pharm Flashcards
PDE5 inhibitors (e.g. sildenafil) are contraindicated by which 2 medications
Nitrates and nicorandil
PDE5 inhibitors (e.g. sildenafil) are used in treatment of erectile dysfunction and…
pulmonary hypertension
3 contraindications to PDE5 inhibitors (e.g. sildenafil - Viagra)
- Meds - nitrates or nicorandil
- Hypotension
- MI/stroke in last 6 months
Viagra (sildenafil) causes what side effects
Visual disturbances
- blue discolouration ‘the blue pill’
- Anterior ischaemic neuropathy
Nasal congestion
Flushing
GI side effects
Priapism
Headache
What drug causes blue vision
Viagra (sildenafil)
What drug causes green/yellow vision in toxicity
Digoxin
Digoxin level is only monitored in suspected toxicity. When should they be measured?
Within 8-12 hours of last dose
Digoxin mechanism of action - 3 main points (conduction, muscle contraction, nerves)
- Decreases AV node conduction to slow ventricular rate (in AF and flutter)
- Increases cardiac muscle contraction due to inhibition of Na/K ATPase pump
- Stimulates vagus nerve
Features of digoxin toxicity
Nausea + vomiting
Confusion
Yellow-green vision
Gynaecomastia
Arrhythmias
What is an endocrine change with digoxin toxicity
Gynaecomastia
+ anorexi
What is an electrolyte disturbance that triggers digoxin toxicity
Hypokalaemia
Leads to more binding of digoxin to ATPase pump and increases the effects
Management of digoxin toxicity - 3 steps
- Digibind
- Correct arrhythmias
- Monitor potassium
What is the most common side effect of finasteride (5-alpha reductase inhibitor)
Gynaecomastia
Finasteride is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
What is its mechanism of action
Reduces the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
DHT is more potent so inhibiting it helps to reduce prostate size
2 indications of finasteride
- BPH
- Male pattern baldness
Finasteride effects on PSA level
Reduces serum PSA
When and what bloods should be monitored for ACE inhibitors
U+E before starting or increasing dose
U+E at least annually
When and what bloods should be monitored for amiodarone
TFTs, LFTs, U+Es, CXR before starting
TFTs, LFTs every 6 months
When and what bloods should be monitored for methotrexate
FBC, LFTs, U+Es before starting
Repeat weekly until stable
Then every 2-3 months
When and what bloods should be monitored for azathioprine
FBC, LFT before starting
FBC weekly for first 4 weeks
FBC, LFTs every 3 months
When and what bloods should be monitored for lithium
TFTs, U+Es before starting
TFTs, U+Es every 6 months
Lithium levels weekly until stable
Then every 3 months
When and what bloods should be monitored for sodium valproate
LFTs, FBC before starting
LFTs periodically during first 6 months
When and what bloods should be monitored for glitazones
LFTs before starting
LFTs regularly during treatment
what anticoagulant is okay for use in CKD4
warfarin
for iodine-containing x-ray contrast media e.g. angiography, when should metformin be held to avoid contrast renal impairment
hold metformin on day of procedure and for 48 hours afterwards
mechanism of action of metformin
- activates AMPK
- increases insulin sensitivity
- decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis
when should ciclosporin levels be taken
trough levels
IMMEDIATELY BEFORE dose
lithium levels when should they be monitored
12 hours post-dose
phenytoin levels - trough when should dose be checked
IMMEDIATELY BEFORE dose
(if adjusting dose, or suspected toxicity)
Lithium toxicity may be triggered by what 3 things
- Dehydration
- Renal failure
- Drugs - diuretics, ACEi/ARBs, NSAIDs and metronidazole
Lithium toxicity signs
Coarse tremor
Hyperreflexia
Confusion
Seziures
++ urine
Management of lithium toxicity
- Fluids
- Haemodialysis in severe toxicity
- Sodium bicarb sometimes to promote lithium excretion
What is the most appropriate dose of adrenaline to give during a cardiac arrest?
10ml (1mg) 1:10000 IV
or 1ml 1:1000 IV
which diabetic medication can sometimes lead to low B12
metformin
Emergency management of opioid overdose
IV or IM naloxone
First line treatments in opioid detoxification
Methadone
Buprenorphine
compliance for opioid detox medication (e.g. methadone or buprenorphine) is monitored using..
urinalysis
how long does opioid detox usually last up to in:
(a) inpatient setting
(b) community
(a) inpatient setting - 4 weeks
(b) community - 12 weeks
methadone mechanism of action
mu-opioid receptor agonist
buprenorphine mechanism of action
mu-opioid receptor partial agonist
kappa-opioid antagonist
Carbon monoxide toxicity leads to which skin/mucosa changes
Pink skin and mucosa
Typical carboxyhaemoglobin % levels in:
(a) non-smokers
(b) smokers
(c) symptomatic
(d) severe toxicity
(a) non-smokers <3%
(b) smokers <10%
(c) symptomatic 10-30%
(d) severe toxicity >30%
Management of carbon monoxide poisoning
100% high flow O2 non-rebreather
Continue Rx for 6 hours minimum
Target sats 100%
Continue treatment until all symptoms resolved
St john’s wort effect on P450 system
P450 inducer
Reduces effect of COCP and warfarin etc
On average, what percentage of patients will eventually take antibiotics if delayed Abx strategy is employed?
33%
MDMA poisoning leads to what electrolyte disturbance
HYPOnatraemia
Management of MDMA poisoning
Supportive
Dantrolene for hyperthermia
NICE recommend that the dose of metformin should be reviewed and stopped if levels are above:
(a) creatinine
(b) eGFR
(a) Cr >130 - review, >150 - stop
(b) eGFR <45 - review, <30 - stop
Metformin should be titrated slowly, how long should be left between dose changes
Leave at least 1 week before increasing dose
4 drug groups that commonly cause urticaria
Aspirin
Penicillin
NSAIDs
Opiates
What drugs can lead to lithium toxicity
diuretics
ACEi/ARBs
NSAIDs
metronidazole
therefore HTN patients should be on CCB if possible
what antibiotics interact with statins
MACROLIDES
i.e. erythro/clari
Alcoholic patients should receive what supplementation
THIAMINE ONLY
Drugs used for management of alcohol misuse for detox
- Benzodiazepines for acute withdrawal
- Disulfram: promotes abstinence, causes reaction. Contraindicated in IHD and psychosis
- Acamprosat: reduces craving, weak antagonist of NMDA receptors
If woman is >55 or no periods for >1 year then which HRT is chosen:
continuous or cyclical
continuous
side effects of alpha-blockers
postural hypotension
drowsiness
cough
SOB
risk of cataract surgery with a-blockers
intra-operative floppy iris syndrome
alpha blockers what are the 2 main indications for use
benign prostatic hyperplasia
hypertension
women on statins wanting to try for a baby - what is the advice
stop 3 months before conception
due to risk of congenital defects
At what point do patients have a repeat cholesterol test done to test the effectiveness of the statin?
At 12 weeks (3 months)
Aims to reduce non-HDL by >40%
Lipid profile and liver function tests are done
Lipid profile and liver function tests are rechecked after 3 months (12 weeks) from starting a statin.
What is the aim for the cholesterol?
> 40% reduction in non-HDL levels
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia - What is the inheritance trait
autosomal dominant
hyperuricaemia (high levels of uric acid) may be seen in many patients such as in hyperlipidaemia or hypertension.
if they are asymptomatic without gout, what is done about urate lowering treatment?
No prophylactic treatment needed if asymptomatic
what does vitamin A (retinoid) deficiency cause
night blindness (nyctalopia)
what does vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency cause
Beri-beri syndrome: polyneuropathy, Wernicke’s
Heart failure
what does vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency cause
Pellagra
- dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia
what does vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency cause
anaemia
irritability
seizures
what does vitamin B7 (biotin) deficiency cause
dermatitis
seborrhoea
what does vitamin B9 (folic acid) deficiency cause
megaloblastic anaemia
neural tube defects
what does vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency cause
scurvy
- gingivitis
- bleeding
what does vitamin D (ergo/cholecalciferol) deficiency cause
rickets
osteomalacia
what does vitamin E (tocopherol) deficiency cause
mild haemolytic anaemia in newborn infants
ataxia
peripheral neuropathy
what does vitamin K (napthoquinone) deficiency cause
haemorrhagic disease of newborn
bleeding
causes of hypovolemic hyponatraemia (i.e. clinically dehydration)
diuretics
renal failure
Addison’s crisis
cause of euvolaemic hyponatraemia
SIADH
causes of hypervolaemic hyponatraemia
heart failure
liver failure
nephrotic syndrome
treatment of euvolaemic hyponatraemia (SIADH)
- fluid restrict
- meds: demeclocycline, vaptans
treatment of hypervolaemic hyponatraemia (i.e. heart failure, liver failure, nephrotic syndrome)
- fluid restrict
- meds: loop diuretics, vaptans
Vasopressin/ADH receptor antagonists (vaptans) mechanism of action
V2 receptor antagonists
Selective water diuresis
Spares electrolytes
Overcorrection of hyponatraemia too quickly can cause osmotic demyelination syndrome. therefore to avoid this, sodium levels are only raised by how much per day
4-6 mmol/l over 24 hours
what BMI is classed as underweight
< 18.5
What is a normal BMI
18.5-25
What are the BMI ranges for:
- overweight
- obese
- clinically obese
- morbidly obese
- overweight 25-30
- obese 30-35
- clinically obese 35-40
- morbidly obese >40
Patients with acute severe hyponatraemia should be urgently admitted to hospital when their serum sodium concentration is less than what
Less than 125mmol/L
common malignant cause of SIADH
small cell lung cancer
what drugs can cause SIADH
sulfonylureas
SSRIs
carbamazepine
tricyclic antidepressants
urine osmolality and sodium concentration in SIADH
Urine osm - inappropriately high
Urine sodium conc - high
management of SIADH
- fluid restiction
- demeclocyclin
- ADH (vasopressin) receptor antagonists
What is NICE advice with regards to physical activity?
Each week at least 150mins of moderate intensity aerobic activity or 75mins of vigorous intensity aerobic activity
4 causes of Hypokalaemia with hypertension
- Cushing’s syndrome
- Conn’s syndrome
- Liddle’s syndrome
- 11-b hydroxylase deficiency
4 causes of Hypokalaemia without hypertension
- diuretics
- GI loss
- renal tubular acidosis
- bartter’s syndrome
- gitelman syndrome
Consider the possibility of familial hypercholesterolaemia and investigate as described in familial hypercholesterolaemia if the patient has one of which two criteria?
- Total cholesterol >7.5
- Family history of premature coronary heart disease
rifampicin side effects
hepatitis
orange secretions
liver enzyme INDUCER
isoniazid side effects (TB drug)
hepatitis
agranulocytosis
peripheral neuropathy - prevent with pyridoxine, vitamin B6
liver enzyme INHIBITOR
pyrazinamide side effects
hyperuricaemia - causing gout
arthralgia
hepatitis
ethambutol side effects
optic neuritis
- check visual acuity before and during treatment
Bendroflumethiazide side effects
Gout
Hypokalaemia
Hyponatraemia
Impaired glucose tolerance
b-blockers side effects
bronchospasm
fatigue
cold peripheries
Who is responsible for collating and assessing the Yellow Card reports?
Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA)
fast onset
sweating
tremor
confusion
hyper-reflexia
what is the diagnosis:
serotonin syndrome or neuroleptic malignant syndrome
serotonin syndrome
What is the treatment of serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome
IV fluids
Benzodiazepines
Dantrolene - for severe NMS
What is the difference in reflexes and onset between serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Serotonin syndrome - hyperreflexia, fast onset
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome - hyporeflexia, slow onset
what two side effects is azithromycin associated with
tinnitus
hearing loss
erythromycin and clarithromycin do what to liver enzymes
P450 inhibitor
adverse effects of amiodarone
thyroid - hyper/hypo
corneal deposits
pulmonary fibrosis
liver fibrosis
peripheral neuropathy
photosensitivity
prolonged QT interval
bradycardia
2 important drug interactions of amiodarone include
- decreased warfarin metabolism therefore high INR
- increased digoxin levels
St Johns wort and SSRIs can lead to …
serotonin syndrome
children under the age of 12 need what specified on their prescriptions
AGE
what blood test to be monitored in metformin annually
U+Es
what four classes of antibiotics are contraindicated in pregnancy
- tetracyclines
- aminoglycosides
- sulphonamides + trimethoprim
- quinolones
what blood thinner is contraindicated in pregnancy
warfarin
what diabetic medication is contraindicated in pregnancy
sulphonylureas
4 side effects of sulfonylureas
Hypoglycaemia
Increased appetite and weight gain
SIADH
Liver dysfunction
4 side effects of glitazones
Weight gain
Fluid retention
Liver dysfunction
Fractures
Side effect of gliptins
pancreatitis
short acting formulations of nifedipine should not be used for angina or hypertension due to what
large variations of blood pressure that can cause reflex tachycardia
ciclosporin side effects
Hypertension
HyperK+
Gum hypertrophy
Hyperglycaemia
everything is increased!
Alpha-blockers e.g. doxazosin, should be avoided for how long after taking sildenafil
4 hours
What combination of diuretics is contraindicated?
Potassium sparing diuretics x2
This can lead to life-threatening hyperkalaemia
e.g. amiloride + spironolactone
What are two types of potassium sparing diuretics that should NOT be prescribed together as they can lead to hyperK+
- Epithelial sodium channel blocks e.g. amiloride + triamterene
- Aldosterone antagonists e.g. spironolactone + eplerenone
4 indications of aldosterone antagonists e.g. spironolactone
- ascites
- heart failure
- nephrotic syndrome
- Conn’s syndrome
what NSAID is contraindicated with any form of cardiovascular disease (IHD, PAD, CVD, CHF)
diclofenac
(this does not count for topical diclofenac)
drug induced thrombocytopenia
what are 7 classes of drugs that can cause it
- quinines
- abciximab
- NSAIDs
- diuretics: furosemide
- Abx: penicillins, sulphonamides, rifampicin
- anticonvulsants: carbamazepine, valproate
- heparin/LMWH
Complications of opioid miuse
- viral infections - HIV, Hep B/C
- bacterial infection
- VTE
- overdose
- pysch social issues
5 types of drugs causing lung fibrosis
- amiodarone
- cytotoxic agents: bleomycin, busulphan
- RhA drugs: methotrexate, sulfasalazine
- Nitrofurantoin
- DA agonists: bromocriptine, cabergoline, pergolide
Drugs which should be prescribed by brand
- modified release CCBs
- antiepileptics
- ciclosporin and tacrolimus
- mesalazine
- lithium
- aminophylline and theophylline
- methylphenidate
- CFC-free formulations of beclometasone
- dry powder inhaler devices
NICE recommends that women who go through premature menopause before age 45 should consider taking what to prevent osteoporosis
HRT
continue until aged 50
What 6 drugs can precipitate an attack of acute intermittent porphyria?
- barbiturates
- halothane
- benzos
- alcohol
- COCP
- sulphonamides
what antibiotics lower seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy
ciprofloxacin
(quinolones)
tamoxifen 4 adverse effects
- menstrual disturbances
- hot flushes
- VTE
- endometrial cancer
6 indications for Botox use
- blepharospasm
- hemifacial spasm
- focal spasticity including cerebral palsy, stroke disabilities
- spasmodic torticollis
- severe hyperhidrosis
- achalasia
What is the most appropriate time to take blood samples for therapeutic monitoring of digoxin levels?
At least 6 hours after last dose
mefloquine side effects
nights or anxiety
suicide + self-harm
CONTRAINDICATED if history of anxiety, depression, schizophrenia or other psych disorders.
restlessness, agitation
involuntary upward deviation of the eyes
what does this describe
oculogyric crisis
what are 3 causes of oculogyric crisis (restlessness, upward deviation of eyes)
- antipsychotics
- metoclopramide
- post-encephalitic Parkinson’s disease
what is the management of oculogyric crisis
IV anti-muscarinic
e.g. benztropine or procyclidine
what 5 medications can exacerbate heart failure
- pioglitazones
- verapamil
- NSAIDs - can cause fluid retention
- glucosteroids
- class I antiarrhythmics e.g. flecainide
what are the features of organophosphate insecticide poisoning i.e. accumulation of acetylcholine
salivation
lacrimation
urination
diarrhoea
SLUD
+ small pupils, muscle fasciculation, hypotension, bradycardia
Management of organophosphate insecticide poisoning i.e. accumulation of acetylcholine
Atropine