Periop Flashcards

1
Q

______ surgery determines the origin or cause of disorder

A

diagnostic

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2
Q

______ surgery resolves health problems by repairing or removing cause

A

curative

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3
Q

______ surgery improves patient’s functional ability

A

restorative

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4
Q

_____ surgery relieves symptoms of disease process, but does no cure it

A

pallative

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5
Q

_____ surgery alters/enhances personal appearance

A

cosmetic

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6
Q

_____ surgery is when the patients should have surgery or else the consequences can be catastrophic

A

elective

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7
Q

_____ surgery is in needs of prompt attention within 24-30 hours

A

urgent

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8
Q

______ surgery is immediate attention without delay

A

emergent

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9
Q

when does the preoperative phase begin and end

A

when the pt. is scheduled for surgery to when they are transferred to the surgical suite

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10
Q

the nurse must report an imbalance in ______ during the preop phase immediately

A

potassium

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11
Q

hypokalemia increases risk for _____ toxicity

A

digoxin

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12
Q

hyperkalemia increases risks for ______ especially with anesthesia

A

arrythmias

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13
Q

hypokalemia slows recovery from _______

A

anesthesia

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14
Q

hypokalemia increases ____ irritability

A

cardiac

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15
Q

pt. should stop smoking ___ weeks before surgery

A

6

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16
Q

pt. should stop ASA or anticoagulants __ weeks before surgery

A

2

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17
Q

allergy to shellfish has a cross allergy with _____

A

iodine

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18
Q

fruits such as avocados, strawberries, and bananas have a cross allergy with ______

A

latex

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19
Q

eggs, peanuts, and soy allergies have a cross allergy with ______ which is used to induce and maintain anesthesia

A

Diprivan

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20
Q

elevated _______ lab values are a contraindication of surgery

A

coagulation

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21
Q

pt. should shower with ______ _____ 1-2 days and nights before surgery

A

chlorohexadine gluconate

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22
Q

who is responsible for having the informed consent signed

A

surgeon

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23
Q

3 meds that facilitate anesthesia induction and reduce the amount needed

A

Ketamine (ketamine HCL)
Sublimaze (fentanyl citrate)
Codeine sulfate

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24
Q

antiemetic med that reduces N/V

A

zofran

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25
Q

H2 receptor agonist that is prophylactic for aspiration

A

Famotidine (pepcid)

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26
Q

gastrokinetic agent given to prevent gastroparesis in diabetics

A

reglan

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27
Q

PO medications given “on call” are given ___ to ___ minutes before transport

A

60-90

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28
Q

IM medications are usually given ___ to ___ minutes before transport

A

30-60

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29
Q

IV medications are usually not given until the patient is in the _____ ____ area

A

preop holding

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30
Q

patients with a history of _____, ____, or _____ heart disease need prophylactic antibiotics

A

congenital, rheumatic, or valvular

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31
Q

pt. undergoing eye surgery needs eye drop every __ mins during pre-op

A

5

32
Q

medications for _____, _____, or ____ can be given pre-op 2 hours before anesthesia if the patient needs them

A

cardiac, respiratory, seizure

33
Q

reduce doses of _____ and ____ insulin for surgery

A

long, intermediate

34
Q

divide doses of _____ insulin for surgery

A

regular

35
Q

insulin pumps will remain on person at _____ rate

A

basal

36
Q

thiazide diuretics may cause _____ _____ during surgery

A

respiratory depression

37
Q

________ may increase the hyposensitivity action of anesthetics

A

phenothizines

38
Q

_______ increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics

A

MAOIs

39
Q

always start an IV with ____ before giving insulin

A

dextrose

40
Q

antibiotics ending in MYCIN and curariform combined will cause _____

A

apnea

41
Q

long term use of _____ may alter the patients response to analgesic agents

A

opioids

42
Q

fast meds can be given __ hour post op

A

1

43
Q

clear liquids can be given ___ hours postop

A

2

44
Q

breast milk can be given ____ hours post op

A

4

45
Q

nonhuman milk or formulas can be given ____ house post op

A

6

46
Q

light meal can be given ___ hours postop

A

6

47
Q

regular meal can be given ___ hours postop

A

8

48
Q

who marks the surgical site

A

nurse

49
Q

monitored anesthesia care (MAC) is a _____ anesthetic combined with ______

A

local, analgesic

50
Q

MAC is administered by _____

A

CRNA

51
Q

3 complications of anesthesia

A

hypoxia
hypothermia
malignant hyperthermia

52
Q

in malignant hyperthermia there will be dark _____ urine

A

brown

53
Q

malignant hyperthermia will increase body temp quickly to ____ or higher

A

105

54
Q

in malignant hyperthermia the pt. may have an _______ HR and increased ______ _____ levels

A

irregular, carbon dioxide

55
Q

genetic testing for malignant hyperthermia looks for the _____ gene

A

RYR1

56
Q

reversal agent for malignant hyperthermia

A

datrolene

57
Q

other anesthesia complication that is reversible

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation

58
Q

a PACU nurse should assess VS every ___ minutes

A

15

59
Q

if the O2 sat drops ___% from baseline or below ___% post-op the PACU nurse should call the rapid response team

A

10,95

60
Q

______ shock is due to blood loss

A

hypovolemic

61
Q

class I hypovolemic shock is loss of _____ml or ____% of total volume

A

750, 15

62
Q

class II hypovolemic shock is loss of ____ to ___ ml or ____ to ___% of total volume

A

750 to 1000, 15-30

63
Q

class III hypovolemic shock is loss of ______ to _____ ml or ___ to ___% of total volume

A

1500-2000, 30-40

64
Q

class IV hypovolemic shock is loss of more than _____ ml or more than ____% of total volume

A

2000, 40

65
Q

the systolic BP during hypovolemic shock will range from ____ to _____

A

60-80

66
Q

in hypovolemic shock the HR will be ____ or higher

A

140

67
Q

in hypovolemic shock the RR will be ____ or higher

A

35

68
Q

you want HCT to get back to ___% in hypovolemic shock

A

32

69
Q

MAP should be between ____ and ____ after treating hypovolemia shock

A

70-105

70
Q

cardiac index should be between ____ and ____ l/min/m2 when treating hypovolemic shock

A

2.5-4

71
Q

in addition to blood products, administer _____ and ______ for hypovolemic shock

A

colloids, crystacolloids

72
Q

who changes the 1st surgical dressing

A

member of surgical team

73
Q

separation of surgical wound

A

dehiscence

74
Q

separation of surgical wound with intestines protruding through

A

evisceration

75
Q

a ____ ____ is the person most likely to administer blood products in the operating suite

A

circulating nurse