate/Isordil

78
Q

Beta blockers are mainly indicated in what conditions?

A

HTN
Angina
post-MI
Panic-attacks

79
Q

What is the antidote for Amlodopine/Norvasc (a Ca+ Channel Blocker)?

A

Calcium gluconate

80
Q

What drug might be used for pain relief in unstable angina?

A

morphine (opiate receptor agonist)

81
Q

For what is Nalaxone/Narcan an antidote?

A

Morphine

82
Q

What is the acronym for unstable angina?

A

M: morphine
O: oxygen
A: aspirin
N: Nitroglycerin

83
Q

What is the antidote for Streptokinase?

A

Aminocapoic Acid

84
Q

What drug is particularly indicated for HTN and BPH?

A

Prazosin/minipress

85
Q

Which drug is CI for those with sulfa allergies?

A

HCTZ