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Rad > Pediatric > Flashcards

Pediatric Flashcards

1
Q

What is the infectious etiology of croup?

A

parainfluenza

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2
Q

What is the infectious etiology of epiglottitis?

A

h. influenza

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3
Q

What is the infecitous etiology of exudative tracheitis?

A

Staph Aureus

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4
Q

What syndrome are subglottic hemangiomas associated with and what does it stand for?

A

PHACES

Posterior fossa/dandy walker
hemangiomas
arterial anomalies
coarctation
eye abnormalities
subglottic hemangiomas
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5
Q

What cancer may develop in a thyroglossal duct cyst?

A

papillary

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6
Q

What anatomy surrounds a 2nd branchial cleft cyst?

A

posterior and lateral to submandibular gland, lateral to carotid space, anterior to SCM

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7
Q

Which type of pediatric hemangioma shows up at 6 months?

A

infantile

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8
Q

What two syndromes and congenital abnormality is cystic hygroma associated with?

A

Turners, Downs, coarc

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9
Q

What is the most common extra occular orbital malignancy in kids?

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

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10
Q

What is the most common pediatric benign orbital mass?

A

dermoid

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11
Q

high volumes + perihilar streaky= (2)

A

meconium aspiration

non GB neonatal pneumonia

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12
Q

Not high (low or normal) volumes + granular (2)

A

SSD

group B pneumonia

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13
Q

What are the lung findings in meconium aspiration? (2)

A

ropy asymmetric densities, hyperinflation

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14
Q

What are the lung findings in transient tachypnea of the newborn? (2)

A

coarse interstitial markings, fluid in fissures

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15
Q

What is the time course of TTN?

A

peaks at 1 day, resolved by day 3

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16
Q

What are the pulmonary findings of surfactant deficiency? (2)

A

low volumes with bilateral granular opacities

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17
Q

What excludes SDD?

A

normal plain film at 6 hours post delivery

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18
Q

High lung volumes in neonates? (3)

A

meconium aspiration, transient tachypnea, non BH pneumonia

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19
Q

Low lung volumes in neonates? (2)

A

surfactant deficiency (no effusion), beta hemolytic pneumonia (effusion)

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20
Q

What does chronic lung disease look like in infant?

A

band like opacities, coarse reticular opacities, hyper aeration

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21
Q

At what age is PIE seen?

A

1st week

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22
Q

At what age is CLD seen?

A

after 3-4 weeks

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23
Q

Where is bronchopulmonary sequestration most common and at what age does it present?

A

LLL, adolescence

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24
Q

Which lobe is CLE most common in?

A

LUL

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25
Q

What part of the lungs are affected in CF?

A

upper lobe

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26
Q

What part of the lungs are affected in primary cilia dyskinesia?

A

lower lobe

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27
Q

UAC positioning?

A

High t8-t10 or low L3-L5

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28
Q

Anterior mediastinal mass that straddles the midline?

A

seminoma

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29
Q

Pediatric posterior mediastinal mass differential (5)

A

neuroblastoma, ewing, askin, neuroenteric cyst, extramedullary hematopoiesis

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30
Q

Age in pleuropulmonary blastoma?

A

<2

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31
Q

Age in Askin Tumor

A

> 10

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32
Q

What is the most common type of esophageal atresia/fistula?

A

N type

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33
Q

What is VACTERL?

A

Vertebral anomalies, anal, cardiac, TE, fistula, renal, limb. 3+ of above

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34
Q

What variant goes between esophagus and trachea?

A

pulmonary sling

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35
Q

What is the most common symptomatic vascular ring anomaly?

A

double aortic arch

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36
Q

What is the most common aortic arch anomaly?

A

Left arch with aberrant right subclavian artery

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37
Q

What are the five causes of high neonatal obstruction?

A

midgut volvulus/malrotation, duodenal atresia, duodenal web, annular pancreas, jejunal atresia

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38
Q

What are the five causes of low neonatal obstruction?

A

Hirschsprung, meconium plug, ileal atresia, meconium ileus, anal/colonic atresia

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39
Q

What causes jejunal atresia?

A

vascular insult

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40
Q

corkscrew duodenum=

A

midgut volvulus

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41
Q

Which type of gastric volvulus occurs in kids and what is it?

A

mesenteroaxial, antrum flips near GE junction can cause ischemia

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42
Q

Wind sock =

A

duodenal web in older kids

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43
Q

What is meconium plug syndrome?

A

small left colon; NOT associated with CF

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44
Q

rectum smaller than sigmoid=

A

hirschsprung

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45
Q

rectum with sawtooth pattern-

A

hirschsprung

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46
Q

Looks like microcolon but with involvement of the terminal ileum

A

total colonic aganglionosis

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47
Q

Age of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

2-12 weeks

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48
Q

What is the criteria for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

A

4mm, 14mm

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49
Q

What should pressure not exceed in reducing HPS?

A

120mmHg

50
Q

What target size needs air enema in HPS?

A

over 2.5cm

51
Q

What is distal intestinal obstruction syndrome?

A

meconium ileus equivalent

52
Q

Which has surrounding membrane, omphalocele or gastrochisis?

A

omphalocele

53
Q

When is physiologic gun herniation seen?

A

6-8 weeks

54
Q

Pancreatic tumor in 1 yo

A

pancreatoblastoma

55
Q

Pancreatic tumor in 6 yo

A

adenocarcinoma

56
Q

Pancreatic tumor in 15 yo

A

SPEN

57
Q

Hepatoblastoma is associated with what three things?

A

Elevated AFP, precocious puberty, Wilms

58
Q

Large cystic hepatic mass with negative AFP in 0-3 yo

A

mesenchymal hamartoma

59
Q

0-3 yo multiseptated hepatic mass with fibrous pseudocapsule

A

embryonal undifferentiated sarcoma

60
Q

Type 1 choledochal cyst=

A

focal dilation of CBD, most common

61
Q

Type 2 choledochal cyst=

A

diverticulum of bile duct

62
Q

Type 3 choledochal cyst=

A

choledochocele

63
Q

Type 4 choledochal cyst=

A

intra and extrahepatic

64
Q

Type 5 choledochal cyst=

A

carolis- intrahepatic only

65
Q

What is Alagille syndrome?

A

hereditary cholestasis due to absent intrahepatic bile ducts, peripheral pulmonary stenosis

66
Q

What is the triangular cord sign?

A

bright hand of tissue near branching of CBD, seen in biliary atresia

67
Q

Horseshoe kidney is associated with what type of cancer?

A

renal carcinoid

68
Q

What are the three characteristics of Prune belly?/Eagle Barrett Syndrome?

A

bad abs, hydrouteronephrosis, cryptorchidism

69
Q

What is the weigert meyer rule?

A

in duplicated renal system- upper pole inserts inferior medially, inferior pole inserts superior laterally. upper gets obstructed, inferior gets reflux

70
Q

What are the five grades of VUR

A

1: reflux halfway up ureter
2: reflux into non dilated kidney
3: blunted calyces
4: mildly tortuous
5: very tortuous

71
Q

Two kidney tumors in neonate

A

Nephroblastomatosis, mesoblastic nephroma

72
Q

4 renal tumors around age 4

A

wilms + variants, lymphoma, multilocular cystic nephroma

73
Q

2 renal tumors in teenagers

A

RCC, lymphoma

74
Q

Which type of Wilms mets to bone?

A

clear cell

75
Q

What is the follow up for nephroblastomatosis?

A

US q 3 months until age 7-8

76
Q

What is a key feature of mesoblastic nephroma?

A

involves the renal sinus

77
Q

What are three things seen in Beckwith Wiedemann?

A

Wilms, omphalocele, hepatoblastoma

78
Q

Protrude into renal pelvis=

A

multilocular cystic nephroma

79
Q

heterogeneous testicular mass in <2 yo w/ elevated AFP=

A

yolk sac tumor

80
Q

highly aggressive highly vascular testicular tumor seen in 2nd decade

A

choriocarcinoma

81
Q

bilateral burnt out testicular tumors

A

sertoli cell tumors

82
Q

testicular sertoli cell tumors are associated with what syndrome?

A

Peurtz Jegher

83
Q

four types of sacrococcygeal teratoma

A

Type 1: extra pelvic

2: barely pelvic, not abdominal
3: some abdominal
4: inside abdomen—malignant!

84
Q

What is a characteristic of a Milch II lateral condylar fracture?

A

passes through capitello trochlear groove and is unstable

85
Q

iliac avulsion

A

abdominal muscles

86
Q

asis avulsion=

A

sartorius

87
Q

aiis avulsion=

A

rectus femoris

88
Q

greater trochanter avulsion=

A

gluteal muscles

89
Q

symphysis avulsion=

A

adductor group

90
Q

ischial tuberosity avulsion=

A

hamstrings

91
Q

lesser trochanter avulsion=

A

illiopsoas

92
Q

celery stalk=

A

rubella

93
Q

wimberger sign-

A

syphyllis

94
Q

pediatric hot mandible on bone scan=

A

caffey disease

95
Q

What is the pattern of physiologic growth of the newborn?

A

periostitis of diaphysis, femur before tibia at about 3-6mo of age

96
Q

narrowing of interpedicular distance=

A

achondroplasia

97
Q

Three features of thanatophoric dwarf=

A

flat vertebra, telephone receiver femurs, cloverleaf skull

98
Q

bell shape thorax with short ribs=

A

jeune/aspyxiating thoracic dystrophy

99
Q

dwarf with multiple fingers=

A

ellis van crevald

100
Q

What is pyknodysostosis?

A

osteopetrosis in a dwarf with wide angled jaw

101
Q

Fibula is longer than the tibia=

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

102
Q

congenital fusion of the cervical spine with sprengel deformity=

A

klippel feil

103
Q

mid vertebral body beaking

A

Morquio

104
Q

Inferior vertebral body beaking

A

Hurlers

105
Q

Wide metcarpal bones with proximal tapering=

A

hurlers/morquio/hunters

106
Q

anterior tibial bowing w/ pseudoarthrosis of the fibula

A

NF 1

107
Q

Where are the four MSK signs see in Gauchers?

A

AVN femoral heads, H shaped vertebrae, bone infarcts, erlenmeyer flask shaped femurs

108
Q

PORK=CHop

A

wormian bones

pyknodysotosis
osteogenesis imperfecta
rickets
kinky hair syndrome
cleidocranial dysostosis
hajdu cheney
109
Q

What are the kocher criteria?

A 
Septic arthritis, need 3/4 positive
fever
inability to walk
elevated ESR/ CRP
WBC >12k
110
Q

rachitic rosary, fraying/cupping of physeal margin

A

rickets

111
Q

rickets in newborn

A

hypophosphatasia

112
Q

scorbutic rosary

A

scurvy

113
Q

white sclerotic metaphyseal band

A

lead poisoning

114
Q

lucent metaphyseal band 4 ddx

A

leukemia
TORCH
neuroblastoma mets
rickets/scurvy

115
Q

Eye ball calc <3yo (3)

A

retinoblastoma
CMV
colobomatous

116
Q

Eye ball calc >3 yo

A

toxo, retinal astrocytoma

117
Q

dolichocephaly

A

sagital

118
Q

trigonocephaly

A

metopic

119
Q

brachycephaly

A

coronal

120
Q

plagiocephaly

A

unilateral lambdoid

121
Q

bilateral lambdoid

A

turricephaly

Rad (18 decks)

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