Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Med Surg > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

3 medications that affect your teeth

A

antidepressants
anti-inflammatory
diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

poor dentation puts you at risk for _____ _____ _____

A

mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bacteria in the dental pulp that spreads to the gums

A

periapical abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

diets high in _____ can cause periapical abscesses

A

sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

risk factor for periapical abscess

A

dental carries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

inflamed or sore mouth

A

stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3 things in magic mouthwash for stomatitis

A

benadryl
Maalox
Viscous lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

swish and swallow medication for stomatitis

A

nystatin (mycostatin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

medication for stomatitis if it is viral

A

acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

with stomatitis do not use ______ mouth swabs

A

chlorhexidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

with stomatitis do not use mouthwash with _______

A

alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

4 causes of TMJ

A

stress
trauma
dislocation
arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 common side effects with TMJ

A

headaches
dizziness
hearing problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

2 types of medication taken for TMJ

A

muscle relaxers
anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

salivary gland inflammation

A

sialidenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_____ _____ can block the salivary glands and cause sialadenitis

A

salvatory stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

if sialadenitis goes untreated an abscess can spread to the ____ and _____

A

neck and mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

substances that trigger saliva flow like hard candy or lemon juice

A

sialagogues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

xerostomia

A

dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

esophageal tumors are often mistaken for ______

A

reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

esophageal tumors usually affect the ____ 2/3 of the esophagus

A

lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

painful swallowing

A

odynophagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

alcohol causes vasodilation in the esophagus which can lead to esophageal ______

A

varicies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

surgery done to remove cancer or tumors in the lymph nodes, mouth, tongue, or other areas of the throat or mouth

A

radial neck dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

nerve that controls lower lip movement

A

marginal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

nerve that aids in shoulder motility and raising the arms over the head

A

spinal accessory nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

nerve that controls movement of the tongue

A

hypoglossal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

nerve that controls the sensation of the tongue

A

lingual nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

nerve that controls that movement of one vocal cord

A

vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

4 things removed in a total radial neck dissection

A

cervical lymph nodes
sternocleidomastoid muscle
internal jugular vein
spinal accessory muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

total radial neck dissection is most common for ______ _____

A

esophageal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

a modified radial neck dissection is when the ______ is left in place

A

muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

a selective radial neck dissection is when fewer ______ ____ are removed

A

lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

priority post-op with radial neck dissection

A

airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

there may be permanent numbness in the _____ and _____ after radial neck dissection

A

ear and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

absent or ineffective peristalsis of the distal esophagus as well as the failure of the esophageal sphincter to relax upon swallowing

A

achalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

achalasia can be caused by _____ being stuck in the throat and dissolving

A

pills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

3 symptoms of achalasia

A

dysphagia
regurgitation
heartburn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

with achalasia, the patient should eat slowly and with _____

A

water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

intermittent tightening of the esophagus

A

esophageal spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

esophageal spasms can often mimic _____ pain

A

heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

2 types of esophageal spasms

A

diffuse esophageal spasm
nutcracker esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

5 medications to take for esophageal spasms

A

CCB
smooth muscle relaxers
anticholinergics
TCAs
PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

most common type of hiatal hernia

A

sliding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

avoid _______ drugs with hiatal hernias

A

anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

2 things that diagnose hiatal hernia

A

CT scan
endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

surgical procedure that fixes hiatal hernia

A

fundoplication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

after fundoplication the patient cannot ________ because it will put pressure on what was fixed

A

vomit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

outpouching in the esophageal wall forming small sacs from herniation

A

esophageal diverticula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

_______ sign is heard with Boerhaave’s syndrome which is SQ crackling caused by emphysema

A

Hamman’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

triad of symptoms for Boerhaave’s syndrome

A

SQ emphysema
bright red vomit
chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

procedure done to repair hole from Boerhaave’s syndrome

A

vacuum assisted thoracotomy (VATS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

2 medications given with a swallowed foreign body because it relaxes the sphincter to allow it to pass into the stomach

A

glucagon
CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

the best place the retrieve a swallowed foreign body

A

stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

_______ beverages can also be used to relax the esophageal sphincter if you swallow a foreign body

A

carbonated

56
Q

stomach acid unbinds vitamin ____ from the food we eat

A

B12

57
Q

vitamin B12 is absorbed in the _____ _____

A

small intestines

58
Q

erosive acute gastritis is usually caused by _______, such as drugs and alcohol

A

irritants

59
Q

erosive acute gastritis can lead to _______

A

hemorrhaging

60
Q

non-erosive acute gastritis is caused by ________ bacterial infection

A

H. pylori

61
Q

most common cause of chronic gastritis

A

H. pylori

62
Q

3 autoimmune disorders that can cause chronic gastritis

A

hashimoto
Graves
Addisons

63
Q

atrophy of the gastric tissue in chronic gastritis can cause decreased _____ absorption

A

B12

64
Q

chronic gastritis only has a few symptoms unless there is ______

A

ulcercation

65
Q

3 meds taken for GERD

A

PPI
H2 blockers
promotility agents

66
Q

mucosal barrier taken with gastritis that coats the lining of mucosa in the belly to protect the ulcer

A

carafate

67
Q

medications to avoid with gastritis

A

NSAIDs and ASA

68
Q

most common site for peptic ulcers

A

duodenum

69
Q

_______ peptic ulcers have normal to high acid secretion and ______ peptic ulcers have normal to low acid secretion

A

duodenum, gastric

70
Q

blood type more likely to get duodenum ulcers

A

type O

71
Q

blood type more likely to get gastric ulcers

A

type A

72
Q

with _______ peptic ulcers, pain gets better after eating food then worse 2-3 hours later

A

duodenal

73
Q

with ______ peptic ulcers pain is nor relieved or worsened by eating food

A

gastric

74
Q

duodenal ulcers are located on the ________ duodenum

A

proximal

75
Q

gastric ulcers are located on the ____ ____

A

lesser curvature

76
Q

5 herbs and vitamins that can be taken for PUD

A

licorice
zinc
vitamin C
vitamin A
glutamine

77
Q

fluids to give with GI bleed because it causes hypovolemia

A

isotonic

78
Q

aggressive acid suppression drugs given with GI bleed

A

Octreotide (Sandostatin)

79
Q

hernia that can be pushed back through the abdomen wall

A

reducible

80
Q

hernia that cannot be pushed back through the abdomen wall and needs to be repaired with surgery

A

irreducible

81
Q

hernia that becomes ischemic due to decreased blood supply

A

strangulated

82
Q

_______ inguinal hernia is near the opening of the inguinal canal and a _______ inguinal hernia is at the opening of the inguinal canal

A

direct, indirect

83
Q

a _____ belt holds a reduced hernia back in place after it is pushed in

A

truss

84
Q

if bowel sounds are absent, it means the hernia is ________

A

strangulated

85
Q

with IBS you should increase fiber intake to ___ - ____ grams daily

A

30-40

86
Q

2 medications for constipation dominant IBS

A

psyllium (metamucil)
linzess

87
Q

2 medications for diarrhea dominant IBS

A

imodium
psyllium

88
Q

SSRA taken for IBS

A

alosetron (lotronex)

89
Q

alosetron (lotronex) can be a risky drug for IBS because it can cause ______ _____

A

ischemic colitis

90
Q

TCA that decreases tone of esophagogastric sphincter that treates IBS

A

Elavil

91
Q

race and gender celiac disease is more common in

A

white women

92
Q

disease that celiacs disease is more common in

A

type 1 DM

93
Q

celiac disease is more common in _________ abnormalities such as down’s syndrome and Truner’s syndrome

A

chromosome

94
Q

2 things to avoid with celiacs disease

A

lipstick
toothpaste

95
Q

dumping syndrome is especially fast in emptying food into the small intestine that is high in _____

A

sugar

96
Q

dumping syndrome is common after ______ surgery

A

gastric

97
Q

5 early symptoms of dumping syndrome

A

vertigo
tachycardia
syncope
diaphoresis
desire to lie down

98
Q

late symptoms occur ___ to ____ after ingestion

A

90 minutes - 3 hours

99
Q

dumping syndrome causes a rapid release of ______ after rapid entry of carbs into the jejunum

A

insulin

100
Q

3 late symptoms of dumping syndrome

A

dizziness
palpitations
confusion

101
Q

dumping syndrome patients should have a diet high in _____ and ____ and a diet low in ______

A

protein and fat, carbs

102
Q

dumping syndrome patients should eat ____ meals

A

small

103
Q

with dumping syndrome you should not ingest fluid within ____ minutes of meals

A

30

104
Q

sac like herniation of the lining of the GI tract that extends through a defined muscle layer

A

diverticulum

105
Q

diverticulum can occur anywhere in the GI tract, but most commonly in the ______

A

bowel

106
Q

multiple diverticula without inflammation or infection

A

diverticulosis

107
Q

infection or inflammation of the diverticula

A

diverticulitis

108
Q

untreated diverticulitis can cause _______

A

periontitis

109
Q

diverticulum only have symptoms if they are _______

A

inflammed

110
Q

3 things to avoid with diverticula disease

A

nuts
seeds
alcohol

111
Q

you should avoid ____ when diverticulitis occurs, but encourage it when it is just diverticulum

A

fiber

112
Q

BRAT diet

A

bananas
rice
apple sauce
toast

113
Q

with gastroenteritis so not give medications that suppress _______ _____

A

gastric motility

114
Q

with gastroenteritis the patients should be doing _____ _____ therapy if they can tolerate it

A

oral rehydration

115
Q

fast development of appendicitis may lead to _____, _____, or _____ within 24-36 hours

A

perionitis, gangrene, sepsis

116
Q

the appendix serves a reservoir of the byproducts of digestion that empties into the _____

A

cecum

117
Q

when appendicitis pain randomly stops, it is a sign of ________

A

rupture

118
Q

with appendicitis keep the pt. in ________ position to control leakage into lower abdomen

A

semi-fowlers

119
Q

3 things that you should not do to someone with appendicitis because they increase the risk for perforation

A

enemas
laxatives
heat

120
Q

patient with appendicitis will have rebound pain or tenderness at ______ point

A

McBurney’s point

121
Q

infection of peritoneum caused by the perforation of an organ and spillage of its contents

A

peritonitis

122
Q

4 cardinal signs of peritonitis

A

abdominal pain
distention
tenderness
board like abdomen

123
Q

electrolytes altered by peritonitis

A

potassium
sodium
chloride

124
Q

peritonitis puts you at risk for ______

A

sepsis

125
Q

2 medications given after surgery for peritonitis

A

opioids
stool softeners

126
Q

ulcerative colitis is in the ______ _____ and ______

A

descending colon and rectum

127
Q

UC peaks age ___ to ___ and then again ages ___ to ___

A

15 to 30, 50 to 70

128
Q

Crohns disease occurs in the ____ ____ and _____

A

ascending ileum and colon

129
Q

UC patients often have _____, which is ineffective and sometimes painful straining and urge to eliminate feces

A

tenesmus

130
Q

UC patients have an increased risk of osteoporotic fractures because of ______ use

A

steroid

131
Q

UC patients are more at risk for _____ cancer

A

colon

132
Q

4 things to avoid with UC

A

enteric coated pills
NSAIDs
laxatives
enemas

133
Q

Crohns disease effects the small intestine where ____ is absorbed

A

B12

134
Q

in Crohns disease the bowel has a _________ appearance

A

cobblestone

135
Q

Crohns disease is made worse by _______ infections

A

bacterial

136
Q

2 labs decreased in Crohns disease

A

Folic acid
albumin

137
Q

Crohns patients should limit dietary _____ and eat foods low in _____

A

fiber, fats

Med Surg (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions