Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What signs and symptoms would you expect in a patient with Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Nasal piolyps
Heat exhaustion from loss of sodium in the sweat
Recurrent respiratory infections (Pseudomonas, Staph aureus)
Cor pulmonale

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2
Q

What is a neuroblastoma? Where is it located?

A

Malignant tumor of postganglionic sympathetic neurons.

Commonly in adrenal medulla and accordingly secretes catecholamines.

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3
Q

Neuroblastomas are most commonly seen in children of __ old.

A

Less than 5 years old

Median age of onset is 18 months.

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4
Q

A child presents with chaotic eye movements in all directions, myoclonic jerking of extremities, and history of diarrhea. He also has paraneoplastic signs and symptoms of hypertension, palpitations.
What is the condition?

A

Neuroblastoma has chaotic eye movements, myoclonic jerking, diarrhea, and paraneoplastic signs and symptoms from excessive catecholamines.

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5
Q

What labs and imaging to order if you suspect a child has a neuroblastoma?

A

CT or MRI of chest, abdomen, pelvis because you need to find the neuroblastoma.
Bone scan to find lytic lesions

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6
Q

How do you treat a child with neuroblastoma?

A

Cut it, poison it, burn it.

Surgery, chemotherapy, radiation.

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7
Q

Patients with neuroblastoma have a ___% survival rate but children under ___ yo have a ___% cure rate

A

40% survival rate

Children under 1 yo have a 90% cure rate

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8
Q

_____ or _____’s tumor accounts for 5% of childhood cancer

A

Nephroblastoma or Wilm’s tumor

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9
Q

_______ is the most common viral exanthema in children under 2 years old.

A

Roseola infantum is the most common viral exanthema in children under 2 years old.

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10
Q

______ is the primary renal tumor in children.

A

Nephroblastoma or Wilm’s tumor

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11
Q

Forchheimer spots are characteristic of _____.

A

Rubella (German measles)

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12
Q

Nephroblastomas typically occur in children between ____ and ____ years old

A

Nephroblastomas

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13
Q

A child presents with a palpable abdominal mass and history of nausea and vomiting. You take his blood pressure and he has hypertensive blood pressure. What is the condition and why does he have high blood pressure?

A

Nephroblastoma accounts for the palpable abdominal mass, nausea and vomiting and the blood pressure is elevated because of renin secretion.

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14
Q

______ is the most common site for metastasis of nephroblastoma.

A

The lungs are the most common site for metastasis of nephroblastoma.

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15
Q

What labs and imaging to order if you suspect a child has a neuroblastoma?

A

Renal ultrasound - because it is a tumor of kidneys
Biopsy of tumor
CT scan, MRI

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16
Q

What is the leading cause of death in infants around 12 months?

A

SIDS

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17
Q

Why order a CT for a child with suspected nephroblastoma? What questions does a CT scan answer?

A

You want to know the ORIGIN of the tumor, whether there is LYMPH NODE involvement, whether ONE OR BOTH kidneys are involved, whether there is invasion in the MAJOR VESSELS (inferior vena cava) or METASTASIS to LIVER

CT scan will answer these questions.

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18
Q

Is a CT scan or an MRI more sensitive to see if a nephroblastoma has invaded the IVC?

A

MRI is more sensitive to see nephroblastoma invasion of IVC

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19
Q

How do you treat a child with a nephroblastoma?

A

Nephrectomy - partial or full
Chemotherapy
Radiation

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20
Q

The 5-year survival rate for nephroblastoma is ____%.

A

5 year survival rate for nephroblastoma is 80%.

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21
Q

________ is the most common primary ocular malignancy in childhood.

A

Retinoblastoma is the most common primary ocular malignancy in childhood.

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22
Q

A child presents with vision loss. On examination, you find white pupillary reflex or cat’s eye reflex and strabismus (eyes not properly aligned). What is the diagnosis?

A

Unilateral or bilateral vision loss with leukocoria (white pupillary or cat’s eye reflex) and strabismus suggests retinoblastoma.

1/3rd of cases are bilateral. Strabismus is because of vision loss.

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23
Q

What labs and imaging to order if you suspect a child has a retinoblastoma?

A

Ultrasound or CT

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24
Q

How do you treat a child with a retinoblastoma?

A

Chemotherapy

Radiation

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25
Q

A child presents with a slapped cheek appearance on his face. This fades over 2 to 4 days. What is the condition?

A

Erythema infectiosum.

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26
Q

What is the virus that causes Erythema infectiosum? What is another common name for it?

A

Parvovirus B19 causes Erythyma infectiosum aka Fifth’s disease

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27
Q

An 18 month child presents with 1-5 mm pink macules and maculopapules that are not itchy. These appeared after a abrupt loss of high fever (>39.5 C) that had persisted for 3 to 5 days. What condition is this? How long will the rash last? What is a complication of fever?

A

Pink, non pruritic macules and maculopapules that appear after an abrupt loss of fever is characteristic of Roseola infantum, It is typically seen in under 2 year olds. The rash lasts for about 2 days. Fever may be accompanied by febrile convulsion.

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28
Q

_______ is the organism that causes Roseola infantum. Hence, its other name is ______ disease.

A

HHV-6 or Human Herpes Virus 6 causes Roseola infantum, aka Sixth disease.

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29
Q

HHV-6 is a _____ virus with a ____-_____ day incubation period.

A

HHV-6 is a DNA virus with a 5 to 15 day incubation period.

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30
Q

What drugs can you use to treat the child with Roseola infantum?

A

No drugs exist. Treatment is supportive.

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31
Q

What are two complications or Roseola infantum?

A

Febrile seizure

Encephalitis

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32
Q

What is another name for German measles?

A

Rubella

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33
Q

What is another name for measles?

A

Rubeola

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34
Q

_______ is the organism that causes Rubella.

A

RNA togavirus (3 day measles).

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35
Q

The incubation period for ____________, the organism that causes Rubella, is ____-____ days.

A

The incubation period for RNA togavirus is 14-21 days.

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36
Q

___________, the organism that causes rubella, is transmitted by __________.

A

RNA togavirus is transmitted by droplets.

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37
Q

______ vaccine covers Rubella.

A

MMR

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38
Q

________ spots are red spots that develop on the ___________ ___________ of a child at the onset of the Rubella rash.

A

Forchheimer spots are red spots that develop in the posterior hard/soft palate of a child at the onset of the Rubella rash.

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39
Q

A child presents with a rash that starts at the neck and trunk and spreads to the face and extremities. The rash is not itchy. What condition is this?

A

Roseola infantum is characterized by non-itchy rash that starts at neck and trunk and spreads to face and extremities.

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40
Q

A child presents with an itchy pink rash that starts on the hairline and rapidly spreads to the neck, then trunk, then to rest of the body. What condition is this? What two signs would you want to check?

A

Rubella is characterized by an itchy pink, discrete, maculopapular rash that starts on hairline, spreads to neck, trunk and rest of body.

An addition to noting the rash is pruritic, you would check for Forchheimer spots on the posterior hard/soft palate, and for painful post-auricular lymphadenopathy.

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41
Q

What is a risk of a pregnant woman being infected with Rubella?

A

Infection during first trimester of pregnancy may produce congenital abnormalities.

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42
Q

What symptom is seen in adults with Rubella?

A

Polyarthritis is seen in adults with Rubella.

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43
Q

What labs should you order for a child with Rubella? What must be kept in mind?

A

ELISA serology for Rubella IgM. IgM may not be detected for 4 to 5 days after onset of rash.

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44
Q

How do you treat a Rubella patient?

A

Treat the symptoms

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45
Q

________ is the microorganism that causes RUBEOLA

A

Paramyxovirus causes Rubeola aka Measles

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46
Q

The 3 _____’s of _______, ________, and _________ are characteristic symptoms in a child with Rubeola.

A

The 3 Cs of Cough, Coryza and Conjunctivitis are characteristic symptoms in a child with Rubeola or measles.

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47
Q

________ spots on the _________ are seen in Rubella but _______ spots on the ________ are seen in Rubeola.

A

Forchheimer spots on the posterior hard/soft palate are seen in Rubella but KOPLIK spots are grey-white papules seen on the buccal mucosa in Rubeola.

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48
Q

You advise parents to prevent SIDS by placing the infant ________ and not in the _________ when sleeping.
Additionally, they should avoid __________ and __________ the infant. Most of all, protect the infant from exposure to __________.
Finally, to reduce risk of SIDS by 50% at all ages throughout infancy, they should ____________, and risk may also be reduced by using a ____________.

A

You advise parents to prevent SIDS by placing the infant ON HIS BACK and NOT IN THE PRONE POSITION when sleeping.
Additionally, they should avoid OVERDRESSING and OVERHEATING the infant. Most of all, protect the infant from exposure to CIGARETTE SMOKE.
Finally, to reduce risk of SIDS by 50% at all ages throughout infancy, they should BREASTFEED the child, and risk may also be reduced by using a PACIFIER.

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49
Q

Should an infant younger than 3-4 months share a bed? Should her head be covered with bedding or bed clothing?

A

NO because risk of SIDS

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50
Q

Most deaths from SIDS occur between ____ and ____.

A

Most deaths from SIDS occur between 12 am and 8 am.

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51
Q

An Atrial-Septal defect (ASD) is a patent __________. ASD comprises ____ to ____% of congenital heart lesions.

A

ASD is a patent foramen ovale, or opening between left and right atriums. ASD comprises 6 to 8% of congenital heart lesions.

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52
Q

____ - ____% of ASD spontaneously close if the ASD measures _____.

A

80 - 100% of ASD spontaneously close if the ASD measures less than 8 mm.

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53
Q

Surgery through ____________ is used to close ASD.

A

Surgery through catheterization is used to close ASD.

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54
Q

ASD should be ruled out in an adult patient with _____________ and ___________.

A

ASD should be ruled out in an adult patient with CHF and Pulmonary Hypertension.

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55
Q

A _________________ murmur heard at the ____ intercostal space at the ________________ is associated with an atrial-septal defect.

A

A CDSE crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur heard at the 2nd intercostal space at the upper left sternal border is associated with an atrial septal defect.

Blood flow across the AS does not create a murmur at the site of the shunt because there is no pressure gradient between the atria. But an ASD with a moderate to large left to right shunt results in an increased right ventricular stroke volume leading to the CDSE murmur.

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56
Q

Patients with a large left to right shunt often have a _______________ murmur at the _____________ because of increased flow across the ________ valve, and fixed splitting of S2.

A

Patients with a large left to right shunt often have a Rumbling mid-diastolic murmur at the lower left sternal border because of increased flow across the tricuspid valve, and fixed splitting of S2.

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57
Q

What 3 diagnostic evaluations should you order for an ASD?

A

ECG
CXR to visualize cardiomegaly due to dilatation of right atrium and right ventricle
Doppler echocardiogram to visualize flow across atrial septum.

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58
Q

___________ is a benign childhood condition characterized by a slapped cheek appearance that lasts for ___-___ days and ____________.

A

Erythema infectiosum is a benign childhood condition characterized by a classic slapped cheek appearance that lasts for 2 to 4 days and exanthema or widespread rash.

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59
Q

_____________ is the pathogen that causes Erythema infectiosum.

A

Human Parvovirus B19, an erythrovirus

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60
Q

The five prodromal symptoms of Erythema infectiosum are ________, _________, ________, ________ and _______ and they appear ____ week after exposure and last ___-____ days.

A

Headache, Fever, Sore throat, Arthralgia and Pruritus appear 1 week after exposure and last 2-3 days.

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61
Q

In Erythema infectiosum, the slapped cheek appearance lasts ___-___ days. Then, ___-___ after it disappears, there is an erythematous _________ rash that extends to the _________ and __________.

A

In Erythema infectiosum, the slapped cheek appearance lasts 2-4 days. Then, 1-4 days after it disappears, there is an erythematous MACULOPAPULAR rash that extends to the TRUNK and EXTREMITIES.

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62
Q

Can Erythema infectiosum be diagnosed by clinical presentation alone? What labs and imaging should you order for a child with Erythema infectiosum?

A

Yes, it can be diagnosed by clinical presentation alone.
You should confirm with ELISA to see increased IgM
Western Blot Hybridization
PCR Assay

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63
Q

_______________ is the condition characteristically associated with a palpable sausage shaped mass in the ______ _______ quadrant. This is known as the ___________ sign.

A

Intussusception is the condition characteristically associated with a palpable sausage shaped mass in the RIGHT LOWER quadrant. This is known as the DANCE sign.

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64
Q

Erythema infectiosum is treated by __________.

A

Self limited condition. Symptomatic relief with NSAIDs.

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65
Q

__________ is the virus that causes Mumps.

A

Paramyxovirus is the virus that causes Mumps.

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66
Q

The incubation period for ___________, the virus that causes mumps is ____ - _____ days.

A

The incubation period for Paramyxovirus, the virus that causes mumps is 12-25 days.

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67
Q

___________, the virus that causes mumps is transmitted by __________.

A

Paramyxovirus, the virus that causes mumps is transmitted by droplets.

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68
Q

A patient presents with bilateral __________ with increased serum ___________. His ears are displaced __________ and _________. His other symptoms are _________, ________, ________ and _______. What is the condition?

A

A patient presents with bilateral parotitis with increased serum amylase. His ears are displaced laterally and superiorly. His other symptoms are fever, hadache, myalgia and malaise. The condition is Mumps.

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69
Q

_____________ is the most common congenital heart disease in children.

A

VSD or Ventricular Septal Defect is the most common congenital heart defect in children.

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70
Q

If you suspect mumps, what lab should you order?

A

ELISA immunoglobulin titer

71
Q

How do you treat mumps?

A

Supportive care

MMR vaccine

72
Q

The complications of mumps are:

A
Pancreatitis
Orchitis, epididymitis
Infertility
Encephalitis
Myocarditis
Arthritis
73
Q

____________ is the organism that causes Pertussis, also known as __________.

A

Bordatella pertussis causes Pertussis, also known as Whooping cough.

74
Q

Bordatella pertussis is transmitted by __________.

A

Air drops released by cough.

75
Q

A boot shaped heart characterizes ____________.

A

Tetralogy of Fallot.

76
Q

Children of _____ and ______ are most affected by pertussis.

A

Children under 1 yo and adolescents are most affected by pertussis.

77
Q

The 3 sages of pertussis are:

A

Catarrhal stage - 1 to 2 weeks
Paroxysmal stage - 2 to 4 weeks
Convalescent stage - 1 to 2 weeks

78
Q

The catarrhal stage of pertussis is characterized by _______, _______ and _______.

A

The catarrhal stage of pertussis is characterized by mild cough, coryza and cyanosis. Lasts 1 to 2 weeks.

79
Q

The paroxysmal stage of pertussis is characterized by:

A

10 to 30 coughs, interrupted by whoops to get adequate air. Vomiting may occur with coughing spells.
Lasts 2 to 4 weeks.

80
Q

The convalescent stage of pertussis is characterized by

A

Occasional paroxysms of non-infectious cough. Coughs of decreased frequency and severity can last up to six months. This stage is 1 to 2 weeks.

81
Q

How is pertussis diagnosed?

A

Pertussis is clinically diagnosed.

82
Q

What labs should you order if you suspect a child has Pertussis?

A

PCR of nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate.

CBC to look for leukocytosis, lymphocytosis.

83
Q

How is pertussis treated?

A

Oxygen if cyanosis is present.
Azithromycin
Isolate child for 5 days to prevent spread of illness.

84
Q

Coarctation of the aorta is ____________ of the aorta almost always at the level of the _____________ and the ______________ artery.

A

Coarctation of the aorta is NARROWING of the aorta almost always at the level of the DUCTUS ARTERIOLES and the LEFT SUBCLAVIAN artery.

85
Q

Coarctation of the aorta is associated with the inherited condition:

A

Coarctation of the aorta is associated with the inherited condition, TURNER’S SYNDROME

86
Q

On physical exam of a patient with coarctation of aorta, you would expect to see ____________ upper extremity ____________, ____________ lower extremity ____________, and ___________ cerebral blood flow. The patient would feel pain from ___________ known as __________, and would have ___________ in the lower extremity. Finally in coarctation of the aorta, ___________ __________ blood flow would activate ______________ system causing hypertension,

A

On physical exam of a patient with coarctation of aorta, you would expect to see increased upper extremity blood pressure, decreased lower extremity blood pressure, and increased cerebral blood flow. The patient would feel pain in his calves from walking, known as claudication and would have decreased or absent pulses in the Lower extremity. Finally in coarctation of the aorta, decreased renal blood flow would activate renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system causing hypertension.

87
Q

Coarctation of the aorta is treated by __________ and the the ___________ is kept open by _____________.

A

Coarctation of the aorta is treated by surgery to remove the coarctation and the PDA is kept open by prostaglandins.

88
Q

The __________ sign on Chest X-ray is associated with Coarctation of the Aorta.

A

The Figure 3 sign on chest X-ray is associated with Coarctation of the Aorta.

89
Q

Normally, functional closure of the ductus arterioles occurs by about ___ hours of life in healthy infants born at term.

A

Normally, functional closure of the ductus arterioles occurs by about 15 hours of life in healthy infants born at term.

90
Q

In PDA, the __________ __________ remains open. It is the vessel connecting the ___________ and ___________ artery.

A

In PDA, the ductus arteriosus remains open. It is the vessel connecting the descending aorta and left pulmonary artery.

91
Q

PDA produces a ___________ to __________ shunt. It causes blood from the ____________ to flow to ___________, and results in ___________.

A

PDA produces a left to right shunt. It causes blood from the systemic circulation to flow to pulmonary circulation and results in pulmonary hypertension.

92
Q

An infant presents with a pink upper body and a blue or cyanotic lower body. Additionally, there is tachycardia. What is this condition? Why does this happen?

A

Pink upper body and blue or cyanotic lower body is seen in PDA because the ductus arteriosus occurs after the left subclavian artery.

93
Q

On physical exam of an infant with PDA, you would expect the pulse to show __________, a _________ pulse pressure, and the peripheral pulses would be _________ because of high ____________ to compensate for the PDA. There would be a low __________ in systemic circulation.

You would also hear a ____________ murmur during systole and diastole.

A

On physical exam of an infant with PDA, you would expect the pulse to show tachycardia, a wide pulse pressure, and the peripheral pulses would be bounding because of high left ventricular stroke volume to compensate for the PDA. There would be a low diastolic pressure in systemic circulation.

You would also hear a heavy machinery murmur during systole and diastole.

94
Q

What labs and imaging would you order if you suspect PDA?

A

ECG
Chest X-ray to visual normal to mildly enlarged heart
Doppler echocardiogram to identify abnormality.

95
Q

How do you treat an infant with PDA?

A

Surgery to close the PDA

96
Q

The mnemonic “PROVe it” for Tetralogy of Fallot stands for:

A

P - Pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow tract obstruction)
R - Right ventricular hypertrophy
O - Overriding aorta
V - Ventricular septal defect

97
Q

Red current jelly stools are characteristic of ____________.

A

Red current jelly stools are characteristic of Intussusception.

98
Q

An infant has SOB, Cyanosis, Fatigue and Seizures (if severe). What is the congenital heart condition?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot - PROVe it

99
Q

On physical exam of an infant with Tetralogy of Fallot, you would expect to hear a __________ murmur over the _______ and the _________. You would also palpate a _________ thrill along the __________. There would be a loud _________ heart sound due to ______________.

A

On physical exam of an infant with Tetralogy of Fallot, you would expect to hear a harsh systolic ejection murmur over the pulmonic area and the left sternal border. You would also palpate a systolic thrill along the left sternal border. There would be a loud S2 heart sound due to pulmonic stenosis.

100
Q

What labs and imaging would you order if you suspect Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Doppler echocardiogram
Chest X-ray to visualize a boot shaped heart
ECG would show a right axis deviation

101
Q

When should surgical repair of Tetralogy of Fallot be performed? What other treatments are used?

A

Surgical repair preferred before 2nd year of life.
PDA kept open
Propanalol
Oxygen
Artificial shunt with balloon atrial septostomy.

102
Q

VSD is characterized by an opening in the ____________, allowing blood to flow between ___________. This creates a ________ shunt.

A

VSD is characterized by an opening in the interventricular septum, allowing blood to flow between the left and right ventricles. This creates a left to right shunt.

103
Q

Signs and symptoms of a VSD include _______, decreased __________, CHF, lethargy, and ____________. VSD patients also get recurrent _____.

A

Signs and symptoms of a VSD include SOB/Dyspnea, decreased Exercise Tolerance, CHF, lethargy, and delayed growth and development. VSD patients also get recurrent upper respiratory infection.

104
Q

On physical exam of an infant with VSD, you would expect to hear a __________ murmur at the __________ and palpate a _________. You would also hear a ___________ rumble at the ________.

A

On physical exam of an infant with VSD, you would expect to hear a holosystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border and palpate a thrill. You would also hear a mid-diastolic rumble at the apex.

105
Q

What labs and imaging would you order if you suspect VSD?

A

Doppler Echocardiogam to determine size and location of VSD.

Chest X-ray

106
Q

In Hirschprung disease, or congenital megacolon, what is missing from the GI tract that prevents the colon from functioning? What is the result?

A

In Hirschprung disease, the absence of ganglionic cells from part or all of the large intestine or antecedent parts of GI tract prevents the colon from functioning. This results in obstruction.

107
Q

In Hirschprung disease, the ganglionic cells are absent from ________________ plexus and _____________ plexus in the ____________ colon, causing localized constant __________ without _________, resulting in __________.

A

In Hirschprung disease, the ganglionic cells are absent from Meissner’s submucosal plexus and Auerbach’s myenteric plexus in the distal colon, causing localized constant contractions without relaxation, resulting in obstruction.

108
Q

In an infant with Hirschprung Disease, you would expect to see no ___________ in the first 24 hours, as well as abdominal ___________ and __________. The child would have exhibit _________ to _________, and alternating __________ and ___________. _________ would only occur with ________ stimulation. On abdominal palpation, there would be palpable __________ with empty ________ on DRE.

A

In an infant with Hirschprung Disease, you would expect to see no meconium in the first 24 hours, as well as abdominal distension and vomiting. The child would have exhibit failure to thrive and alternating diarrhea and constipation. Bowel movement would only occur with rectal stimulation. On abdominal palpation, there would be palpable stool with empty rectum on DRE.

109
Q

Complications of Hirschprung disease are ____________ of ________ bowel leading to __________, the most common cause of death.

A

Complications of Hirschprung disease are Enterocolitis of dilated bowel leading to perforation, the most common cause of death.

110
Q

Hirschprung disease is diagnosed with _________ which shows absence of ___________. Imaging of ___________ shows ____________ __________ segment and _________ __________ segment.

A

Hirschprung disease is diagnosed with rectal biopsy which shows absence of ganglion cells. Imaging of barium enema shows dilated proximal segment and narrow distal segment.

111
Q

What is supportive treatment for Hirschprung disease if a short segment is affected? What surgical procedure is used?

A

Increase fluid and fiber intake if a short segment is affected.

Surgical resection of affected segment is colostomy.

112
Q

Children with _________ _________ are at higher risk for intussusception.

A

Children with cystic fibrosis are at higher risk for intussusception.

113
Q

The etiology of intussusception is 90% __________.

A

The etiology of intussusception is 90% idiopathic.

114
Q

In intussusception, there is a __________ of the ____________ into itself in the _________ segment, leading to _________ and bowel ____________.

A

In intussusception, there is a telescoping of the intestine into itself in the distal segment, leading to mechanical obstruction and bowel perforation.

115
Q

The area of intestine affected in intussusception is the ___________ junction and the _________ in children.

A

The area of intestine affected in intussusception is the ileocecal junction and the jejunum in children.

116
Q

In addition to the characteristic __________ seen in 10-15% of patients, the other signs and symptoms of intussusception include ___________ onset ________, ________ pain that is ________ and separated by _________ intervals. Patients with intussusception may suffer from _______ and _________ worsened by _________ and lose blood by _________ bleeding.

A

In addition to the characteristic red currant jelly stool seen in 10-15% of patients, the other signs and symptoms of intussusception include sudden onset paroxysmal, periumbilical pain that is recurrent and separated by pain-free intervals. Patients with intussusception may suffer from shock and dehydration worsened by vomiting and lose blood by rectal bleeding.

117
Q

If you suspect intussception, what imaging should you order?

A
Contrast enema (barium on air)
Ultrasound
118
Q

Five risk factors for Intussusception include:

A
Meckel's diverticulum
Celiac disease
Cystic fibrosis
Intestinal lymphoma
Rotavirus infection
119
Q

Failure to thrive is diagnosed based on growth parameters that are persistently ____________ the ________ percentile, or less than the _______ percentile of median _______ for their _______ and ______ measurement.

A

Failure to thrive is diagnosed based on growth parameters that are persistently below the 3rd percentile, or less than the 80th percentile of median weight for height and age measurement.

120
Q

4 etiologies for Failure to Thrive include:

A

Renal tubular acidosis
Lead toxicity
Inadequate calorie intake
Nutritional deficiency

121
Q

SMALLKID is the mnemonic that tells you what signs and symptoms you would see in a child with failure to thrive. What does it stand for?

A
S - Subcutaneous fat loss
M - Muscle atrophy
A - Alopecia
L - Lethargy
L - Lagging behind normal
K - Kwashiorkor
I - Infection (recurrent)
D - Dermatitis
122
Q

What labs should you order for a SMALLKID?

A

You want to check his blood, nutrition, inflammation, thyroid, liver, kidneys and iron.

CBC
Electrolytes
Urea
ESR
T4, TSH
Urinalysis
Liver function tests
Ferrritin
123
Q

In Down Syndrome, what is the genetic abnormality?

A

Trisomy 21

124
Q

Down Syndrome is associated with ________ leukemia

A

Down Syndrome is associated with Acute Myeloid Leukemia

125
Q

The inheritance pattern of Cystic Fibrosis is __________ __________, not _________ __________.

A

The inheritance pattern of Cystic Fibrosis is autosomal recessive, not autosomal dominant.

126
Q

____________ account for 95% of the population who have Cystic Fibrosis.

A

Caucasians account for 95% of the population who have Cystic Fibrosis.

127
Q

Cystic Fibrosis is usually diagnosed by the time a child is ____ _____ old.

A

Cystic Fibrosis is usually diagnosed by the time a child is 5 months old.

128
Q

The prognosis for a patient with Cystic Fibrosis is that he will live to a median survival age of ________.

A

The prognosis for a patient with Cystic Fibrosis is that he will live to a median survival age of 30 years old.

129
Q

Croup is a common, primary pediatric ________ respiratory tract infection that causes inflammation to the __________, _________ and _______, and can extend to the ________ wall.

A

Croup is a common, primary pediatric viral respiratory tract infection that causes inflammation to the subglottic larynx, larynx and trachea, and can extend to the bronchial wall.

130
Q

Croup usually affects toddlers and infants between ____ months and _____ years old.

A

Croup usually affects toddlers and infants between 6 months and 4 years old.

131
Q

Croup is most common at what two times of the year?

A

Croup is most common in Fall and Early Winter

132
Q

_________ is the virus responsible for 80% of croup. 2 Two other viruses that cause croup are ________ and _________.

A

Parainfluenza viruses (types 1, 2, 3) are responsible for 80% of croup. Two other viruses that cause croup are RSV and Adenovirus.

133
Q

On initial presentation of croup, a child would have ______, _______, cough and ______ fever. Within 1-2 days, the child will develop ______ voice, ______ cough, _______ _______. Typically, symptoms are _________ at night and there is _______ _______ during sleep.
Symptoms resolve within ___ to ___ days but can last ___ weeks.

A

On initial presentation of croup, a child would have rhinorrhea, sore throat, cough and low-grade fever. Within 1-2 days, the child will develop hoarse voice, seal-bark cough and inspiratory stridor. Typically, symptoms are worse at night and there is difficulty breathing during sleep.
Symptoms resolve within 2 to 3 days but can last 2 weeks.

134
Q

Is croup diagnosed clinically? What imaging is ordered and what is characteristically seen?

A

Croup is clinically diagnosed.

X-ray (AP Radiograph) shows Steeple Sign or Pencil Point sign that shows Subglottic narrowing

135
Q

How is croup treated?

A

Warm, moist air - humidified oxygem
Corticosteroids (Dexamethasone, Prednisone)
Epinephrine for beta 2 adrenergic activity leading to bronchial smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

136
Q

What gene is implicated in Cystic Fibrosis?

What does mutation of this gene do to the cells?

What do the cells absorb more of?

What does this do to the airway secretions?

Where are there thick secretions from?

What kind of infections occur?

A

CFTC Regulator Gene on Chromosome 7
Cystic Fibrosis transmembrane conductama regulator gene on Chromosome 7.
- Mutation in transmembrane conductance regulator of chloride cause cells to be impermeable to chloride
- Impermeability of cells to chloride increases reabsorption of sodium
- Increased reabsorption of sodium leads to dehydration of airway secretions causing impaired mucociliary transport
- Secretions are dehydrated in bronchioles, pancreatic ducts, bile ducts, meconium, seminal fluid leading to thick secretion from Exocrine glands (lungs, pancreas, skin, reproductive organs and blockage of secretory dugs
- Chronic lung infections result - Pseudomonas aereginosa most common

137
Q

What virus most commonly causes Bronchiolitis?

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus most commonly causes bronchiolitis

138
Q

Bronchiolitis most commonly occurs at what time of year?

A

Fall

139
Q

What age population is most commonly affected by bronchiolitis?

A

Young infants

140
Q

What kind of fever, upper and lower respiratory symptoms are seen in bronchiolitis? In severe cases, what signs are seen?

A

Low-grade fever (101.5 F), Cough
Dyspnea, Wheezing with Crackles
Feeding difficulties

In severe cases, Tachypnea, nasal flaring, retractions, cyanosis and irritability are seen

141
Q

How is bronchiolitis diagnosed?

A

Lung biopsy

142
Q

What labs and imaging are ordered for bronchiolitis?

A

Viral culture for RSV
Chest X-ray
CT Scan showing Bilateral Patchy Airspace, interstitial infiltrates

143
Q

In treatment of bronchiolitis, what three things must be accomplished? What treatments are accordingly given?

A

Breathing must be enabled - Inflammation must be suppressed - Airway must be cleared - Pathogen must be eradicated - Fluids must be replenished

Accordingly:

  • Oxygen is given with a nasal cannula, nebulizer
  • Corticosteroids and bronchodilators to suppress inflammation and open airway
  • Antibiotics or antivirals to eradicate pathogen
  • Fluids given
144
Q

The mnemonic for typical presentation of a child with epiglottitis is AIR RAID plus a ______ position. What does AIR RAID stand for?

A

A - Airway closed
I - Increased pulse
R - Restlessness

R - Retracting
A - Anxiety increased
I - Inspiratory stridor
D - Drooling

Plus a Tripod position

145
Q

In treatment of epiglottitis, what things must be accomplished? What treatments are accordingly given?

A

Danger must be averted - Breathing must be enabled - Inflammation must be suppressed - Fluids must be replenished

Accordingly:

  • Send to ER
  • Oxygen must be given
  • IV for hydration
  • Corticosteroids to suppress inflammation
146
Q

_______________ is the pathogen most commonly responsible for Epiglottitis.

A

Haeomophilus influenza B

147
Q

Children from age ____ to ____ typically get epiglottitis although it can be in any age range.

A

Children from age 1 to 7 typically get epiglottitis although it can be in any age range.

148
Q

In epiglottitis, there is ________ inflammation of the ________ region of the oropharynx. The ___________ are not involved.

A

In epiglottitis, there is acute inflammation of the SUPRAglottic region of the oropharynx. The vocal cords are not involved.

149
Q

In Pyloric Stenosis, the primary clinical sign is ________________.

A

In Pyloric Stenosis, the primary clinical sign is non-bilious projectile vomiting.

150
Q

Pyloric stenosis commonly afflicts __________ more than _________. The ratio is ___ : ____.

A

Pyloric stenosis commonly afflicts males more than females. The ratio is 4 : 1.

151
Q

What imaging is used to diagnosed Pyloric Stenosis and what is seen?

A

Ultrasound is used to visualize hypertrophic pylorus

Barium swallow can be done to visualize narrow pyloric channel or pyloric beak

152
Q

What labs or imaging would you order to diagnose pyloric stenosis?

A

Abdominal Ultrsound
X-ray
Barium swallow

153
Q

Is Pyloric Stenosis a medical emergency? What happens to fluids? What happens metabolically?

A

Yes, Pyloric Stenosis is a medical emergency
Fluids are lost
Metabolic acidosis results

154
Q

In treatment of pyloric stenosis, what things must be accomplished? What treatments are accordingly used?

A

Address the emergency - Fix the stenosis - Correct fluid loss - Correct metabolic acidosis

  • Pyloromyotomy to address medical emergency
  • IV hydration for fluid loss
  • Correct metabolic acidosis
155
Q

What is mecononium?

A

Neonatal first stool - thick and stiky

156
Q

Meconeum ileus is bowel obstruction in the __________ small bowel that occurs from ________ of even thicker and more tenacious meconium.

A

Meconeum ileus is bowel obstruction in the distal small bowel that occurs from impaction of even thicker and more tenacious meconium.

157
Q

____________ is another congenital condition associated Meconeum Ileus.

A

Cystic fibrosis is another congenital condition associated with Meconeum Ileus

158
Q

Meconeum ileus is a rare condition that affects ___ in _______ newborns.

A

Meconeum ileus is a rare condition that affects 1 in 25,000 newborns.

159
Q

Abdominal __________ and __________ vomit with no passage of _________ are symptoms of Meconeum ileus.

A

Abdominal distension and bilious green vomit with no passage of Meconeum are symptoms of Meconeum ileus.

160
Q

What imaging is ordered for suspected Meconeum ileus?

A

Abdominal X-ray

161
Q

How is meconium ileus treated?

A

Meconeum ileus is a medical emergency referred to ER.

IV hydration.

162
Q

Anal stenosis is congenital ________ of the anal canal.

A

Anal stenosis is congenital narrowing of the anal canal.

163
Q

Malformations of the ___________, ___________ or ____________ structures are risk factors associated with anal stenosis.

A

Malformations of the anorectal, vertebral or genitourinary structures are risk factors associated with anal stenosis.

164
Q

Signs and symptoms of anal stenosis are persistent _________ of stool, _________ stools, fecal ____________, and abdominal _________.

A

Signs and symptoms of anal stenosis are persistent straining of stool, ribbon stools, fecal impaction, and abdominal distension.

165
Q

How is anal stenosis treated?

A

Surgical dilation

166
Q

The mnemonic for the most common viral causes of encephalitis are CHiRP. What does CHiRP stand for?

A

C - Cytomegalovirus
Hi - HIV
R - Rabies
P - Polio

167
Q

The mnemonic for the most common bacterial, mycobacterial and spirochetal causes of encephalitis is Rah Rah Long Legged Babes Stand Tall. What does Rah Rah Long Legged Babes Stand Tall stand for?

A
Rah Rah - Rickettsia rickettsi
Long - Listeria
Legged - Legionalla
Babes - Borrelia
Stand - Syphyilis
Tall - Tuberculosis
168
Q

What is the most common parasitic cause of Encephalitis?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

169
Q

__________ is the organism that causes Hand-Foot-Mouth-Disease.

A

Coxsackie virus

170
Q

How is Hand-Foot-Mouth disease treated?

A

Hand-Foot-Mouth disease is generally self-limiting and medication is generally not indicated.

171
Q

__________________ (SSP) is a sequel of measles that can occur months to years after exposure.

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a sequel of measles that can occur months to years after exposure.

172
Q

It is contraindicated to give a Rubella vaccination during ____________.

A

It is contraindicated to give a Rubella vaccination during Pregnancy.

173
Q

Hand-Foot-Mouth disease is transmitted by the ___________-__________ route and via contact with ____________ and ___________.

A

Hand-Foot-Mouth disease is transmitted by the fecal oral route and via contact with skin lesions and oral secretions.

174
Q

How is Hand-Foot-Mouth disease diagnosed?

A

Hand-Foot-Mouth disease is clinically diagnosed.