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GI Flashcards

1
Q

Where are cholesterol deposits located in GB adenomyomatosis?

A

Rokitanksy aschoff sinuses

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2
Q

Where is cholesterol in GB cholesterolosis?

A

Lamina propria

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3
Q

What is Mirizzi Syndrome?

A

Common hepatic duct is obstructed secondary to impacted cystic stone

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4
Q

Direct signs of stenosis Within vessel (2)

A

Elevated peak systolic velocity

Spectral broadening

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5
Q

Indirect signs of vessel stenosis (3)

A

Tardus parvus downstream

Low RI downstream

High RI upstream

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6
Q

Two causes of pulsatile hepatic vein

A

TR

Right chf

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7
Q

D vs s

TR

RHF

A

D deeper

S deeper

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8
Q

Decreased hv pulsatility 2

A

Cirrhosis

Hepatic venous outflow obstruction

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9
Q

Two causes of lipomatous pseudohypertrophy of the pancreas

A

Shwachman diamond

CF adult

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10
Q

Larger calculi in dilated pancreatic duct

A

Tropic pancreatitis

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11
Q

Sausage shaped pancreas

A

Autoimmune pancreatitis

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12
Q

True simple cysts are associated with what three syndromes?

A

VHL

CF
PCKD

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13
Q

Microcystuc mutilocular lobulated lesion with central calcification in the pancreatic head

A

Serous cyst adenoma

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14
Q

Mucinous cystic neoplasm

A

Unilocular lesion with peripheral calcs in body/tail

Mother

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15
Q

SPEN

A

Daughter lesion

Large lesion in tail with thick capsule

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16
Q

Two signs seen in pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A

Frostburg inverted 3

Wide duodenal sweep

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17
Q

Increases risk of pancreatic ampullary carcinoma in what syndrome

A

Gardeners

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18
Q

What are the three borders of the gastrinoma triangle

A

Superior: junction of cystic and CBD

Inferior: start of the third portion of the duodenum

Medial: start of the body of the pancreas

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19
Q

Two sources of blood supply in pancreatic transplant and what they supply

A

Sma: inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery and donor splenic artery to head

Donor splenic artery to body and tail

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20
Q

What are the two Venous drainage in pancreatic transplant

A

Donor portal vein and recipient smv

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21
Q

What are gamma gandy bodies

A

Hemorrhagic foci in spleen associated with portal hypertension

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22
Q

What is peliosis?

A

Multiple blood filled spaces in spleen and liver

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23
Q

What is the triad of felty syndrome?

A

Smg

RA

Neutropenia

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24
Q

What’s the most common splenic infection in the us and what does it look like

A

Histoplasmosis

Multiple rounded calcs

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25
Q

What does splenic brucellosis look like on ct

A

Bulls eye calcification

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26
Q

What is the muscular ring above the vestibule?

A

A ring

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27
Q

What is the muscular ring below the vestibule?

A

B ring

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28
Q

Where does a Zenker diverticulum occur?

A

hypopharynx

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29
Q

Where does a killian jamieson diverticulum occur?

A

cervical esophagus

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30
Q

reticular mucosal esophageal pattern

A

Barretts

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31
Q

Ringed Esophagus

A

eosinophilc esophagitis

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32
Q

What defines T3 vs T4 esophageal cancer?

A

Adventitia vs invasion into adjacent structures

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33
Q

Shaggy Esophagus

A

Candidiasis

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34
Q

Multiple elevated benign nodules in an asymptomatic patient

A

Glycogenic Acanthoses

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35
Q

multiple small esophageal ulcers with halo of edema

A

herpes

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36
Q

large flat esophageal ulcer (2)

A

CMV HIV

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37
Q

What is the site of weakness where zenker diverticula arise?

A

killian triangle (posterior)

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38
Q

Multiple small esophageal outpouchings

A

chronic reflux- esophageal pseudodiverticulosis

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39
Q

What is dysphagia lusoria?

A

compression of esophagus from aberrant right subclavian artery

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40
Q

What three things are seen in Scleroderma?

A

lower 2/3 esophageal dysmotility, NSIP, small bowel with hide bound valvulae conniventes

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41
Q

What four things are seen in Gardner Syndrome?

A

FAP, desmoid tumors, osteomas, papillary thyroid cancer

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42
Q

What three things are associated with Turcots

A

FAP gliomas medulloblastomas

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43
Q

What is associated with Peutz Jeghers? (3)

A

small/large bowel CA, pancreatic CA, GYN CA

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44
Q

What three things are seen in Cowden?

A

Breast CA, Thyroid CA, Lhermitte Duclos

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45
Q

What two things are seen in Cronkhite Canada?

A

Stomach/SB/LB CA, Ectodermal disease

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46
Q

WHat is Carneys triad?

A

Extra adrenal pheo, GIST, Pulmonary chondroma

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47
Q

What is done in Billroth 1?

A

pylorus removed, proximal stomach sewed directly to the duodenum

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48
Q

carmen meniscus sign=

A

malignant stomach ulcer

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49
Q

hamptons line=

A

benign stomach ulcer

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50
Q

Linitis plastica can be the result of what three things?

A

scirrhous adenocarcinoma, breast or lung mets

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51
Q

What is the most common met to the stomach?

A

melanoma

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52
Q

What is Menetrier’s Disease?

A

idiopathic gastropathy with rugal thickening involving fundus, sparing antrum

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53
Q

What is a rams horn deformity?

A

tapering of the antrum

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54
Q

What is the differential for a rams horn deformity?

A

peptic ulcer scarring, granuloamtous disease, scirrhous carcinoma

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55
Q

What is the most common GI tract location for sarcoid?

A

stomach

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56
Q

What is done in billroth 2?

A

partial gastrectomy, stomach attached to duodenum

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57
Q

What is done in roux en y?

A

gastric pouch attaced to jejunum, excluded stomach to duodenum, jejunum attached to other jejunum to form bottom of Y

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58
Q

Clover leaf sign=

A

healed peptic ulcer of duodenal bulb

59
Q

Sand like jejunal nodules=

A

Whipples

60
Q

Pseudo whipples is caused by?

A

MAI

61
Q

What is Lane Hamilton Syndrome?

A

celiac sprue + idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis

62
Q

What are the CT findings of Celiac Sprue? (2)

A

fold reversal and cavitary lymph nodes

63
Q

Moulage sign=

A

dilated bowel with effaced folds seen in Celiac sprue

64
Q

ribbon bowel=

A

graft vs host

65
Q

Chronic dialysis patients may have what finding?

A

thickened dudodenal folds

66
Q

Most common primary location of GI carcinoid?

A

distal ileum

67
Q

NM for carcinoid?

A

MIBG or octreotide

68
Q

Which hernia is medial to inferior epigastric artery?

A

direct

69
Q

What causes a direct inguinal hernia?

A

defect in hesselbachs triangle

70
Q

Which hernia is covered by internal spermatic fascia?

A

direct

71
Q

What causes an indirect hernia?

A

failure of processus vaginalis to close

72
Q

What is a superior lumbar hernia called?

A

Grynfeltt lesshaft

73
Q

What is an inferior lumbar hernia called?

A

Petit

74
Q

WHere is a spigelian hernia located?

A

along semilunar line through transversus abdominis aponeurosis

75
Q

What does a littre hernia contain?

A

meckels diverticulum

76
Q

What does an amyand hernia contain?

A

appendix

77
Q

Which hernia is at a very high risk of strangulation?

A

Richter due to only one bowel wall involved

78
Q

What is a Petersen hernia?

A

behind roux limb mesentery may be retro or antecolic

79
Q

What and where is hte most common type of internal hernia?

A

paraduodenal, on the left at the duodenojejunal junction/fossa of landzert

80
Q

Where are right sided paraduodenal hernias located?

A

fossa of waldeyer

81
Q

What is an onion sign?

A

on ultrasound, layering within a cystic mass= mucocele

82
Q

What two signs are seen in sigmoid volvulus?

A

coffee bean, inverted 3

83
Q

What is the buzzword for sigmoid volvulus?

A

frimann dahl sign

84
Q

Cecal volvulus points where?

A

LUQ

85
Q

What is Behcet’s

A

penile and oral ulcers with pulmonary artery aneurysms

86
Q

What is colitis cystica?

A

Cystic dilation of the mucous glands

87
Q

What two syndromes are associated with rectal cavernous hemangioma?

A

Klippel Trenaunay-Weber and Blue Rubber Bleb

88
Q

What three findings are seen in Entamoeba Histolytica?

A

conced cecum, flask shaped ulcers, spares terminal ileum

89
Q

What three findings are seen in colonic TB?

A

coned cecum, fleishcner sign (enlarged gaping IC valve), stierlin sign (TI narrowing)

90
Q

accordion sign=

A

c diff, contrast trapped inside mucosal folds

91
Q

Where does typhilitis occur?

A

cecum

92
Q

What ic McKittrick Wheelock Syndrome?

A

Villous adenoma leading to mucous diarrhea

93
Q

What is stage T3 rectal CA?

A

breaks out of rectum into perirectal fat

94
Q

sandwich sign=

A

mesenteric lymphoma

95
Q

What is Cantlie’s line?

A

right and left hepatic lobes (functioning)

96
Q

What is the most common hepatic vascular variant?

A

replaced right hepatic from SMA

97
Q

What ist he most common biliary variant?

A

right posterior segmental branch emptying into the left hepatic duct

98
Q

What are the MRI characteristics of a regenerative nodule?

A

T1 and T2 Dark, no enhancement

99
Q

What are the MRI characteristics of a dysplastic nodule?

A

T1 bright, T2 dark, no enhancement

100
Q

What are the MRI characteristics of a HCC?

A

T2 bright, enhances

101
Q

NM for FNH?

A

sulfur colloid

102
Q

Characteristics of FNH scar?

A

T2 Bright, delayed enhancement

103
Q

When multiple hepatic adenomas think…

A

Liver adenomatosis or von gierke

104
Q

What is the most common location for hepatic adenoma?

A

right hepatic lobe

105
Q

NM for fibrolamellar HCC?

A

gallium

106
Q

Fibrolamellar HCC characteristics

A

T2 dark, no enhancement

107
Q

What encases the portal vein?

A

cholangio

108
Q

What are the four classic features of cholangio?

A

Delayed enhancement, peripheral biliary dilation, liver capsule retraction, no tumor capsule

109
Q

In what two diseases may hepatic angiosarcoma be seen?

A

NF, hemochormatosis

110
Q

What feature does hepatic Kaposi Sarcoma have?

A

diffuse periportal hypoechoic infiltration

111
Q

What is Kasabach Merritt?

A

sequestration of platelets from giant cavernous hemangioma

112
Q

What disease is hepatic angiomyolipoma associated with?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

113
Q

What defines a Type I Hiatal hernia

A

sliding. GEJ above diaphgram

114
Q

What defines a type II hiatal hernia?

A

paraesophageal, fundus above diaphragm. GEJ normal position

115
Q

What defines a Type III hiatal hernia?

A

elevation of GEJ with herniation of fundus

116
Q

What defines a type IV hiatal hernia?

A

Large with other organs herniated

117
Q

What is an inflammatory eosphagogastric polyp?

A

fixed thickened gastric fold at GE junction seen in GERD

118
Q

At what diameter do patients become symptomatic to esophageal stenosis?

A

< 13mm

119
Q

EBV esophageal ulcers look like what?

A

deep linear

120
Q

What is Macklin Phenomenon?

A

alveolar rupture in PIE

121
Q

Where does an esophageal tear most commonly occur?

A

Left posterolateral wall

122
Q

What does the esophagus look like in caustic ingestion?

A

Long stricture

123
Q

What is best positioning to view esophageal varices on upper GI?

A

RAO semiprone collapsed esophagus

124
Q

Three causes of high esophageal web formation

A

Plummer vinson, bullous pemphigoid, ectopic gastric mucosa

125
Q

Normal angle in gastric lap band

A

4-58

126
Q

What is the Borchardt triad?

A

sudden epigastric pain, retching, cant pass NG, seen in gastric volvulus

127
Q

What are the findings on SBFT of celiac?

A

widened thin folds, transient jejunojenual intussecption

128
Q

What is the most common malignancy in untreated Celiac?

A

T cell lymphoma

129
Q

What is cavitary lymph node syndrome?

A

in celiac, villous atrophy, nodal masses, splenic atrophy

130
Q

What worm causes cholangitis/pancreatitis?

A

ascaris

131
Q

What worm causes anemia?

A

hookworm

132
Q

What work comes from sushi?

A

Anisakis

133
Q

What worm causes rectal prolapse?

A

trichuris

134
Q

What are the borders of hesselbachs triangle?

A

inguinal ligament inferiorly, IEV superolaterally, conjoined tendon medially

135
Q

Duodenal windsock sign

A

=intraluminal duodenal diverticulum

136
Q

What is Griffiths critical point?

A

anastomsis between left colic and marginal artery of drummond

137
Q

What is Sudeck point?

A

Watershed area at anastomosis between superior rectal artery and last sigmoid branch of IMA

138
Q

De Garengeot hernia?

A

appendix in a femoral hernia

139
Q

Collar button ulcer=

A

ulcerative colitis

140
Q

What is the enhancement pattern in peliosis hepatitis?

A

centrifugal

141
Q

What bacteria is associated with peliosis hepatitis?

A

bartonella

142
Q

What is the triad of Klippel Trenaunay?

A

port wine, limb hemihypertrophy, hemagiomatosis

143
Q

Typical splenic angiosarcoma appearance?

A

complex cystic with central necrosis and enhancing nodularity

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