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Radiology Review > Peds Trivia > Flashcards

Peds Trivia Flashcards

1
Q

before what exam is Cimetidine given

A

Meckels scan

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2
Q

Dose of phenobarbital before HIDA for biliary atresia

A

5 mg/kg/d for 3-5 days before the test

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3
Q

Hepatic calcification in young kid

A

get US, could be mass

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4
Q

Hepatoblastoma

A

usually < 5 yo

heterogeneous solid mass that can calcify

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5
Q

Hepatoblastoma is assoc with what syndrome

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome

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6
Q

Fatty infiltration of the pancreas in a kid

A

CF

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7
Q

Echogenic bowel seen on fetal US suggests what

A

CF (70%)

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8
Q

Hydropic GB with strawberry tongue, etc.

A

Kawasaki syndrome

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9
Q

Umbilical artery line

A

high position = T6-T10

Or low postion = L3-L5 (avoids mesenteric branches)

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10
Q

Umbilical vein line

A

should be at the inferior cavoatrial jcn

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11
Q

Multicystic dysplastic kidney

A

multiple noncommunicating cysts throughout the right kidney without dilated renal pelvis
- assoc with contralateral UPJ obstruction 7-27%

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12
Q

ARPKD

A

first decade of life
can have macrocysts, but most are 1-2 mm
congenital hepatic fibrosis

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13
Q

ADPKD

A

after first decade of life
macrocysts
berry aneurysms

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14
Q

Wilms tumor

A

heterogeneous mass arising from kidney (look for claw sign of renal paryenchyma)

Get CT of the chest for lung mets
Look for liver mets

commonly invades renal veins and IVC

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15
Q

Sickle trait and renal tumor

A

Medullary carcinoma

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16
Q

Bilateral pelvicaliectasis and thick, trabeculated bladder in the male

A

poster urethral valves - VCUG

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17
Q

What medication should be discontinued prior to MIBG study

A

TC antidepressants (imipramine)
Amphetamines
Insulin
reserpine

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18
Q

Neuroblastoma IV-S

A

skin, liver, and bone marrow mets (no cortical bone mets)

Good prognosis

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19
Q

< 3 months with heterogeneous solid mass in the kidney that involves the renal sinus

A

congenital mesoblastic nephroma

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20
Q

girl with spinning top proximal urethra on VCUG

A

unstable bladder contractions that are resisted by the distal voluntary sphincter = dysfunctional voiding

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21
Q

septated, T2 bright cystic mass in the vagina of the 2-6 yo or 14-18 yo girl

A

embyonal rhabodomyosarcoma (botryoides variant)

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22
Q

which ped renal tumor is most likely to go to bone

A

clear cell renal sarcoma

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23
Q

Medullary nephrocalcinosis in a kid

A

usually assoc with hypercalciuria (distal renal tubular acidosis and prolonged immobilization)

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24
Q

kidneys in kids should be within what size of each other

A

1 cm

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25
Q

MCL for osteomyelitis in kids

A

metaphysis

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26
Q

MCL for osteomyelitis in infacnts

A

epiphysis

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27
Q

lateral condylar fractures occur most often at what ages

A

5-10 yo and are usually Salter Harris Type IV

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28
Q

Blounts disease

A

inward bowing of the tibia (varus) with hypertrophy of the medial meniscus

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29
Q

unilateral spntaneous hip or knee pain with worsening joint stiffness with normal X ray and T2 bright confined to the middle third of the subchondral femoral head

A

idipathic chondrolysis

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30
Q

Chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis

A

often lytic followed by sclerosis in chronic course with bone marrow edema and periositis (usually in metaphysis of long bones)

may involve clavicle

assoc with Wegener granulomatosis

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31
Q

Lipomatosis of a nerve with macrodactyly

A

macrodystrophia lipomatosa

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32
Q

thanatophoric dysplasia

A

telephone receiver femurs
shortened ribs
flattened vertebral bodies
megalencephaly

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33
Q

Capitellar osteochondritis dissecans (elbow)

A

MC in kids with radial head subluxation

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34
Q

MCL of relapse of osteosarcoma

A

lung (90%)

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35
Q

structural scoliotic curve

A

vertebral morphologic changes like wedging and rotation (not correctable with ipsilateral bending)

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36
Q

what Cobb angle is bracing and surgery recommended

A

bracing - 20-45 degrees

Surgery - > 45 degrees

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37
Q

proximal focal femoral deficiency disorder

A

failure of development of the proximal femur

assoc with abscent cruciate ligaments

38
Q

Osteochondrosis of the inferior pole of the patella (10-14 yo)

A

Sindin-Larsen-Johansson syndrome (like osggod-schlatter of the patella)

39
Q

Congenital lobar overinflation

A

LUL > RML > RUL > lower lobes (rare)

hyperexpansion of one or more pulmonary lobes

40
Q

Round pneumonia

A

90% < 12 yo

usually Strep pneumo

41
Q

CF in lungs

A

central/perihilar distribution
upper lobe predominant
apical segments of the lower lobes

42
Q

large cystic lung mass with multiple septations with a hx of cystic nephroma and DICER-1 mutation

A

pleuropulmonary blastoma

43
Q

DDX of chest wall masses

A 
rhabdomyosarcoma
osteosarcoma
chest wall and pleural mets
lymphoma
solitary fibrous tumor of the pleura
44
Q

Lymph nodes in primary TB

A

usually right hilar
low density centers with enhancing rim on CT
primary TB doesn’t cavitate

45
Q

Haller index that is significant

A

> 3.25

46
Q

MC type of TE fistula

A

proximal esophageal atresia with distal fistula

47
Q

Fractures highly specific for kid abuse

A 
bucket handle or corner
posterior ribs
scapula
spine
sternum
48
Q

Assoc with schizencephaly

A

septo-optic dysplasia
Gray matter heterotopia
absent septum pellucidum

49
Q

most common suprasellar mass in kids

A

Craniopharyngioma

50
Q

Craniopharyngioma

A

CT - hypodense mass with possible calcs

MRI - T1-T2 hyperintense, cystic with peripheral enhancement

51
Q

Nonenhancing mass in the tuber cinereum with percocious puberty, isointense to gray matter on T1

A

hypothalamic hamartoma

  • gelastic seizures
52
Q

Juv. Pilocystic astrocytoma

A

round, T2 hyperintense tumor with internal mural nodules and peripheral contrast enhancement

  • arise in midline and can extend into the cerebellar hemispheres
  • 30% optic nerve/chiasm
53
Q

Medulloblastoma

A 
arise from (velum) of the 4th ventricle
CT - hyperdense

MRI - hypo T1, vary T2, avid enhancement, ** diffusion restriction **

  • scan the whole spine for drop mets
54
Q

Joubert Syndrome

A

Hypoplastic cerebellar vermis and hypoplastic superior cerebellar peduncle = molar tooth sign (midbrain)

  • enlarged 4th vent
  • superior cerebellar peduncles are vertically oriented and elongated in AP direction
  • separation of cerebellar hemispheres
55
Q

Ependymoma

A

arise from floor of 4th vent

  • plastic tumor
  • intramural cysts and hemorrhage in 66%
  • heterogeneous and enhancing mass
56
Q

subependymoma

A

inferior 4th vent
middle-age or older
T2 hyper lobular mass
No or mild enhancement

57
Q

Choroid plexus papilloma

A

40% in 4th vent, CPA and foramina of Luschka
Lateral vent more common in kids
Lobular and greatly enhances

58
Q

Scaphocephaly

A

Sagittal suture

59
Q

Plagiocephaly

A

single coronal or lamboid suture

60
Q

Vein of Galen malformation

A

embolization

61
Q

ADEM (acute disseminated encephalomyelitis)

A

MCL = subcortical WM (can involve GM)

  • multiple T2 bright foci
  • CSF analysis
62
Q

Chordoma

A
  • MCL = sacrum followed by around clivus
  • CT - calcified matrix common
  • MRI = hypo T1, Hyper T2 and most enhance
63
Q

MC feeding artery for juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

A

internal maxillary artery

64
Q

JNA

A

bony changes on CT
ST mass centered on sphenopalatine foramen (often wide) and bowing of the posterior wall of the maxillary antrum anteriorly

  • marked contrast enhancement
65
Q

Mildly enhancing, mineralized T2 hypo masses in the orbits of kids

A

Retinoblastoma

66
Q

Scheuermann Disease (juvenile kyphosis)

A

kyphosis of the thoracic or thoracolumbar spine
at least 3 sdj vertebrae have wedging
assoc with schmorl nodes, limbus vertebrae, scoliosis, spondylolisthesis

67
Q

Caudal regression syndrome

A
  • lumbosacral vertebral body dysgenesis
  • usually below L1 and often limited to sacrum
  • truncated, blunt spinal cord terminating above the expected level
  • severe canal narrowing rostral to last intact vertebrae
68
Q

Pulmonary sling

A

impression on posterior trachea and anterior esophagus

  • left pulmonary artery arises from posterior right pulmonary artery
69
Q

Types of pulmonary artery sling

A

Type 1 - position of carina NORMAL (T4-T5)

Type 2 - LOW carina (T6)

70
Q

Types of fibromuscular hyperplasia

A

medial (MCC), perimedial, and intimal

  • medial and perimedial cause stenosis and aneurysms
  • intimal = smooth narrowing
71
Q

collateral path for lower extremities in abdominal aortoiliac stenosis

A

SMA -> IMA -> hemorrhoidal arteries -> external iliac arteries

72
Q

Cicumflex aortic arch

A

aorta passes to the left of the trachea but then becomes the descending aorta (assoc with anomalous right subclavian artery)

  • always forms a vascular ring
73
Q

Le compte maneuver

A

transposition of the great vessels

  • MC complication is coronary artery occlusion
74
Q

Management of Ebstein abn

A

tricuspid valvoplasty

75
Q

Common anomaly assoc with PAPVR

A
  • congenital heart
  • sinus venosus ASD
  • bronchogenic cysts
  • accessory diaphragms
  • hernias
  • horseshoe lung
76
Q

Next test in PAPVR

A

Echo -> CTA or MRA

77
Q

Cardiac fibroma

A
  • intramyocardial
  • septum or free wall
  • T1 vary
  • T2 vary
  • No first pass perfusion
  • Delayed enhancement
78
Q

Cardiac Rhabodmyoma

A
  • Intramycocardial or intravacitary
  • T1 vary
  • T2 vary
  • No first pass perfusion
  • NEGATIVE delayed enhancement
79
Q

Cardiac Myxoma

A
  • MCL left atrium
  • T1 vary
  • T2 bright
  • No first pass perfusion
  • Variable delayed enhancement
80
Q

Cardiac Hemangioma

A
  • location vary
  • T1 Dark
  • T2 bright
  • Bright first pass perfusion
  • Vary delayed enhancement
81
Q

Cardiac Malignancy

A

all vary

82
Q

High origin of the coronary artery

A

> 1 cm above the sinotubular junction

83
Q

Most common coronary artery anomaly assoc with TOF

A

right coronary from the LAD

84
Q

Increased lung markings with cyanotic heart disease

A
  • truncus
  • transposition
  • hypoplastic left heart
  • TOF in decreased
85
Q

Stages of Norwood for hypoplastic left heart

A
  • Blalock-Taussig shunt
  • Glenn
  • Fontan
86
Q

Beckwith-Wiedemann

A

congenital overgrowth disorder

  • omphalocele
  • macroglossia
  • neonatal hypoglycemia
  • hemihypertrophy
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • nephromegaly
  • cardiac abn
  • adrenal cytomegaly
  • pancreatic islet cell hyperplasia
  • facial nevus flammus
  • ear lobe creases
  • increased Wilms
87
Q

Nuchal translucency should be done when

A

11-13 weeks

88
Q

Inheritance of Ehlers-Danlos

A

Autosomal dominant

89
Q

MCA cardiac abn with Di-Geroge syndrome

A

TOF

90
Q

Klippel-Trenaunay Syndrome

A

Triad

  • capillary malformation
  • venous malformation
  • limb overgrowth (with or without lymphatic malformation)
91
Q

Post transplant lymphoproliferative disorders usually due to what organism

A

EBV

Radiology Review (9 decks)

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