Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

5 causes of sinus bradycardia

A

sleep
athletic training
hypothyroidism
vagal stimulation
increased intracranial pressure
MI

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2
Q

if sinus bradycardia is consistent with SOB, altered mental status, angina, or hypotension then treat with ___ mg of _______ rapid IV and repeat every ____ to ____ minutes until the max dose of ____ mg is given

A

0.5, atropine, 3-5 minutes, 3 mg

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3
Q

2 treatments of sinus bradycardia if unresponsive to atropine

A

emergency transcutaneous pacing
catecholamines (dopamine, epi)

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4
Q

8 causes of sinus tachycardia

A

acute blood loss
anemia
shock
heart failure
pain
fever
exercise
anxiety

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5
Q

stimulants that can cause sinus tachycardia

A

caffeine
nicotine
illicit drugs

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6
Q

syndrome that can cause sinus tachycardia

A

postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (POTS)

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7
Q

if sinus tachycardia is causing hemodynamic instability, treat with _________ _______

A

synchronized cardioversion

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8
Q

5 vagal maneuvers that are used to treat sinus tachycardia

A

carotid sinus massage
gagging
bearing down
forceful cough
cold stimuli to the face

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9
Q

medication used to treat sinus tachycardia

A

adenosine

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10
Q

sinus arrhythmia is when SA node pacing rate changes with _______

A

respirations

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11
Q

irregular heart rate caused by atrial foci become irritable and cause spontaneous firing og impulse causing depolarization

A

premature atrial contraction (PAC)

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12
Q

PAC causes an early and different __ wave

A

P

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13
Q

6 causes of PAC

A

adrenaline
increased sympathetic stimulation
stimulants
hyperthyroidism
anxiety
hyokalemia

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14
Q

most common dysrhythmia

A

A fib

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15
Q

heart rhythm caused by continuous rapid firing of multiple atrial foci that dont depolarize the atria

A

A fib

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16
Q

in A fib you do not see a __ wave

A

P

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17
Q

9 risk factors of A fib

A

heart failure
hypertension
diabetes
obesity
valvular heart disease
obstructive sleep apnea
alcohol
hyperthyroidism
post op cardiac surgery

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18
Q

atrial and ventricular A fib rate

A

atrial: 300-600
ventricular: 120-200

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19
Q

if a patient has A fib and is low stroke risk, treat with ______ _______ mg once daily

A

asprin 75-325 mg

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20
Q

if the patient has A fib and has moderate stroke risk treat with oral _______ such as warfarin or _______ ___ inhibitors

A

anticoagulants, factor XA

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21
Q

factor XA inhibitors

A

dabigatran (pradaxa)
rivarixaban (xarelto)
apixaban (eliquis)

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22
Q

antiarrhythmic medications for A fib

A

beta blockers and calcium channel blockers

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23
Q

2 nonpharmacological treatments for A fib

A

electrical cardioversion
catheter ablation therapy

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24
Q

atrial flutter is when atrial foci are ______ and fire rapidly

A

irritated

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25
Q

atrial flutter atrial and ventricular rate

A

atrial: 250-400
ventricular: 75-150

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26
Q

in atrial flutter the P wave is saw tooth shaped and called __ wave

A

F

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27
Q

physical treatment for atrial flutter

A

vagal maneuvers

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28
Q

medication used to treat atrial flutter

A

adenosine

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29
Q

adenosine is followed by 20 ml _____ flush and elevation of the _____

A

saline, arm

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30
Q

atrial flutter has a lot of the same treatments as _____ _____

A

atrial fibrillation

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31
Q

a syndrome that occurs in A fib when there is congenital tissue in the heart

A

wolff parkinson white syndrome

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32
Q

treatment for wolff parkinson white syndrome

A

electrical cardioversion

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33
Q

_________ phenomenon is intermittent arterial vaso-occlusion or vasospasm on the fingers or toes

A

Raynauds

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34
Q

Raynauds disease is often associated with _______ diseases

A

autoimmune

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35
Q

autoimmune diseases that can cause Raynauds pehnomenon

A

systemic erythematous lupus
rheumatoid arthritis
scleroderma

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36
Q

symptoms of Raynauds may result from a defect in _____ ____ production and decrease the cutaneous blood vessels ability to _______

A

basal heat, dilate

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37
Q

Raynauds disease is associated with ________

A

smoking

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38
Q

variant of Raynauds that is also agitated by stress or extreme cold

A

Acrocyanosis

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39
Q

acrocyanosis and raynauds make the fingers _____ and cause ________

A

blue, hyperhidrosis

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40
Q

in raynauds the fingers turn ______ due to vasoconstriction

A

pale

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41
Q

in raynauds the fingers turn _____ due to deoxygenated blood pooling during vasospasm

A

blue

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42
Q

in raynauds the fingers turn _____ due to exaggerated reflow due to vasodilation after

A

red

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43
Q

medication taken to treat Raynaud’s syndrome because it causes vasoconstriction

A

calcium channel blockers

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44
Q

people with Raynauds should avoid ______ and ______ because it triggers it

A

cold, tobacco

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45
Q

varicose veins are cause by reflux of venous blood that causes venous _______

A

stasis

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46
Q

varicose veins are causes by ______ or _______ valves

A

damaged or incompentent

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47
Q

dilated intradermal veins that are distended 1-3 mm in diameter and are visible on the skins surface

A

telangiectasias (spider veins)

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48
Q

high _____ states are a risk factor for vericose veins

A

estrogen

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49
Q

with vericose veins the skin may turn _____ due to extravastated veins

A

brown

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50
Q

_______ ultrasound can show where the reflux of vericose veins are and how severe

A

duplex

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51
Q

2 positions of patient when using duplex ultrasound

A

trendelenberg or standing

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52
Q

rarely used diagnostic test for vericose veins that involves IV contrast

A

venography

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53
Q

3 E’s to medical management of vericose veins

A

elastic compression socks
exercise
elevation

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54
Q

3 things to avoid with vericose veins

A

crossing legs, sitting or standing for long, wearing socks that are too tight

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55
Q

treatment used for small variscosities

A

sclerotherapy

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56
Q

nonsurgical treatment for varicose veins

A

thermal ablation

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57
Q

acute inflammation of the lymphatic chain usually in the extremity

A

lymphangitis

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58
Q

bacteria that usually causes lymphangitis

A

hemolytic streptococcus

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59
Q

what lymphangitis looks like

A

red streaks extend up the extremity outlining the course of the lymphatic vessels

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60
Q

acute inflammation of the lymph node

A

lymphadenitis

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61
Q

lymphadenitis can become _____ and form an ______

A

necrotic, abcess

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62
Q

3 places lymphadenitis usually affects

A

groin, axilla, cervical region

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63
Q

3 treatments for lymphangitis and lymphadentitis

A

antibiotics
NSAIDs
compression socks

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64
Q

tissue swelling due to increased lymph from obstruction of lymph vessels

A

lymphedema

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65
Q

cause of primary lymphedema

A

congenital malformations

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66
Q

cause if secondary lymphedema

A

aqcuired obstructions

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67
Q

lymphedema is most commonly ______ and occurs in women before the age of ____

A

primary, 35

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68
Q

in lymphedema the swelling is ______ and ______ and then becomes ______ and _____

A

soft and pitting, hard and nonpitting

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69
Q

lymphedema is commonly seen with ______ _____ _____ due to breast cancer

A

axillary node dissection

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70
Q

lymphedema can happen with _____ veins

A

varicose

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71
Q

chronic lymphedema leads to outbursts of ______ that are characterized by fever and chills

A

infection

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72
Q

3 things that happen to the extremity when chronic lymphedema becomes infectious

A
  • chronic fibrosis
  • thickening of the subcutaneous tissue
  • hypertrophy of the skin
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73
Q

type of lymphedema when chronic swelling only slightly goes away with elevation

A

elephantisias

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74
Q

diuretic given to help with lymphedema

A

Lasix

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75
Q

other medication class used with lymphedema

A

antibiotics

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76
Q

surgical management is used for severe lymphedema one of these three things happens

A

uncontrolled by medical management
mobility id severly impaired
infection persists

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77
Q

a patient who undergoes surgical management for lymphedema must avoid _____ _____ and stay out of the ____

A

heating pads, sun

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78
Q

most common infectious cause of limb swelling

A

cellulitis

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79
Q

cellulitis occurs when bacteria enters the ____ and ______ tissues

A

skin, subcutaneous

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80
Q

2 bacteria that mostly cause cellulitis

A

streptococcus and staphylococcus aureus

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81
Q

cellulitis usually has the cardinal signs of inflammation, but can sometimes have systemic signs of a _____

A

fever

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82
Q

in cellulitis, there will be ______ _____ enlargement

A

lymph node

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83
Q

treat cellulitis with oral ______ if mild or IV _______ if severe

A

antibitoics

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84
Q

to treat cellulitis apply ___ packs every 2 to 4 hours until swelling resolves and then switch to ____ packs

A

cool to warm

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85
Q

most common type of heart failure

A

systolic heart failure

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86
Q

a syndrome from functional or structural cardiac disorders so that the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the bodys demands

A

heart failure

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87
Q

heart failure can cause impaired contraction which is a ______ dysfunction or problems filling the heart which is a _______ dysfucntion

A

systolic, diastolic

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88
Q

systolic heart failure is an alteration in ________ _______

A

ventricular contraction

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89
Q

systolic HF is characterized by ______ heart muscle

A

weakened

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90
Q

diastolic HF is characterized by ______ heart muscle

A

stiff

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91
Q

diastolic HF makes it hard for the ____ _____ to fill

A

left ventricle

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92
Q

both types of HF are identified by assessment of the _____ _____ function with an ______

A

left ventricle, echocardiogram

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93
Q

ultrasound of the heart that shows us ejection fraction

A

echocardiogramp

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94
Q

calculation of how much blood is being ejected from the heart during systole

A

ejection fraction

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95
Q

normal ejection fraction

A

55% - 65%

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96
Q

people with HF with have a ______ ejection fraction

A

lower

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97
Q

an ejection fraction lower than ____% is indicative of a heart transplant

A

15

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98
Q

class __ HF is no limitations of physical activity, ordinary activity does not undue fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea

A

1

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99
Q

class __ HF where there is slight limitations of physical activity, comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity causes fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea

A

2

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100
Q

class __ HF is marked limitation of physical activity, comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea

A

3

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101
Q

class ___ HF is unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort, symptoms of cardiac insufficiency at rest, physical activity increased discomfort

A

4

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102
Q

HF occurs over time and is _______

A

progressive

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103
Q

5 common causes of HF

A

MI
HTN
cardiomyopathy
valvular heart disease
renal failure

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104
Q

in left sided HF the blood will back up to the ______

A

lungs

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105
Q

left sided HF can cause _____ which is difficulty breathing when laying flat

A

orthopnea

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106
Q

left sided HF can cause ______ _____ _____ which is a sudden attack of dyspnea at night

A

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

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107
Q

left sided HF causes a _______ cough

A

nonproductive

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108
Q

with left sided HF you can hear _____ in the lungs

A

crackles

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109
Q

in left sided HF you will hear ___ heart sound

A

S3

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110
Q

left sided HF causes weak ______ pulses and tachycardia

A

peripheral

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111
Q

right sided HF is usually _______ to left sided HF

A

secondary

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112
Q

right sided HF increases venous pressure which causes ______ _____ _____

A

jugular vein distention

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113
Q

right sided HF will cause edema in the _____ exrtremities

A

lower

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114
Q

right sided HF can cause enlargement of the liver known as ________

A

hepatomegaly

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115
Q

right sided HF can lead to fluid accumulation in the abdomen known as ______

A

ascites

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116
Q

ejection fraction less than ___% is HF

A

55

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117
Q

blood test that measures cardiac filling pressures and can diagnose HF

A

B-type Natriuretic peptide (BNP)

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118
Q

normal BNP range

A

0.5

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119
Q

2 things used to determine if HF is caused by coronary artery disease or ischemia

A

cardiac stress test
cardiac catheritization

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120
Q

first-line therapy drug for heart failure

A

ACE inhibitors

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121
Q

2 examples of ACE inhibitors

A

lisinopril
enalapril

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122
Q

ACE inhibitors and ARBs promote ______ and _____ thus decreasing afterload and preload

A

vasodilation, diuresis

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123
Q

ACE inhibitors and ARBs may increase _____ levels

A

potassium

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124
Q

ACE inhibitors can often cause a _____ and is the reason most people do not take them

A

cough, renal

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125
Q

ACE inhibitors and ARBs often decrease _____ function

A

renal

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126
Q

2 examples of ARBs

A

valsartan
losartan

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127
Q

combo therapy of _____ and _____ ____ is often used for people who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors

A

hydralazine, isosorbide

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128
Q

isosorbide dinitrate is a nitrate and causes _______, which decreased preload

A

vasodilation

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129
Q

hydralazine decreases _______ ____ ______ which decreased after-load

A

systemic vascular resistance

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130
Q

first line therapy used in combo with ACE inhibitors for CHF

A

beta blockers

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131
Q

beta blockers relax _____ ____, lowers ____ _____, decreases _______ as well as workload

A

blood vessels, blood pressure, afterload

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132
Q

beta blockers improve ________ capacity

A

exercise

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133
Q

observe for decreased ____ ___ with beta blockers

A

heart rate

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134
Q

beta blockers may cause _______ and ________

A

dizziness and fatigue

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135
Q

beta blockers needs to be used carefully with lung diseases because they cause ________

A

bronchoconstriction

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136
Q

example of loop diuretic

A

lasix

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137
Q

loop diuretics inhibit ______ and ______ reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle

A

sodium, chloride

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138
Q

loop diuretic increase _____ excretion

A

potassium

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139
Q

first line diuretic therapy for HF

A

loop diuretic

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140
Q

3 things to monitor with loop diuretics and thiazides

A

hypokalemia
hypotension
kidney injury

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141
Q

2 examples of thiazide diuretics

A

metolazone
hydrochlororhiazide

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142
Q

thiazides inhibit ________ and ________ reabsorption in the early distal tubules

A

sodium and chloride

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143
Q

thiazides increase ______ excretion

A

potassium

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144
Q

thiazides can be used in combo with _____ diuretics

A

loop

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145
Q

aldosterone antagonists are ________ ______ diuretics

A

potassium sapring

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146
Q

example of aldosterone antagonists

A

spirolactone

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147
Q

aldosterone antagonists block the effect of ______ in the distal tubule and collecting duct

A

aldosterone

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148
Q

with potassium sparing diuretics monitor for _______ and serum _____

A

hyperkalemia, creatine

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149
Q

digitalis example

A

digoxin

150
Q

digitalis improves cardiac _______

A

contractability

151
Q

digitalis may cause ________

A

bradycardia

152
Q

must check ______ pulse before giving digoxin

A

apical

153
Q

monitor serum potassium levels with digitalis because _______ enhances the effects of it

A

hypokalemia

154
Q

5 signs of digitalis toxicity

A

anorexia
nausea
visual changes
confusion
bradycardia

155
Q

2 IV infusions used for HF

A

milirone and dobutamine

156
Q

milirone increases myocardial cell ________

A

contractability

157
Q

milirone promotes ______ and decreases overall workload of the heart

A

vasodilation

158
Q

monitor for ______ and ______ _____ with milirone

A

hypotension, cardiac dysrhythmias

159
Q

dobutamine stimulates _______ ______ receptors

A

beta-1 adrenergic

160
Q

dobutamine increases cardiac ______ and ____ perfusion

A

contractibility, perfusion

161
Q

potassium level

A

3.5-5.0

162
Q

potassium is found in the _________ fluid

A

intracellular

163
Q

potassium helps with _______ and ______ muscle contraction

A

skeletal and cardiac

164
Q

___% of potassium is excreted by the renal system and ___% is excreted through the bowel/skin

A

80, 20

165
Q

the ______ do not conserve potassium well

A

kidneys

166
Q

IV administration of ____ ______ can help with hyperkalemia

A

sodium bicarbonate

167
Q

2 things to monitor for with sodium bicarbonate administration

A

fluid overload
hypernatremia

168
Q

oral treatments for hyperkalemia

A

glucose/insulin therapy
loop diuretics

169
Q

treatment for hyperkalemia if renal function is compromised

A

dialysis

170
Q

dietary intake of ___ to ___ meq of potassium a day can help hypokalemia

A

40-80

171
Q

sodium level

A

135-145

172
Q

sodium is most common in the _______ fluid

A

extracellular

173
Q

sodium is the most important in controlling _______ distribution

A

water

174
Q

3 things that regulate sodium

A

ADH
Thirst
renin-aldosterone system

175
Q

sodium is important for _______ contraction and ______ impulse

A

muscle, nerve

176
Q

sodium controls the 3 Bs

A

blood volume
blood pressure
pH balnce

177
Q

3 very important late and profound signs for hypernatremia

A

swollen dry tongue
nausea/vomiting
increased muscle tone

178
Q

hypernatremia should be reduced gradually no faster than ___ to ___ meq

A

0.5-1

179
Q

if you try to overcorrect hyponatremia too fast it can cause ______ damage

A

neurological

180
Q

do not increase sodium serum levels more than __ meq in 24 hours

A

12

181
Q

if neurological problems are present you will need to administer small amounts of _____ solution of decrease cerebral edema

A

hypertonic

182
Q

chloride levels

A

97-107

183
Q

chloride is an anion in the _______ fluid

A

extracellular

184
Q

chloride is found in _______ and ______ fluid

A

interstitial and lymph

185
Q

chloride is found in ____ secretions and ______ juices

A

GI, pancreatic

186
Q

chloride is reabsorbed and excreted by the ________

A

kidneys

187
Q

chloride serum level is directly related to _____ serum levels

A

sodium

188
Q

chloride assists in _______ contraction and _____ impulse

A

muscle, nerve

189
Q

chloride controls the 3 Bs

A

blood volume
blood pressure
pH balance

190
Q

3 treatments for hyercholermia

A

hypotonic solution
lasix
oral diuretics

191
Q

fluid treatment for hypocholermia

A

normal saline

192
Q

magnesium levels

A

1.3-2.1

193
Q

magnesium is abundant in the _______ fluid

A

intracellular

194
Q

magnesium is an activator or many intracellular ______ ______

A

enzymes systems

195
Q

magnesium plays a role in _____ and _____ metabolism

A

protein, carb

196
Q

magnesium is needed for ______ and vitamin ______ absorption

A

calcium, vitamin D

197
Q

magnesium is important in ________ function

A

neuromuscular

198
Q

magnesium inhibits the release of __________

A

acetylcholine

199
Q

magnesium causes vaso______ and decreased _______ ______ resistance

A

dilation, peripheral vascular

200
Q

IV _______ _______ is treatment for hypermagnesium that is severe

A

calcium gluconate

201
Q

avoid administration of magnesium with patient who have ______ problems/injury

A

kidney

202
Q

IV magnesium must be given slowly to not cause ______ ____

A

heart block

203
Q

calcium levels

A

8.6-10.2

204
Q

___% of calcium is in the bone

A

99

205
Q

3 Bs calcium controls

A

bone, blood, beats

206
Q

calcium is controlled by ____ and _______

A

PTH and clacitonin

207
Q

primary anion in ICF

A

potassium

208
Q

phosphorus levels

A

2.5-4.5

209
Q

phosphorus helps with ______ regulation

A

calcium

210
Q

aggressive treatment for hyperphosphatemia

A

IV calcitriol

211
Q

arterial baroreceptors regulate _______ and _______ to either increase or decrease BP

A

vasoconstriction, vasodilation

212
Q

the kidneys regulate ______ to increase or decrease BP

A

fluid

213
Q

the more fluid volume the ______ BP

A

higher

214
Q

the release of renin causes a reduced blood supply to the ______ to decrease BP

A

kidneys

215
Q

angiotensin I combines with _____ to create angiotensin II

A

renin

216
Q

angiotensin II is a potent _________

A

vasoconsrictor

217
Q

aldosterone causes reabsorption of _____ and _____ to decrease BP

A

sodium and water

218
Q

vascular autoregulation controls the ______ of the blood to change BP

A

viscostiy

219
Q

the thicker the blood the ______ the BP

A

higher

220
Q

normal BP category

A

less than 120/80

221
Q

elevated BP category

A

120-129/less than 80

222
Q

High BP stage 1

A

130-139/80-89

223
Q

high BP stage 2

A

140+/90+

224
Q

hypertensive crisis

A

180+/120+

225
Q

most common type of HTN

A

essential (primary)

226
Q

3 causes of essential hypertension

A

PVR, atherosclerosis, arteriosclerosis

227
Q

secondary hypertension is caused by ______ or _______ failure

A

kidney, heart

228
Q

_______ HTN is caused by abruptly stopping hypertension meds

A

rebound

229
Q

________ HTN has multiple factors or an idopathic cause

A

malignant

230
Q

3 symptoms with malignant HTN

A

HA
visual disturbances
uremia

231
Q

_______ syndrome is a risk factor for HTN

A

metabolic

232
Q

_______ conditions and _______ conditions are risk factors for secondary HTN

A

kidney, adrenal

233
Q

to reduce risk of HTN you should consume less than ______ mg of sodium a day

A

2400

234
Q

4 common symptoms of HTN

A

HA
Flushing
dizziness
fainting

235
Q

orthostatic HTN is confirmed if systolic BP decreased by ___ and diastolic decreases by ____ when standing

A

20, 10

236
Q

have patient lay on ____ side and listen in the _____ intercostal space for extra heart sounds

A

left, 5th

237
Q

S__ if a common heart sound heard with hypertension and is caused by a stiff _____ _____

A

4, left ventricle

238
Q

if a hypertension patient has tachycardia with sweating and pallor it can indicate ___________

A

pheochromocytoma (adrenal medulla tumor)

239
Q

inspect the _____ _____ on HTN exam for changes to the retina

A

optic fundus

240
Q

abdominal bruits can indicate _____ _____ or an _______ that are caused by hypertension

A

renal stenosis, aneurysms

241
Q

if creatine clearance rate is LOW then renal impairment is _______

A

high

242
Q

HTN can cause retinal ________ that causes retinal ischemia

A

hemmorage

243
Q

HTN can cause ________ which is swelling around the optic nerve and disc which indicates high intracranial pressure

A

papilledema

244
Q

most common ophthalmic issue caused by arteriosclerosis crossing over the venule and compressing it

A

AV nicking

245
Q

diet for HTN that is fruit, veggies, lean meats, low salt, and whole grains

A

DASH diet

246
Q

the DASH diet increases _____ which is an antioxidant that boosts the immune system

A

CoQ10

247
Q

1st line diuretic for HTN

A

thiazide diuretic

248
Q

4 classes of drugs fro HTN

A

thiazide diuretics
calcium channel blockers
ACE inhibitors
ARBs

249
Q

thiazides diuretics act on the ______ _____

A

distal tubule

250
Q

3 things thiazides promote the excretion of

A

potassium, bicarbonate, magnesium

251
Q

thiazide diuretics may decrease _______ excretion

A

calcium

252
Q

2 things loop diuretics may cause

A

ototoxicity and hypocalcemia

253
Q

calcium channel blockers interfere with the movement of calcium ions and result in __________

A

vasodilation

254
Q

calcium channel blockers block SA and AV node ______, therefore ______ the HR

A

conduction, decrease

255
Q

some CCB react with ______ juice and it enhances the effect of them

A

grapefruit

256
Q

do not administer CCB if HR is lower than ___ or if systolic BP is less than _____

A

60, 100

257
Q

ACE inhibitors block the conversion of what to what?

A

angiotensin I to angiotensin II

258
Q

ACE inhibitors decrease _____ and ______ retention

A

sodium, water

259
Q

ACE inhibitors lower _______

A

PVR

260
Q

do not give ACE inhibitors if systolic BP is less than ____

A

100

261
Q

when taking ARBs, avoid food high in ________

A

potassium

262
Q

3 second-line treatments for hypertension

A

aldosterone receptors antagonists
beta blockers
renin inhibitors

263
Q

aldosterone receptor antagonists block aldosterone to inhibit ______ reabsorption

A

sodium

264
Q

aldosterone receptor antagonists can cause high _______ and ______ levels BUT low _______ levels

A

triglycerides and potassium, sodium

265
Q

2 things that enhance the action of ARAs that should be avoided

A

St. John Warts
Grapefruit

266
Q

example of ARA

A

Eplerenone

267
Q

beta blockers decrease _____ ____ and ______ ______

A

heart rate, myocardial contractability

268
Q

drug of choice with ischemic heart disease

A

beta blockers

269
Q

beta blockers may cause ________ dysfunction

A

sexual

270
Q

beta blockers can mask the signs of ________ so diabetics should be careful

A

hypoglycemia

271
Q

medication used for mild to moderate HTN

A

renin inhibitors

272
Q

renin inhibitor example

A

Aliskiren

273
Q

renin inhibitors may cause ______ and _____

A

cough, diarrhea

274
Q

thickening of the artery that is usually associated with aging

A

arteriosclerosis

275
Q

arteriosclerosis causes problems with arteries ______

A

constricitng

276
Q

when lipid build up in the arteries and cause a blockage or narrowing

A

atherosclerosis

277
Q

most common cause of cardio vascular disease

A

atherosclerosis

278
Q

3 things atherosclerosis is associated with

A

diabetes
obesity
high cholesterol

279
Q

any dysfunction of the heart or blockages of the heart

A

coronary artery disease

280
Q

periodic chest pain brought about by ischemia

A

angina pectoris

281
Q

______ angina is chest pain that is caused by exertion

A

stable

282
Q

stable angina is relieved with _________

A

nitroglycerin

283
Q

________ angina is chest pain not related to exertion

A

unstable

284
Q

________ angina is more dangerous

A

unstable

285
Q

6 things that make up metabolic syndrome

A

insulin resistance
central obesity
dyslipidemia
HTN
proinflammatory state
prothrombotic state

286
Q

proinflammatory state is elevated _______ protein levels

A

C-reactive

287
Q

prothrombotic state is being at risk for _____

A

clots

288
Q

LDL should be under ____ or under ____ if high risk

A

100, 70

289
Q

HDL should be greater than __ in males and ___ in females

A

40, 50

290
Q

total cholesterol should be below _____

A

200

291
Q

triglycerides should be under ____

A

150

292
Q

angina pectoris is usually cased by _________

A

atherosclerosis

293
Q

______ angina is severe chest pain that happens before MI

A

intractable/refractory

294
Q

______ angina goes between unstable and stable

A

variatn

295
Q

variant angina is usually caused by _______

A

vasospasm

296
Q

when the patient feels no pain but the EKG shows ischemia

A

silent ischemia

297
Q

medication used with angina

A

nitrates
beta blockers
calcium channel blockers
antiplatalets
anticoagulents

298
Q

first line drug fro angina

A

nitrates (NTG)

299
Q

3 nitrates

A

nitroglycerin
isosorbide
ranolazine

300
Q

NTG relieves pain in __ minutes

A

3

301
Q

take a NTG every __ minutes and on the __ one call 911

A

5, 3

302
Q

beta-blockers reduce myocardial ________ consumption

A

oxygen

303
Q

beta blockers cna cause a __________ mood

A

depressed

304
Q

2 conditions that are contraindicated with beta blockers

A

AV block
acute heart failure

305
Q

if you stop beta blockers abruptly it can cause ____

A

MI

306
Q

CCB decrease SA node and AV node conduction and automaticity to decreas the _____ _____

A

heart rate

307
Q

CCB have a negative inotropic effect which _______ the force of contractions

A

weaken

308
Q

meds that decrease platelet aggregation and thrombosis

A

antiplatelets

309
Q

medication that prevents the formation of new clots

A

unfractionated heparin

310
Q

unfractionated heparin is used to treat ______ angina to reduce the chance of MI

A

unstable

311
Q

antibody-mediated response to heparin that may cause thrombosis

A

HIT

312
Q

in HIT you would see decreased _________ counts

A

platalete

313
Q

unfractionated heparin is therapeutic if PTT is ___ to ___ times normal value

A

2-2.5

314
Q

3 types of acute coronary syndromes

A

unstable angina
nonSTEMI
STEMI

315
Q

sudden constriction of the artery that can lead to MI

A

vasospasm

316
Q

2 ECG changes seen in MI/ACS

A

T wave inversion
ST segment elevation

317
Q

abnormal ____ wave develops 1-3 days after MI

A

Q

318
Q

abnormal Q wave without T wave or ST segment changes indicates an ____ MI

A

old

319
Q

________ _____ has the clinical manifestations of MI but not the ECG and biomarkers

A

unstable angina

320
Q

ST segment elevation in 2 leads = _____

A

STEMI

321
Q

STEMI causes _______ damage and more damage than NSTEMI

A

significant

322
Q

_______ has elevated biomarkers but no definite ECG evidence of acute MI

A

NSTEMI

323
Q

best biomarker for MI

A

troponin

324
Q

high troponin can be detected within a few hours of MI or up to __ weeks after

A

2

325
Q

3 isoenzymes tests for MI

A

troponin
creatine kinase
myoglobin

326
Q

creatine isoenzymes specific to heart

A

CK-MB

327
Q

CK-MB peaks within the first ___ hours of MI

A

24

328
Q

myoglobin peaks within ____ hours

A

12

329
Q

STEMI calls for emergency ____

A

PCI

330
Q

balloon-tipped catheter used to open blocked vessels

A

PTCA

331
Q

______ artery is commonly used for PCTA

A

femoral

332
Q

______ catheters are used for PCTAs

A

hollow

333
Q

_______ _____ ______ prevents re-stenosis after PTCA

A

coronary artery stent

334
Q

after coronary artery stent you have to take ______ for a year and then ______ for life

A

Plavix, asprin

335
Q

surgery that re-routes the blood flow to the heart and is used if there are multiple blockages

A

CABG

336
Q

CABG patients must take ________ agent after surgery

A

GPIIB/IIIa

337
Q

mechanical compression device used after femoral sheath is removed

A

C-clamp

338
Q

pneumatic compression device used after femoral sheath is removed

A

FemoStop

339
Q

venous vascular disorders are caused by ______ or ______ valves

A

spasms or incompetent valves

340
Q

arterial vascular disorders are caused by _______ or ______ arteries due to atherosclerosis

A

narrowing or blocked

341
Q

gender that is more at risk for peripheral arterial occlusive disease

A

females

342
Q

people with peripheral arterial occlusive disease often have pain with walking that is relived with rest called ________ ______

A

intermittent claudication

343
Q

the rest pain with peripheral arterial occlusive disease gets worse at _____ and is not relived with ______

A

night, opioids

344
Q

with peripheral arterial disease the legs are cool and pale when ______- but ruddy and cyanotic when _________

A

elevated, dependent

345
Q

with peripheral arterial occlusive disease the pulses are ______ and _____

A

diminished, unequal

346
Q

2 medications that someone with peripheral arterial disease can take to help with claudication

A

trental and pletal

347
Q

2 medications someone with peripheral arterial disease can take to prevent clot formation

A

ASA or Plavix

348
Q

_______ are a medication taken with peripheral arterial disease that helps improve endothelial function

A

statins

349
Q

after surgical management of peripheral arterial disease the patient should lay _____ for 6 hours after surgery

A

supine

350
Q

2 hours after peripheral arterial disease surgery, you can raise the head of the bed to ___ degrees

A

45

351
Q

virchow’s triad (peripheral venous disorders)

A

altered coagulation
venous stasis
endothelial damage

352
Q

4 characteristics of superficial veins on peripheral venous disorders

A

pain
tenderness
redness
wramth

353
Q

3 characteristics of deep veins in peripheral venous disorders

A

edema
warmth
tednerness

354
Q

2 medical management therapies for peripheral venous disease

A

anticoagulation therapy
thrombolytic therapy

355
Q

before giving heparin you must check _____ levels

A

PTT

356
Q

normal PTT is ___ to ____ seconds

A

22-26

357
Q

heparin and lovenox antidote

A

protamine sulfate

358
Q

warfarin antidote

A

vitamin K

359
Q

obstruction or reflux of the blood through the valves in the legs often a result of DVT

A

chronic venous insufficiency

360
Q

_______ ulcers are smaller, deeper, dryer, and more painful

A

arterial

361
Q

______ ulcers are larger, more superficial, and have exudate

A

venous

362
Q

thoracic aorta aneurysms are often ________

A

asymtpomatic

363
Q

if thoracic aortic aneurysms are symptomatic then they will have these 4 symptoms

A

constant abdominal pain
hoarseness
cough
dyspagia

364
Q

thoracic aortic is a common site for _________ aneurysm

A

dissecting

365
Q

____% of people with abdominal aortic aneurysms have symptoms

A

40

366
Q

4 symptoms of abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

severe back or abdominal pain
hypotension
low hematocrit
s/s of CHF

367
Q

there will be a mass that is seen plapating with an abdominal aortic aneurysm and you will hear a _____ over it

A

bruit

368
Q

6 P’s of arterial embolism and thrombosis

A

pallor
pulses diminished/absent
perishing cold
pain
paresthesia
paralysis

369
Q

2 surgical management for thrombosis or embolisms

A

thrombectomy
embolectomy

370
Q

2 therapies used for thrombosis or embolism

A

anticoagulant therapy
thrombolytic therapy

371
Q

do not use heating or cooling pads for patients with ______ or _____

A

thrombosis, embolism

372
Q

6 contraindications for thrombolytic therapy

A

active internal bleeding
CV hemorrhage
recent surgery
HTN
preganancy
recent head injury