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Pharmacology NPLEX2 > Pharm 1 - Exam 2 > Flashcards

Pharm 1 - Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

This class of anti-arrhythmics contain beta blockers.

A

Class II

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2
Q

Class III Anti-arrhythmics affect what channel?

A

K+ Channel

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3
Q

This class of Anti-arrhythmics affects Ca+ channels.

A

Class IV

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4
Q

This drug is a Class Ia anti-arrhythmic that affects phase 0 of the cardiac cycle

A

Quinidine/Quinidex

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5
Q

Describe the presentation of cinchonism (5 things)

A
  1. blurred vision
  2. n/v
  3. tinnitus
  4. HA
  5. disorientation/psychosis
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6
Q

This drug may induce ventricular tachycardia, called Torsades des Pointes

A

Quinidine/Quinidex

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7
Q

Name the cardiac specific beta blocker and its class that is indicated for arrythmias.

A

Atenolol/Tenormin

Class II Anti-arrhythmic

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8
Q

What phase of cardiac AP do Class II and Class IV anti-arrythmics affect? What side effect might they both have?

A

phase 4

bradycardia because they slows AV conduction

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9
Q

What is the most common side effect of all anti-arrythmics?

A

another arrhythmia

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10
Q

In what class of drugs is Amiodarone/Cordarone?

A

Class III Anti-arrhythmic

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11
Q

This drug has the potential to produce a blue-grey coloring of the skin due to it’s high iodine content.

A

Amiodarone/Cordarone

ami-IOD-arone = iodine

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12
Q

In what anti-arrhythmic class is Verapamil?

A

Class IV

Ca+ Channel Blocker

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13
Q

Name three “other” anti-arrhythmics

A

Adenosine/Adenocard
Atropine
Digoxin/Lanoxin

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14
Q

This is the official drug of choice for the initial treatment of PSVT (paroxysmal superventricular tachycardia)

A

Adenosine/Adenocard

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15
Q

Adenosine/Adenocard has a duration of action of ___________.

A

~15 seconds

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16
Q

This drug is indicated (for cardiac use) in life threatening bradycardia and hypotension

A

Atropine

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17
Q

What is the MOA of Atropine?

A

Anti-cholinergic/parasympolytic

Competitive inhibitor of muscarinic ACh receptors

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18
Q

Name 4 extra-cardiac uses of Atropine

A
  1. diarrhea
  2. pre-operative (decreases bronchial & salivary secretions)
  3. to treat organophosphate poisoning
  4. as a cycloplegic/mydriatic (paralyzes accomodation/dilates pupils)
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19
Q

What does SLUDGE stand for and what does it indicate?

A 
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Diarrhea
Gastric Distress
Emesis
ORGANOPHOSPHATE POISONING
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20
Q

What type of toxicity is described by saying: “Dry as a bone, red as a beet, hot as a hare and mad as a hatter”?

A

Atropine

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21
Q

What is the antidote for Atropine?

A

physostigmine

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22
Q

Digoxin toxicity potential is increased when combine with what other drug class?

A

K+ wasting drug without K+ supplementation

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23
Q

The long half-life of Digoxin may have what effect on an EKG reading?

A

Flattening or inversion of the T wave

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24
Q

What 4 systems are affected in Digitalis intoxication?

A

Cardiac (arrhythmias/bradycardia)
CNS
GI
Vision

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25
Q

What is the antidote for Digoxin?

A

Digoxin immune Fabs

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26
Q

What number should LDL/HDL not exceed?

A

2.5

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27
Q

Total Cholesterol/HDL should not exceed ___

A

4

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28
Q

Niacin causes what characteristic side effects?

A

flushing
pruritus
myositis
GI issues

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29
Q

What lab values should be watched with Niacin/Nicotinic Acid use?

A

Liver enzymes

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30
Q

In what patients is Niacin contraindicated?

A

Poorly controlled DM
Active Liver Dz
Active PUD

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31
Q

What is the safest form of niacin available?

A

inositol hexaniacinate (IH)

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32
Q

This drug is a Fibric Acid derivative.

A

GemFIBrozol/Lopid

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33
Q

This class of drugs inhibit HMG CoA Reductase

A

Statins!

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34
Q

Name 2 common side effects and one life-threatening side effect of statins.

A

Muscle soreness and muscle weakness

Rhabdomyolysis&raquo_space;» Acute Renal Failure

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35
Q

When are statins contraindicated?

A

Pregnancy or lactation
Liver disease or elevated liver enzymes
Heavy alcohol use

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36
Q

In what class of drugs is Atorvastin/Lipitor?

A

Statins

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37
Q

If a patient on a statin comes in with severe muscle pain, what lab would you want to run?

A

CPK, to assess potential for rhabdomyolysis

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38
Q

In what class of drugs is Chlorestyramine/Questran?

A

Bile acid sequestrant

39
Q

This drug’s side effects include constipation and fat soluble vitamin malabsorption.

A

Chlorestyramine/Questran

40
Q

This drug inhibits cholesterol absorption at the level of the brush border.

A

Ezetimibe/Zetia

41
Q

These two drugs are Category X

A

Atorvastin/Lipitor

Vytorin (Ezetimibe + statin)

42
Q

These two drugs are Category C in pregnancy

A

Cholestyramine

Ezetimibe

43
Q

What is Lovasa?

A

Ridiculous, expensive fish oil. Stupid.

44
Q

Class I Anti-arrhythmics affect what type of channel?

A

Na+ Channel

45
Q

This class of anti-hyperlipidemics is known to lower TGs and increase HDL.

46
Q

Gemfibozol/Lopoid is in what class of anti-hyperlipidemics?

47
Q

This drug may be used for pneumocystis prophylaxis and is effective against MRSA.

A

Timethorprim + Sulfamethoxazole/Bactrim

48
Q

What is the worst case scenario skin issue that can result from the use of Sulfa drugs?

A

Steven Johnson Syndrome (toxic epidermal necrolysis)

3x more likely with Bactrim than with Sulfamethoxazole alone.

49
Q

Penicillins fall into what class of drugs?

A

Beta-lactams: affects bacterial cell wall

50
Q

What is the MOA for beta-lactam drugs?

A

Binds to PBPs on bacteria and prevents peptidoglycan cross-linage = cytolysis and cell death

51
Q

What is the MOA for Sulfamethoxazole with Trimethorprim/Bactrim?

A

Sulfamethoxazole: competitive inhibitor with enzyme that catalyzes PABA
Trimethorprim: interfaces with folic acid

52
Q

This drug class is associated with the most severe pure drug allergies.

A

Penicillins

53
Q

What is commonly added to Penicillin injections to prolong the half-life?

54
Q

In the drug Amoxicillin with Clavulanate/Augmentin, dose increase refers to which drug and which drug is in the same amount regardless of dose?

A

Amoxicillin amount increases with increased Augmentin dose.

Clavulanate is in the same amount regardless of dose.

55
Q

In the drug Amoxicillin with Clavulanate/Augmentin, which component is most likely to cause diarrhea or pseudomembranous colitis because it is a broader spectrum drug?

A

Clavulanate

56
Q

What generation of Cephalosporins is indicated with the prefix ceph-?

A

1st Generation

57
Q

Are first generation Cephalosporins better to treat gram+ or gram- bacteria?

58
Q

What generation(s) of Cephalosporins is indicated with the prefix cef-?

A

2nd-5th Generation

59
Q

Are third generation Cephalosporins better to treat gram+ or gram- bacteria?

60
Q

Erythromycin/Erythromycin and Azithromycin/Zithromax are part of what drug class?

A

Macrolides

61
Q

Of the penicillins, which crosses the BBB and which is in all tissues except the CSF?

A

Penicillin G crosses BBB

Amoxicillin/Amoxil is distributed to all tissues but CSF

62
Q

Macrolides and Aminoglycosides affect what bacterial organelle?

63
Q

What is the half-life of Azithromycin/Zithromax?

64
Q

Name two drugs that fall into the Tetracycline drug class.

A

Tetracycline/Sumycin

Doxycycline/Doryx

65
Q

What are the 3 MC indications for a Tetracycline antibiotic?

A

Moderately severe acne
Rosacea
Chlamydia

66
Q

These two drug classes should be avoided in pregnant women and children because they chelate Ca, staining teeth and affecting bone deposition.

A

Tetracyclines

Quinolones

67
Q

This drug may is nephrotoxic and ototoxic (maybe irreversible)?

A

Gentamicin/Garamycin

should only really be used in life-threatening situations

68
Q

What is the most appropriate drug to treat Chlamydia?

A

Azithromycin or Doxycycline

69
Q

What is the most appropriate drug to treat Gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone

70
Q

What is the most appropriate drug to treat Syphilis?

A

Benzathine Pen G or Doxyclines

71
Q

What would be an appropriate drug to treat Strep Throat?

A

Penicillin V

72
Q

What is the initial pharmacologic treatment for acute otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin/Amoxil

73
Q

What would be an appropriate drug to treat recurrent sinusitis?

A

Amoxicillin and clavulanate/Augmentin

74
Q

What drug should you consider for the treatment of uncomplicated bronchitis in adults?

A

Azithromycin/Zithromax

75
Q

What is a good drug class to look to in the treatment of pneumonia (covers typical and atypical CAP)?

A

macrolides

quniolones may also be considered

76
Q

What is the drug of choice for treating acute cystitis?

A

TMP-Sulfa DS (double strength)

77
Q

What is drug combination is used to treat PID?

A

Ceftriaxone AND Doxycycline

AND MAYBE Metronidazole

78
Q

This drug may lead to spontaneous tendon rupture/damage.

A

Ciprofloxacin/Ciproxin

79
Q

What is the MOA of Ciprofloxacin/Ciproxin?

A

Inhibits DNA replication and transcription, via DNA gyrase

80
Q

What is the drug of choice for C. diff infection?

A

Metronidazole/Flagyl

81
Q

This drug is considered a Pro-drug, meaning it is activated once absorbed by gut bacteria

A

Metronidazole/Flagyl

82
Q

What enzymes does Metronidazole/Flagyl inhibit and why is this important?

A

Acetylaldehyde Dehydrogenase

if taken with ETOH, may cause Disulfiram-like Reaction: n/v, flushing, tachycardia

83
Q

What would you use to treat BV or Trich infection?

A

Metronidazole/Flagyl

84
Q

What class of drugs are specifically NOT recommended in the treatment of STDs and might lead to tendon rupture?

A

Quinolones

85
Q

What class of drugs is Ciprofloxacin/Ciproxin?

A

Quinolones

86
Q

What antibiotic covers bacteria and protozoa/parazites?

A

Metronidazole/Flagyl

87
Q

What is the main indication for Macrodantin/Macrobid?

A

uncomplicated lower UTI

88
Q

T/F. Vancomycin’s poor bioavailability is one of the good things about it?

A

True. Effectively treats C. diff with low side effects

89
Q

This may result if a patient is given Vancomycin/Vancocin too quickly via IV.

A

Red Man Syndroms aka Red Neck Syndrome

90
Q

This drug may be used for prophylactic therapy against N. meningitidis and also might tinge body fluids orange.

A

Rifampicin/Rifampin

91
Q

This drug is primarily used to treat traveler’s diarrhea.

A

Rifaximin/Xifaxan (a lot like Rifampicin)

92
Q

What is the first-line treatment for MRSA?

A

Clindamycin or Fluoroquinolone

93
Q

This drug is primarily used to treat impetigo.

A

Mupirocin/Bactroban

94
Q

What is the difference between Mupirocin/Bactroban and Bacitracin?

A

Mupirocin/Bactroban is used to treat impetigo

Bacitracin is basically Neosporin

Pharmacology NPLEX2 (8 decks)

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