Perioperative Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

aseptic

A

free from contamination of bacteria

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2
Q

peri-operative

A

whole surgery

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3
Q

pre-operative

A

decide to have surgery - OR

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4
Q

intra-operative

A

OR - PACU

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5
Q

post-operative

A

PACU - Recovery

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6
Q

elective surgery

A

planned/scheduled - with no time crunch

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7
Q

urgent surgery

A

surgery within 24 hours

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8
Q

emergent surgery

A

immediate surgery needed to save life or limb

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9
Q

diagnostic

A

obtain tissue sample

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10
Q

exploratory

A

confirms condition

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11
Q

curative

A

removal of diseased tissue

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12
Q

cosmetic

A

requested removal

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13
Q

plasty

A

formation/repair

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14
Q

otomy

A

incision

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15
Q

ostomy

A

permanent artificial opening

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16
Q

oscopy

A

looking into

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17
Q

orrhaphy

A

suture of/ repair

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18
Q

ectomy

A

removed by cutting

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19
Q

anesthesiologist

A

nurse that works with anesthesia

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20
Q

circulating nurse

A

obtain supplies, count equipment, document on surgery

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21
Q

surgical scrub nurse

A

scrubs in and hands tools to surgeon

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22
Q

RN FA

A

helps surgeon by suctioning wound, or holding tools, or stitching up. stands right by surgeon

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23
Q

CRNA

A

registered nurse that works with anesthesia

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24
Q

surgeon

A

doctor that does surgery

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25
Q

adjunct

A

something added to other thing as supplementary…not an essential part

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26
Q

anesthesia

A

helps numb or put to sleep

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27
Q

atelectasis

A

alveoli stick together

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28
Q

dehiscence

A

suture that comes apart

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29
Q

debridement

A

removal of damaged tissue from wound

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30
Q

evisceration

A

guts come out

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31
Q

hematoma

A

solid swelling of clotted blood

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32
Q

hypothermia

A

abnormally low body temperature

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33
Q

hyperthermia

A

abnormally high body temp

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34
Q

malignant hyperthermia

A

muscles tense up (allergic reaction to anesthesia)

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35
Q

what are some risk factors when going into surgery

A

infection, cardiac disease, hypertension, kidney, liver disease, anesthesia, previous surgery

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36
Q

after general anesthesia, many patients occlude their airway, what can be done to open this up

A

intubate

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37
Q

what is wound healing by first intention

A

edges together

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38
Q

what is wound healing by second intention

A

open wound , granulation tissue grows

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39
Q

what is wound healing by third intention

A

wound is infected - leave open wait for infection to stop - close up

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40
Q

what is the reversal agent for opioids

A

nalaxone

41
Q

what is the reversal agent for benzodiazepines

A

flumazenil

42
Q

how long is the action of the reversal agent compared to the action of some of the meds

A

wear off sooner than meds

43
Q

what does the nurse need to assess for

A

breathing

44
Q

when should post op teaching begin

A

before surgery - pre-op

45
Q

what is a PCA and how does it work

A

patient controlled analgesic - push button to get dose as wanted

46
Q

should anyone else hit the PCA button

A

no

47
Q

who is to give information to the patient about the surgical procedure, risks and benefits prior to the patient signing the informed consent

A

surgeon

48
Q

if the nurse is witnessing the informed consent and the patient still has questions regarding the risks and benefits of surgery what should the nurse do

A

call surgeon to talk with patient

49
Q

if a wedding ring cannot be removed what should the nurse do

A

tape it

50
Q

what are the zones of the operative area and what must be worn in each different zone

A

OR restricted zone - mask, gown, cap, shoe covers

51
Q

what is the priority in a patient post op after general anesthesia

A

check vitals, watch for malignant hyperthermia

52
Q

what are possible complications of surgery

A

infection, DVT, shock, hemorrhage, pulmonary embolism, urinary retention, reaction to anesthesia

53
Q

symptoms of DVT

A

clots in legs - warm, red, veins in legs

54
Q

treatment of DVT

A

lay down, blood thinners, compression stockings

55
Q

symptoms of Pulmonary embolism

A

shortness of breath, chest pain, low O2

56
Q

treatment of pulmonary embolism

A

anticoagulants

57
Q

symptoms of atelectasis

A

dyspnea, tachypnea, decreased R, increased HR

58
Q

treatment of atelectasis

A

breathing exercises, oxygen, may need surgery

59
Q

symptoms of infection

A

fluid volume excess, injury related to positioning, hypothermia, (no symptoms for a few days)- increased T, increased WBC, red, warm

60
Q

treatment for infection

A

antibiotics,

61
Q

symptoms of pneumonia

A

fever, increased R, crackles, hypoxia

62
Q

treatment of pneumonia

A

antibiotics, oxygen therapy, IV fluids

63
Q

symptoms of dehiscence

A

edges come apart, undernourished, elderly

64
Q

treatment of dehiscence

A

use binder, splint incision, put back together

65
Q

symptoms of evisceration

A

guts come out

66
Q

treatment of evisceration

A

semi fowlers, knee up, cover w/ sterile soaked gauze, IV fluids, monitor for shock

67
Q

symptoms of hemorrhage

A

can see blood (look at incision)

if it’s internal (increased HR, decreased BP)

68
Q

treatment of hemorrhage

A

elevate head, IV fluids, reversal anticoagulation therapy

69
Q

symptoms of malignant hyperthermia

A

allergic reaction to anesthesia - muscles twitch and tighten, increased T, muscle rigidity, tacypnea, flushed, cyanosis, acidosis

70
Q

treatment of malignant hyperthermia

A

stop surgery, O2, notify DR STAT, cool with ice, (Dantrolene Sodium - Dantrium - muscle relaxant)

71
Q

symptoms of urinary retention

A

doesn’t pee, dribbling, restless, lower abdominal pain, increased BP

72
Q

treatment of urinary retention

A

catheter it

73
Q

symptoms of constipation

A

don’t poop, abdominal pain, sound, firm abdomen

74
Q

treatment for constipation

A

stool softener, fiber, increase fluid, ambulation (exercise)

75
Q

paralytic ileus

A

absence of peristalsis in an area

76
Q

symptoms of paralytic ileus

A

lack of bowel sounds, distention, severe abdominal pain, emesis

77
Q

treatment for paralytic ileus

A

NG inserted for to suction from stomach

78
Q

what are the inhalant anesthetics

A

nitrous oxide and O2

79
Q

what color tank is nitrous oxide

A

blue

80
Q

what color tank is O2 in

A

green

81
Q

sodium channel blockers are considered

A

numbing medicine

82
Q

sodium channel blockers all end in

A

caine

83
Q

this type of anesthesia is considered

A

local

84
Q

name the opioids commonly used in surgery and post op

A

fentanyl, morphine, meperidine (Demerol)

85
Q

what is given pre op to decrease secretions - what class of med is it

A

Atropine (anti cholinergics)

86
Q

what are adjuvents classes and how do they affect anesthesia

A

opioids, antiemetics, sedatives - muscle relaxants

87
Q

what is a common type of anesthesia used for women in labor

A

regional(epidural)

88
Q

how can the nurse attempt to avoid a spinal headache in the client

A

lay flat for a few hrs after spinal, give fluids

89
Q

if a sedating preanesthetic med is given, what is an important safety measure

A

check respirations

90
Q

what are 2 common classes of medications that patients can build a tolerance and dependence on if used long term

A

opioid, benzodiazipines

91
Q

if a patient is taking anti anxiety medications, opioids, or any CNS depressant, what should be avoided for safety sake

A

overdose

92
Q

what class of medications are used for insomnia

A

barbiturates

93
Q

meperidine

A

demerol

94
Q

what are the 4 stages of anesthesia

A

induction, maintenance, recovery, rapid recovery

95
Q

what is the induction stage

A

time from patient awake - consciousness

96
Q

what is the maintenance stage

A

ability to keep patient safe

97
Q

what is the recovery stage

A

moving back to stage 1

98
Q

what is rapid recovery stage

A

recovery without side effects