PDO Questions Flashcards
1
Q
what is the main purpose of a fire department pumper?
A
to provide adequate water pressure for effective fire streams
2
Q
what is the standard for automotive Fire Apparatus?
A
NFPA 1901
3
Q
1901 specifies a minimum pump capacity and water tank capacity, what are they?
A
pump capacity 750 GPM, water tank capacity at least 300 gallons
4
Q
who categorizes pumping apparatus and Mobile water supply apparatus based on capability
A
incident command system (ics)
5
Q
what is the purpose of apparatus typing?
A
to make it easier for incident commanders to call for exactly the types of resources they need to manage an incident
6
Q
1901 states that a mobile water supply apparatus must have a tank capacity of what?
A
at least 1, 000 gallons
7
Q
riding on the outside of the apparatus is prohibited by which NFPA?
A
NFPA 1500 standard on fire department occupational safety and health program
8
Q
what is the difference between maintenance and repair?
A
maintenance is keeping equipment or apparatus in a state of usefulness, where as repair is to restore or put together something that has become inoperable
9
Q
How should a vehicle be checked?
A
walk clockwise starting at the driver door
10
Q
Driver/Operator must have a keen awareness of what three angles for the apparatus they are driving?
A
Angle of approach, Angle of departure, and Breakover angle
11
Q
What is visual lead time?
A
It is the time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed.
12
Q
NFPA 1901 specifies a minimum pump capacity and water capacity of what
A
750gpm and 300 gallons
13
Q
What are the pump capacities of the 3 sizes of pumpers?
A
Mini <500gpm, Midi<1,000 gmp, Full size at least 750gpm-3,000
14
Q
What are the two basic functions of a mobile water supply apparatus?
A
Mobile shuttle operation(dump tank) or a nurse tender(connected to a pumper)
15
Q
What class foam is extremely effective in attacking wildland fires and protecting exposures?
A
Class a
16
Q
What is an inverter used for?
A
to convert a vehicle’s 12- or 24- volt DC current into 110- or 220- volt AC current; typically used to power vehicle-mounted floodlights
17
Q
Below what pressure does an air pressure protetion valve that prevents air horns or other nonessential devices from being opperated activate?
A
below 80psi
18
Q
What is the most common place for a collision to occur?
A
At an intersection
19
Q
What is the law of inertia?
A
“objects in motion tend to remain in motion; objects at rest tend to remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force”
20
Q
At what speed does and engine begin to outrun its audible warning device?
A
above 50mph
21
Q
What are the maximum operating pressures for a solid stream handline and master stream?
A
Handline maximum of 50psi while master stream is max 80psi
22
Q
What is the formula for the discharge rate?
A
GPM=29.7xd^2x(sqroot of NP) Where: GPM= discharge in gallons per minute, 29.7 = constant, d= diameter of the orifice in inches, NP= nozzle pressure in psi
23
Q
What is the formula for nozzle reaction for solid stream nozzles?
A
NR=1.57xd^2xNP; Where: NR= nozzle reaction in lbs, 1.57 = constant, d= Nozzle diameter in inches, NP= nozzle pressure in psi
24
Q
What is a simple equation to calculate nozzle reaction on the fireground?
A
NR=Q/3 where q equals the total flow of water in gpm flowing through the nozzle
25
What is the formula for calcuating nozzle reaction for fog stream nozzles?
NR=.0505xQx(square root of NP) Where NR= nozzle reaction in lbs, Q= total flow through the nozzle in gpm, NP= nozzle pressure in psi
26
What is the theoretical formula for friction loss?
FL=CQ^2L Where: FL= friction loss in psi, C= friction loss coefficient, Q= Flow rate in hundreds of gallons per minute(gpm/100), L= Hose length in hundreds of feet(feet/100)
27
What is a pitot tube used fore?
A pitot tube and guage is used to measure water flow pressure in psi
28
What does a flowmeter do?
a flowmeter measures water flow in gpm.
29
What is the equation for elevation pressure on the fire ground?
EP=.5H, Where EP= elevation pressure in psi, H= height in feet
30
What is the equation for elevation pressure loss in a multistory building?
EP=5psi x (number of stories - 1)
31
What is total friction loss a combination of?
Friction loss, elevation pressure loss, and appliance loss
32
At what flow do you add 10 psi for friction loss for an appliance?
350gpm
33
When calculating pressure loss with a master stream device, the driver must add how much psi to the pressure loss calculation?
25psi
34
What is the formula for pump discharge pressure?
PDP=NP+TPL where pdp = pump discharge pressure in psi, NP= nozzle pressure in psi, TPL= total pressure loss in psi(due to friction, elevation, and appliances)
35
What does the net pump discharge pressure equal?
Net pump discharge pressure = pump discharge pressure - intake reading
36
What are pparataus which carry al standard engine company equipment, but also feature a larger than standard amount of rescue and extrication equipment commonly called?
Rescue Pumpers
37
Most industrial foam pumpers are primarily intended to produce large quantities of foam to attack what type of fire?
Class B fires
38
Pumping apparatus with elevated water devices typipcally range in height from what to what?
50 -75 feet
39
The majority of wildland fire apparatus have pump capacities less than what?
500 gallons
40
What kind of foam has been shown to be extremely effective in attacking wildland fires and protecting exposures?
Class A foams
41
Some fireboats have the pumping capacity as high as what?
50,000 gpm
42
Portabable generators are manufactured with a bariety of power capabilities, with what being the largest?
5,000Watts
43
Rescue vehicles commonly have generators with power capabilities of what or greater?
50,000 Watts
44
Pump capacities larger than 750 gpm increase in increments of 250 gpm with most municipal fire departments operating pumpers of what or less?
2,000 gpm
45
wildland fire apparatus can be equipped with water tanks of what or larger?
1000 gallons
46
if you were looking fro information on the requirements for the design of wildland fire apparatus, where would you look?
NFPA 1906
47
VOLUNTEER FIRE DEPARTMENTS SHOULD ESTABLISH A PROCEDURE WHEREBY fire apparatus is inspected and maintained on which schedule?
Weely
48
Where does the "Circle" or pre-trip walk-about end?
Inside the cab by starting the apparatus and performing a functional check on apparatus systems
49
The device that turns various lights on at specific interbals so taht the startup electrical load for all devices on the apparatus do not occur at the same time is called what?
Load Sequencer
50
What is the standard for emergence behicle technician professional qualifications?
nfpa 1071
51
Apparatus brakes should be thoroughly tested at least _____ using the methods described in nfpa 1911
Annually
52
On apparatus equipped with air brakes, air pressure should build up to a sufficient level to allow safe behicle operations with a time span of ______ after starting the apparatus.
60 seconds
53
Apparatus equipped with air brakes have an air pressure protection valve that prevents the air horns from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below what?
80 Psi
54
To test the road brakes, the driver should allow the vehicle to move forward at a swpeed of about 5 mph. The driver then applies the brakes firmly. The apparatus should come to a stop within about how many feet?
20
55
To test the parking break the driver should allow the vehicle to move forward at a speed of about 5 mph. The driver the applies the brakes firmly. The apparatus should come to a stop within about how many feet?
20
56
When should the apparatus air system be checked?
When the engine is off, with the system at normal operating pressure
57
When filling lubrication fill connections, how should you opperate the pump handle of the gun?
By applying it until resistance is felt.
58
The first step in charging a vehicle's batter is to?
Don the appropiate ppe
59
When should a driver test the warning devices of apparatus?
Only when the driver is in the cab, and no one else is around
60
An inspection where a certain system or component of an apparatus is operated to ensure that it is functioning properly is called what?
Functional check
61
An electical monitoring system that will shed electrical load in a predertermined order if the chassis voltage begins to drop below a predetermined level is known as what?
Load management system
62
A braking system taht uses a fluid in a closed system to pressurize wheel cylinders when activated is called what?
Hydraulic braking system
63
What is an Air brake test?
A series of tests to ensure the serviceability of an air braking system
64
What is a stack adjuster?
A device used in air braking systems that connect between the activation pads and the brake pads that compensate for bake pad wear
65
What is a specific inspection to an area of the chassis or apparatus to ensure that the unit is operating properly in accordance with the manufacturer's initial design known as?
Post-Maintenance/Repair Inspection
66
According to NFPA 1911 driver should check for bulges in the apparatus tires greater than what?
3/8 inch
67
When starting the apparatus engine, air pressure should build to 85 to 100 psi within ____ at full engine rpm
45 seconds
68
According to data compiled by NIOSH, the number of firefighter fatalities occurring while responding to or returning from emergencies is second only to the number of fatalities resulting from ____
suddon cardiac arrest
69
D/O must also meet the requirements of ____
NFPA 1001 Firefighter 1
70
NFPA 1582
Comprehensive Occupational Medical program for fire departments; this may be used as the criteria upon which the medical evaluation is based
71
Which NFPA provides very specific requirements about vision?
NFPA 1582
72
NFPA 1582 recommends what if a firefighter cannot hear all the frequencies of a hearing test
Reject the candidate
73
NFPA 1451
Standard for a fire service vehicle operations training program
74
At what level are most laws and statutes concerning motor vehicle operation maintained?
State or provincial level
75
When encountering a bus with red lights, the fire apparatus should only proceed after a ___ signal has been given by the bus driver or a police officer
Safe to pass
76
In the US, who establishes the basic requirements for licensing of drivers?
DOT
77
What factors affect a fire department's choice of aerial apparatus? (7 things)
1. Maneuverability
2. the number or responders the apparatus will need to carry
3. Most common tasks required of the aerial device
4. Amount of equipment it will carry
5. Budget
6. insurance industry recomendations 7. Planning department recomendations
78
What three categories does NFPA 1901 use to define aerial apparatus?
1. Aerial Ladder
2. Elevating Platform
3. Water towers
79
What is the most common aerial fire apparatus in North America
Aerial ladder apparatus
80
What is the primary function of the turntable?
To provide continuous rotation of the aerial device on a horizontal plane
81
How do you measure the working height for aerial ladders?
From the ground to the highest rung with the ladder at max elevation and extension
82
How tall must the foot plate be around an aerial platform?
4 inches
83
What is the required floor area for a platform?
14 square feet
84
On an aerial platform no opening under the railing can be greater than ___.
24 inches
85
How many operator control stations are required for elevating platforms?
TWO, one at street level and one in the platform
86
Is a backup hydraulic system required for elevated platform apparatus?
YES
87
What happens if the heat reflective shield of an aerial platform is aged, dirty, or damaged?
It can lose its ability to reflect heat, shields that have been damaged must be replaced
88
As required by NFPA 1901, a ____ is also necessary on the bottom of the platform
Protective water fog curtain nozzle (75 gpm)
89
The water fog curtain nozzle should flow at least ___ per NFPA 1901
75 gpm
90
What are the load requirements for elevating platforms when fully extended at any elevation?
750 pounds with no water in the pipe or 500 pounds if there is water in the pipe
91
What must the water delivery system of an elevated platform be capable of discharging?
1000 gpm at 100 psi
92
What are the requirements for setting up an elevating platform less than 110 feet?
Raised from bedded position to max extension and elevation and rotated 90 degrees within 150 seconds
93
Is there a time requirement for setting an elevating platform taller than 110 feet?
NO
94
Is a communication system between the two control stations required?
YES
95
How is the working height of an aerial ladder platform determined?
From the ground to the top surface of the highest platform handrail
96
What are common sizes for aerial ladder platforms?
85 to 110 feet
97
What is the most common aerial ladder platform in service today?
Straight chassis, three-axle vehicle with rear mounted aerial device
98
What is the small ladder attached to the boom of a telescoping aerial platform used for?
Emergency escape for firefighters working in the platform
99
What are common sizes for telescoping aerial platforms?
75 to 100 feet
100
Where can hydraulic lines, air lines, electrical cords, and waterways be kept when a telescoping aerial platform is made of box beam construction?
Within the center or on the outside of the box beam
101
With tubular truss construction of telescoping apparatus, tubular steel is welded to form a box shape using ____ or ___ truss design.
Cantilever or triangle truss design
102
What is an additional benefit of an articulating aerial platform?
Enables the platform to go "Up and over", which may be especially useful during rescue operations
103
Standard articulating aerial platforms range in height from ___ to ___.
55 to 85 feet
104
When an aerial device both telescopes and articulates where do they extend?
These devices typically consist of two or more telescoping booms on each side of the articulating hinge
105
An aerial device with a large telescoping boom and an articulating end on the last fly section may range in height from ___ to ___.
90 to 174 feet
106
Where is a water tower controlled?
By the D/O at ground level, controls are located either at the rear of the apparatus or on the midship pump panel
107
A water tower fire stream is designed to be deployed at a range of elevations starting from ___ to ___
A few degrees below horizontal to nearly 90 degrees from the ground
108
What are common sizes for water towers?
50 to 130 feet
109
Water tower are capable of flows from ___ to ___.
1000 to 5000 gpm
110
If a water tower is equipped with a ladder and it does not meet NFPA 1901 it is recommended that these devices be used only as ___
Emergency escape routes
111
What are the 5 components of a quint?
1. Fire pump
2. Water tank
3. Supply and attack hose
4. Ground ladders
5. Aerial device or elevated platform
112
____ establishes the number of sections and minimum reach required of an aerial apparatus
NFPA 1901
113
What are the two most common materials for construction of aerial apparatus?
Heat treated aluminum alloy and steel
114
How can the fabricated structural members of an aerial be fastened? (3 ways)
Rivets, welded (steel), or heliarced (aluminum alloy)
115
NFPA 1901 establishes requirements for the dimensions of ____.
Sections and structural members of the aerial ladder
116
How were some early aerial devices operated?
Manually by any one of several designs including spring operated and gear driven
117
What are the four main components of a hydraulic system?
actuators, Hydraulic fluid, hydraulic pump, and a hydraulic reservoir
118
How is the aerial hydraulic pump powered?
By a PTO arrangement off the vehicle's main engine
119
What type of pump is the aerial hydraulic pump?
load sensing piston pump, rotary vane pump, or rotary gear positive-displacement pump
120
Hydraulic fluid is used because it is practically ___.
Incompressible and it allows force to be transmitted over a relatively large distance with little loss of power
121
The hydraulic fluid may be under pressure up to ___.
3500 psi
122
Pinhole leaks are capable of ___.
Cutting through human tissue and may also cause severe burns
123
How does the hydraulic reservoir condition the hydraulic fluid?
It allows air, heat, and foreign matter to be eliminated from the fluid.
124
What can be used to supplement the hydraulic reservoirs ability to condition the fluid?
A filter and exchange type oil cooler
125
What type of hydraulic hose do most manufacturers use?
Steel tubing and aircraft type, steel braided hose.
126
Hydraulic hose must be rated to withstand pressures at least ___ times greater than normal operating pressure.
FOUR
127
Valves designed to prevent unintentional or undesirable motion of an aerial device from position
Counterbalance valve
128
One of the more important valves in the system is the ____ (also known as the ____ or ____ valve). This is a three way valve that directs fluid to either the stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves
Selector valve (transfer or diverter valve)
129
Which valves are used to direct and control the power in the system AFTER the selector valve has been positioned? (4 valve types)
Actuator valves, monitor valves, stack valves, and proportional directional valves; These valves tend to be 4 or 5 way
130
Does NFPA 1901 require an aux hydraulic pump?
YES; usually 12V DC but can be 110 AC; works at a reduced speed
131
How should an aux hydraulic pump be operated?
A minute on with a minute rest in between operations
132
How many cylinders does a stabilizer have?
One or Two
133
What are other names for hoisting cylinders?
Elevating or lift cylinders; their function is to elevate the aerial device from its stowed position
134
What is normal hydraulic pressure for hoisting cylinders?
850 to 3000 psi
135
What is a trunnion?
The pivoting end or the piston rod that is connected to the anchor ear by the heel pin
136
In newer apparatus when the hoisting cylinder has an integral safety valve how can the ladder be lowered?
Manually bleeding the pressure with a bleed down valve
137
Describe extension cylinders
Dual acting that work to extend the second fly section
138
What are extension and retraction cables made of and called?
Corrosion and abrasion resistant aircraft quality cables called plow steel
139
On most aerial apparatus, the lower aerial device control pedestal is located on the ____
Turntable
140
Turntables generally operate on ___
Large sheer ball type bearings
141
For apparatus equipped with a platform, NFPA 1901 also requires a control station ___
In the platform; the controls on the turntable should be able to override the platform controls
142
What order should the aerial control levers be in?
Extension, rotation, elevation from left to right
143
What type of apparatus may use a joystick to control the aerial device?
Water towers, telescoping platforms, and articulating platforms
144
What are the two types of pre-piped waterway systems
Bed ladder systems and telescoping waterway systems
145
Controls and instruments that may be located on the control pedestal (13 items)
engine speed switch, light switches, overide switches, breathing air level gauge, hydraulic oil pressure gauge, hydraulic oil temp gauge, aerial deadman foot switch, load chart and load minder, water flow gauge, cradle indicatior light, extension indicators, stop and lock controls, rund alignment indicatior, inclinometer, hour meter for ladder opp time, nozzle stow indicator, engine starter switch, communications equipment, elevated master stream controls, hydraulic lock valve, rescue/waterway switch, auxiliary hydraulic pump or emergency pump switch, switch for the emergency operation pump
146
What size pipe is used for bed ladder waterway systems?
3 or 3.5 inch
147
What is the intake for a bed ladder waterway system
Two or three way siamese
148
What type of nozzle are bed ladder waterway systems usually equipped with?
Solid stream
149
Most bed ladder pipes are equipped with ____ operated nozzles
Manually
150
Ladders that are ___ feet or shorter and equipped with a telescoping water system have the piping that extends directly to the tip of the fly section
110 feet
151
What are telescoping water pipes usually made of?
Aluminum or other metal
152
What is the internal diameter of telescoping water pipes?
Usually 4 inches
153
Most telescoping water systems are capable of flows up to ___
1000 gpm
154
What are the main components of the detachable ladder pipe system?
The ladder pipe itself, fire hose, hose straps, and a clappered siamese
155
A detachable ladder pipe system may be equipped with which type nozzle?
Fog or solid
156
How is a detachable ladder pipe controlled?
Usually at the tip of the ladder by a firefighter, but can be with ropes
157
What are typical flows for detachable ladder pipe systems?
Less than 750 gpm
158
Detachable ladder pipes are usually what size?
3 to 3.5 inch
159
How many locations should the hose of a detachable ladder pipe be attached to the ladder?
two or three
160
What are allowable horizontal range of movement for detachable ladder pipes?
15 degrees either way; 30 degrees total
161
Platform apparatus may be able to flow up to ____
2000 gpm
162
Some ____ are equipped with video cameras at the tip of the aerial device
Water towers
163
A piercing nozzle attached to a water tower system is capable of flows up to ____
300 gpm
164
The communication device on the tip of the ladder is ___ while the one at the turntable control station does not have to be ___
Hands free
165
NFPA 1901 now REQUIRES a two way communication system on all aerial device apparatus. When possible, IFSTA recommends that all aerial devices without a communication system ___
Be retrofitted to include one
166
T/F In some cases, the facepiece air hose may be long enough to allow the firefighter the ability to leave the aerial device and work remotely from it while still connected to the breathing air system.
TRUE
167
Does NFPA 1901 require aerial devices to be equipped with breathing air systems?
NO
168
What requirements does NFPA 1901 establish for breathing air systems if an aerial is equipped? (5 things)
1. Number of firefighters to be supported by the system
2. Capacity of the compressed air cylinders
3. Pressure requirements of the piping system
4. Low air warning alarms
5. Conformity to government regulations
169
NFPA 1989
Standard on Breathing Air Quality for Emergency Services Respiratory Protection
170
____are the most common power source used for emergency services and can be portable or fixed to the apparatus
Generators
171
The inverter is a step-up transformer that converts the vehicles __ or __ DC current to __ or __ AC current
12 or 24 to 110 or 220
172
Inverters are generally capable of providing up to ___ watts of electric power. They are most commonly used to power ___
5000 watts; vehicle mounted floodlights
173
Most portable generators are designed to be carried by __ or __ people.
One or Two
174
Vehicle mounted generators can be powered by __, __, or __ engines or by __ or __ systems.
Gas, or diesel engines or hydraulic or PTO systems
175
Vehicle mounted power plants usually have 110 and 220 volt capabilities with up to ___ watts of power available.
12,000 watts
176
It is common to find up to ___ watt vehicle mounted generators on rescue vehicles.
50,000 watts
177
Portable lights generally range from ___ to ___ watts
300 to 1000 watts
178
Does NFPA 1901 contain requirements for lights at the tip of the aerial device??
NO
179
How often should you examine electrical power cords?
Daily
180
Electrical power cords must be ___. (4 things)
Adequately insulated, contain a ground wire, be waterproof, and have no exposed wires
181
How can hydraulic pumps for extrication tools receive power? (4 things)
From compressed air, electric motors, two or four cycle motors, or apparatus mounted power take off units
182
Hydraulic hoses for extrication tools that are ___ feet or greater from the pump may have a diminishing effect on tool operation.
100 feet
183
common recomended lengths should not exceed______ feet per reel or cord for electrical power.
200ft
184
Which NFPA contains a list of the minimum equipment with which each aerial apparatus should be equipped?
NFPA 1901
185
A ladder complement must include at least the following:
Attic ladders, Roof ladders, Extension ladders
186
Many fire agencies choose to carry an extension ladder that is ___ feet or longer to reach fourth and fifth story windows. These ladders are called "Pole" ladders.
40 feet
187
Pole ladders are equipped with ___
Stay Poles, also called tormentors
188
What equipment does NFPA 1901 establish as the minimum requirements for forcible entry.
Flathead axes, pick head axes, pike poles, plaster hooks, crowbars, claw tools, sledge hammers, hacksaws and keyhole saws, wrenches, hammers, rotary saws, reciprocating saws, chain saws, hydraulic door openers/rabbet tool, cutting torches, halligan tools
189
Hydraulic door openers (also know as ___) are used to force entry through swinging doors.
Rabbet tools (for swinging doors)
190
What are two common pieces of equipment used for ventilation?
Exhaust fans and positive pressure blowers
191
Smoke ejectors are most commonly powered by ___
Built in electric motors
192
How can positive pressure blowers be powered?
Electric motors, some are gas engines
193
NFPA 1901 requires aerial apparatus to be equipped with multiple salvage covers and __ scoop shovels to assist with salvage and overhaul efforts.
TWO
194
When does loss control start?
From the minute companies leave the station and continues throughout the entire incident
195
Per NFPA 1901, additional equipment to be carried on the aerial apparatus includes:
portable hand lights, portable fire extinguishers, water extinguisher, multiple scba units, spare scba cylinders, medical kit, spanner wrenches, bolt cutters, ladder belts, light use safety rope, general use life safety rope, utility rope, wheel chocks
196
The process of positioning the apparatus at an actual fire incident will be at the discretion of the ___, ___, or the ___ and influenced by ___
IC, Truck company officer, or the driver operator; and influenced by conditions of the fireground
197
SOPs for positioning generally apply to aerial apparatus that are assigned to the ___
Initial response to an emergency; Later arriving aerials will be positioned according to the IAP or incident management personnel
198
Five stories is equal to about how many feet?
60 feet
199
The inside/outside rule assumes that the department is operating aerial devices with a reach of ___
100 feet
200
____ at ___ place the maximum amount of stress on an aerial device and, in some cases, reduce the load carrying capacity of that device.
Long extensions at low angles
201
The best rescue approach is made from __ and ____
uphill and Upwind
202
What is the preferred procedure to push heat or fire away from the aerial while a rescue operation is in progress?
Use a wide-angle fog stream
203
Where should a platform aerial be positioned if the victim will be brought in over the handrail.
Turntable directly in line with the target so that the platform is squarely in front of the target
204
Where should a platform aerial be positioned if the victim will enter through the hinged gate?
The turntable a little forward or behind the target because the gate is typically on the side of the platform
205
When aerial devices are used to give firefighters access to upper levels they should not be repositioned unless ___
Acknowledged and approved by the firefighters who were deployed from the aerial device
206
fall protection will only be useful if the tether is secured to an apropriate ________
anchor point, never anchor onto cables, wires, lights, or any other feature that is not a permanent structural element of the device
207
The aerial should be placed so that the vent holes will not be cut in the ___
Travel path back to the device.
208
Aerial ladders should be extended at least ___ above the roof level.
6 feet
209
When operating an aerial platform, the driver/operator should extend the platform so that the floor of the platform is ___
even with or extended slightly over the roof's ledge
210
What is the goal for ladder placement when breaking windows for horizontal ventilation?
Upwind of the window and slightly higher so the firefighter does not have to deal with falling glass
211
What are the three techniques for elevated master streams?
Blitz attack, defensive attack, or exposure protection
212
How should the apparatus be positioned if the device is to be used as a master stream close to the ground?
Position so that the turntable is directly in line with the intended target
213
A recommended tactic is to direct the master stream at the ___
Ceiling of the target fire area
214
Elevated streams are most commonly used in ___
Defensive operations
215
Manhole covers are a good indication of ___. These surfaces are unstable for the support of aerial apparatus.
Underground voids
216
What is ice shrugging?
A method of removing ice; slowly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove accumulated ice
217
If ice shrugging is not effective for large accumulations of ice, ____ may be necessary
De-icing fluid
218
When operating in high wind the driver should spot the apparatus in a manner that requires the aerial to be raised to the ___ extension needed.
Minimum
219
A good way to operate an aerial in wind is to __
Position the apparatus so that the aerial may be used over the front or rear preferably parallel to the wind
220
What is the goal distance to stay away from overhead electric lines?
10 ft
221
The aerial apparatus is most stable when the aerial device is operated directly over the ___
Front or rear of the vehicle (along the longitudinal axis)
222
An angle ___ to the apparatus is the least stable position.
Perpendicular
223
If a driver has the entire parking lot to use, he or she should ___ rather than park parallel to the objective.
Nose or back the aerial apparatus into position
224
What is the preferred method to position a rear mounted aerial for maximum reach?
Back in
225
With jackknifing, the greatest stability occurs when the tractor angle is approx. ____ from in-line and the aerial device is extended away from this angle
60 degrees
226
With jackknifing. good stability occurs at angles up to ___, beyond this stability decreases rapidly.
90 degrees
227
Modern tillered apparatus may have stabilizer systems that allow them to be adequately stabilized without jackknifing. Even those apparatus become ___
More stable when the apparatus is jackknifed
228
When an apparatus must operate off an incline, the driver can reduce stress by spotting the turntable ___ from the point of operation.
Downhill
229
Ideally, the truck should be operated in the ___ position with the aerial device directly in-line to reduce the stress
Uphill
230
What is another term for an unsupported tip position?
Cantilever position; supported tip rests on the wall/roof of the building
231
If the manufacturer recommends that its device be operated in a supported position, ___
The load or the amount of extension must be reduced for low angles of elevation during unsupported operations
232
The max loading for an unsupported aerial device occurs when operated at angles between ___ from horizontal.
70-80 degrees
233
What are signs that an exterior wall collapse may occur? (6 things)
Bulging walls, sagging roofs, large cracks in the exterior, falling bricks blocks or mortar, interior collapse
234
If the fire building is known to be unstable and in poor repair, the aerial device should not be used in a ___ position.
Supported
235
Incidents that require ___ or ___ require level 2 staging.
Mutual aid or multiple alarms
236
The staging area manager should communicate available resources and resource needs to the ___
Operations section chief
237
Other names for hot zone
Restricted zone, exclusion zone, or red zone
238
Most railroad companies advise that vehicles be kept at least ___ from the tracks when possible.
25 feet
239
Even if a halt confirmation has been received from a railroad, keep the aerial device at least ___ above the level of the rails as an added safety precaution.
25 feet
240
What are the three basic types of aircraft incidents to which aerial apparatus may respond?
1. Aircraft incidents involving extrication
2. Aircraft incidents involving extrication complicated by fire
3. Non-incident related aircraft fires
241
Aerial apparatus are more likely to be useful at ___ involving large frame aircraft.
Non-accident related fires
242
Where do slides inflate and drop from larger aircraft?
From the rear of the wings near the emergency window exits; smaller aircraft slides may drop from the door opening
243
Where should you stage when responding to a dispatched aircraft emergency landing?
Near the expected touchdown area not the final position the aircraft is expected to stop
244
When can you position inside of the dike walls of an elevated petroleum storage tank?
When a roadway is built on top of the dike.
245
It is more efficient to discharge foam streams ___.
Downwind
246
What are some challenges presented at petroleum processing facilities in regards to positioning the apparatus? (3 things)
Narrow driveways, Dead end access, and overhead obstructions
247
What should you do if the apparatus is used solely for person power?
Shut down the engine
248
IFSTA recommends that stabilizers (also called outriggers) and stabilizer pads (also called jack plates) be fully deployed _____ the aerial device is raised from its bed.
Every time
249
Even if the device is only raised a few feet from the cradle to open a tilt cab, ___.
IFSTA recommends placing the stabilizers in position to minimize stress on the suspension
250
As long as the ___ does not extend outside the base of stability, the apparatus should remain stable.
Gravity circle
251
If the apparatus is parked on a lateral grade, the center of gravity (and the theoretical gravity circle) will be shifted to the ___.
Lower side
252
Excessive loading on the aerial device will result in an ___ of the gravity circle.
Expansion
253
The PTO should not be engaged until ___
The aerial apparatus has been properly positioned in accordance with the conditions on the scene
254
A PTO activation switch may be pneumatic, electric, hydraulic or a combination of the three. Pneumatic systems require anywhere from ___ to ___ psi for the PTO to be operated.
50 to 140 psi
255
Some apparatus manufacturers recommend that apparatus equipped with engine brakes or retarders ___
May need to have that system be shut off prior to engaging the aerial PTO
256
How does a "hot-shift" PTO system work?
These systems can be engaged when the main transmission is in neutral.
257
The wheels should have chocks placed both in front of and behind the tire, on both sides of the apparatus, with approx. ___ of extra space for the apparatus to move without causing a wheel chock to become stuck under a tire.
An inch
258
Where is the selector valve located to provide power to the stabilizing system?
Either on the rear step area or midship on the driver's side of the apparatus
259
On some makes of apparatus, operation of the selector valve automatically ___
Releases the aerial device bed locks
260
Generally there is one control for each of the stabilizers, and ___ control can be operated at a time.
More than one
261
Many of the stabilizer hydraulic controls are ____.
Lever-type that move up to about 90 degrees
262
On some apparatus, the aerial device cannot be raised unless the extension arms are ___
Fully extended
263
What are the usual sizes of stabilizer pads?
24 inch by 24 inch
264
When operating on level ground which side is lowered first?
It makes no difference
265
Some types of apparatus may have ___ that automatically engage once proper stabilization has been achieved
Safety interlocks
266
What is a difference in fulcrum stabilizers opposed to H style
Fulcrum can only be fully extended, cannot be short jacked
267
Fulcrum stabilizers should be lowered to ___ prior to the placement of the stabilizer pads.
Within a few inches of the ground
268
What is easier to correct, lateral or longitudinal uneven terrains?
Lateral
269
Correction of lateral unevenness can be achieved on grades of up to ___ percent.
5 percent
270
With lateral uneven terrain, Most manufacturers recommend that the stabilizers on the __ side of the vehicle be lowered first.
Uphill
271
With uneven lateral terrain, it is preferred that the aerial device be operated over the ___ side of the apparatus.
Uphill
272
Referring to longitudinal uneven terrain, articulating apparatus should generally be operated off the ___ of the vehicle whenever possible.
either the rear or the front
273
Most apparatus have restricted loads when operating on grades, some as much as ___
One half the normal load
274
On most aerial apparatus, the combination of ___ valves and the ___ provide automatic locking capabilities of the stabilizers.
the interlock feature of the selector, hydraulic system holding
275
The ___ prevents the flow of hydraulic fluid into or out of the stabilization system while the aerial device is in use.
Interlock
276
The ____ prevent the movement of fluid within the stabilization system.
Holding valves
277
It may be necessary to set the holding valves by __.
Operating the stabilizer controls once in each direction after the selector valve has been moved to the aerial position.
278
With manual stabilizers what do you do if the stabilizer lifts off the pad during aerial operations?
Do not adjust it, this is normal load shifting
279
IFSTA does not recommend operating the aerial device using more than ___ motion at a time, even though it is technically possible to do so. This practice is taxing on the hydraulic pump and may lead to an accident and adds undue stress on the aerial device.
ONE
280
Describe, in order, the series of motions to position an aerial device for use.
Elevation, rotation, extension, lowering
281
Some newer apparatus are equipped with controls that are particularly well suited for simultaneous control such as with __ type controls.
Joystick
282
____ regardless of the skill of the operator, should be minimized due to the large amount of dynamic stress placed upon the aerial device when the motion is halted.
Full speed operations
283
The aerial function controls on most aerial devices are directly linked to the ____
vehicle's engine throttle
284
The operator should lift the aerial device to an elevation that is ___ than that required to reach the target area.
Slightly higher
285
Less experienced drivers may find it easier to sight along the ___ of the ladder as it is being extended.
Top rails
286
The aerial device should be positioned approx. ___ above the surface of the target and allowed to settle onto the surface from the weight of the firefighters on board the device.
4 to 6 inches
287
Do electrical interlocks need to be activated?
NO
288
When do most aerial ladder failures or apparatus overturning occur?
It involves a combination of overloading and overextension of the ladder at low angles of elevation
289
As long as water is flowing, the ___ from the ladder pipe helps to counteract the force of gravity and assists in supporting the extra weight of the ladder.
Nozzle reaction; this is why failures may occur shortly after the water supply to the ladder pipe was shut off.
290
What are the keys to operating on a grade? (3 things)
Optimum positioning, proper stabilization, and knowing load restrictions for the given grade
291
Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: small trees in motion; whitecaps visible on ponds and small lakes.
15-24 mph
292
Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: Large tree branches in motion; whistling heard in utility wires
25-31 mph
293
Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: Whole trees in motion; inconvenience felt walking against wind
32-38 mph
294
Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: Twigs break off trees walking against the wind is generally impeded minor building damage
39-54 mph
295
What is effective to prevent immediate ice adhesion to the aerial device?
Apply grease to exposed sliding surfaces
296
Is heat damage to the aerial device always visible?
No
297
What are some obvious signs of heat damage to an aerial? (4 things)
Discoloration, disfiguration, deformed weld, or improper operation of the aerial device
298
What NFPA refers to recommended out of service OOS criteria?
NFPA 1911
299
The gathering of what conditions will greatly aid any professional reviews of the incident to determine the exact cause leading to the failure. (3 things)
Weather, load, or emergency factors
300
What are the two types of articulating aerial platforms?
Water towers (sometimes configured as snozzles) and aerial platforms
301
If other apparatus, particularly ___, position too close to the articulating aerial apparatus, its aerial device operating space may be impeded to the point of making it inoperable.
Telescoping aerial apparatus
302
Some articulating platforms are also equipped with ___ that support the platform during road travel.
Basket stabilizers
303
Many articulating elevating platforms have a switch on the ___ that is used to activate or deactivate the platform control panel.
Turntable control station panel
304
When operating the aerial device from the lower control station, the driver should stand on an ___.
Anti-electrocution platform
305
How much does 1 cubic inch of ice weigh?
0.03 lb
306
What are the less obvious effects of cold weather?
Physical changes in the properties of the steel structural members of the device
307
When subjected to extreme cold (sub zero) the device should be operated in a manner that will minimize or eliminate ___ to its structural members.
Shock loading
308
How are water curtain nozzles operated?
Usually by some type of foot pedal or valve on the floor of the platform
309
All manufacturers of articulating aerial apparatus include ___
Precautionary measures and recommendations for safe operation in their operator's handbook
310
To avoid unsafe positioning of the tip of the aerial platform, the operator should always ___.
Rotate that turntable until it faces the working area before the final position
311
How can valves be controlled?
Manually, electrically, hydraulically, mechanically, or a combination of any
312
Which valve acts as a safety feature if there is a leak?
Check valve
313
What converts the hydraulic power to mechanical force?
The actuators (hydraulic cylinders)
314
Where is the ladder pipe designed to be clamped?
The top two rungs on the fly section
315
Where is water most commonly pumped from for a water tower?
The pump on the apparatus
316
Loss control activities include (4 things)
Safe driving skills, water application techniques, salvage, and overhaul
317
Things to consider when spotting an aerial apparatus (5 things)
Surface conditions, grade, windy conditions, electrical hazards and ground or overhead obstructions, angle and location of aerial device operation, and special situations
318
When approaching from the uphill side
pull the apparatus past the building and operate the aerial device from the rear
319
When approaching from the downhill side
stop short of the building and operate the aerial over the cab
320
What facilitates the orderly positioning of apparatus?
A staging procedure
321
What zone is the hazmat control officer in?
cold zone
322
With lateral uneven terrain and you must operate on the downhill side, what should you consider?
Less amounts of extension and loading
323
When parked on longitudinal grades you should not
Extend or retract over the side of the apparatus
324
Which NFPA requires driver/operators to have certain preventative maintenance skills?
NFPA 1002
325
Define Maintenance.
Keeping the apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness.
326
Define Repair.
To restore or replace that which has become inoperable.
327
What does preventative maintenance ensure? (3 things)
1. Apparatus reliability 2. Reduces the frequency and cost of repairs 3. Lessens out of service time
328
What is the goal of preventative maintenance?
is to eliminate unexpected and catastrophic failures that may endanger firefighters and the general public
329
Some FDs may have a designated apparatus maintenance officer that meets the requirements of...
Emergency vehicle technician according to NFPA 1071, Standard for emergency vehicle technician professional qualifications
330
NFPA 1071
Standard for Emergency Vehicle Technician professional qualifications.
331
Driver operators should be able to perform ______ maintenance functions.
Basic
332
In almost all cases, repair functions are carried out by _______.
Qualified mechanics
333
Every fire department should have SOPs for a....
Systematic apparatus maintenance program that complies with applicable NFPA standards
334
Typically, career fire departments require driver/operators to perform apparatus inspection and maintenance checks at
The beginning of each tour of duty
335
More detailed work may be completed on a _____ or ______ basis.
Weekly or monthly
336
Volunteer fire departments should establish a procedure by which all apparatus are inspected and maintained on at least a ______ or ______ schedule.
Weekly or biweekly
337
List 3 functions that maintenance records serve.
1. Warranty claims 2. Accident investigations 3. Data on whether to continue repairs or buy new equipment
338
Keeping the apparatus body clean also helps promote a...
Longer vehicle life (particularly true where road salts are used)
339
T/F Overcleaning can have negative effects
True, it can remove lubrication from chassis, engine, pump, or other components
340
What is the most commonly performed maintenance function?
Washing
341
During the first ____ months after an apparatus is received, it should be washed _____ with cold water to harden the paint and keep it from spotting.
Six months, frequently
342
Recommend washing instructions for new paint - hose stream
Use a garden hose without a nozzle. The water pressure should be set so that a stream from the hose is no longer than 1 foot.
343
After new paint has cured - hose stream
A garden hose with a nozzle or a pressure washer may be used to speed the cleaning of the apparatus.
344
In general, what should be used to clean automotive glass?
Warm soapy water or commercial glass cleaners with paper towels or cloth rags
345
What should not be used to remove deposits from glass? (3 things)
Putty knives, steel wool, or any abrasive tool
346
On many newer apparatus the application of wax is...
No longer necessary and may damage clear coats
347
Generally, wax should not be applied until paint is how old?
Six months
348
Describe the circle or walk-around method for checking a truck. What is the final step?
Start at the driver's door and work around the apparatus in a clockwise pattern. The final step is starting the apparatus and performing a functional check on apparatus systems.
349
What are the requirements of an apparatus inspection procedure based on? (2 things)
NFPA 1002 and government pretrip inspection requirements for obtaining a CDL
350
T/F Seals that retain axle gear oil may show slight seepage and still be serviceable.
True. Trails of fluid on the wheel or tire are unacceptable.
351
What is the first thing to be checked when inspecting the front of the vehicle?
Any new significant body damage
352
When checking hose loads in the main hose bed, what should you look for? (3 things)
1. The right amount of hose 2. The hose is loaded and finished correctly. 3. and the cover is in good condition
353
What should the driver do prior to starting the apparatus?
Make sure the seat and mirrors are adjusted correctly
354
If the speedometer shows something other than zero or very near zero when parked, what situations may be occurring? (2 things)
The gauge is defective or The truck is in pump gear
355
How does a load sequencer function?
It turns on various lights at specified intervals so that the start up electrical load does not occur at the same time.
356
Steering wheel play limitations.
10 degrees in either direction. On a 20-inch wheel this is 2- inches.
357
NFPA that covers brake testing.
NFPA 1911
358
System air pressure where the air horn no longer works.
Under 80 psi
359
Method for testing road brakes or parking brake
Firmly press brake pedal and apparatus should stop in 20 ft at 5 mph
360
Which fluid is should be checked while the engine is running?
Automatic transmission fluid; power steering fluid maybe
361
When is it recommended to add windshield washer fluid to an apparatus?
Anytime it is less than half full
362
Most modern vehicle batteries are which type?
maintenance free
363
Some power steering systems require the fluid level to be checked while....
the engine is running at normal operating temperature.
364
What does the SAE number indicate for lubricants?
The viscosity
365
What gas do batteries produce when being charged?
Explosive hydrogen gas
366
Collisions at ______ are by far the most frequent and severe.
Intersections
367
Five basic causes of fire apparatus collisions.
1. Improper backing 2. Reckless driving. 3 Excessive speed 4. Lack of driving skill and experience 5. overloading and misuse, 6. mechanical failure, 7. driver operator personal readiness
368
What percent of drivers were not aware of a problem until it was too late according to SAE?
42 percent
369
Driver/Operators are regulated by which entities? (5 things)
1. Federal laws 2. State or provincial laws 3. City ordinances 4. NFPA standards 5. Departmental policies
370
When should the driver start the vehicle when responding to a call?
As soon as possible to let it warm up
371
When can the battery switch be operated while the vehicle is running?
Never
372
Amount of time for oil pressure gauge to indicate a reasonable amount.
5 to 10 seconds after starting
373
Order for adjusting seat, mirror, and steering wheel
Generally best to adjust the seat first followed by the mirrors and wheel
374
Can the engine governor control downhill speed.
No. The wheels will turn the driveshaft and the engine. The engine could be damaged if you go downhill too fast.
375
Lugging
The result of overthrottling while the transmission is in too high a gear for a given set of conditions. (Trying to accelerate up a steep grade)
376
How to prevent lugging.
Downshift
377
Things to consider when braking. (4 things)
1. Weight of the vehicle 2. Condition of the brakes 3. Condition of the tires 4. Condition of the road
378
NFPA 1901
Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus
379
NFPA 1500
Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program
380
When loading hose while moving… (5 things)
1. A safety officer must be assigned other than the D/O or a hose loader 2. Road should be closed 3. The apparatus should be driven forward at no more than 5 mph 4. No members are allowed to stand on any portion of the apparatus while in motion 5. Members in the hosebed must sit or kneel while the vehicle is in motion
381
Department SOPs should require that, when backing,...
There be at least one firefighter - and preferably two - behind the apparatus to act as spotters
382
Spotter position when backing.
The spotter should be on the drivers side about 1 vehicle length behind with a portable radio
383
What should the driver do if there is not a backup alarm.
Sound to horn twice per SOPs
384
When can fire apparatus proceed through a red traffic signal or stop sign?
After coming to a complete stop and ensuring that all lanes of traffic are accounted for and yielding
385
When is driving in the oncoming lane not recommended?
In situations where oncoming traffic cannot see the apparatus for any reason
386
Anticipation control factors... ( 6 things)
1. Aim high in steering 2. Get the big picture 3. Keep your eyes moving 4. Leave yourself an out 5. Make sure others can see and hear you 6. maintain enough distance from the vehicle ahead to pull out of trafic safely if the need arises
387
What two things does visual lead time interact directly with?
Reaction time for evasice manuver and stopping distance
388
Define reaction distance
The distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake after perceiving the need for stopping.
389
Define total stopping distance
The reaction distance plus the vehicle braking distance
390
Other factors that influence the driver's ability to stop the apparatus. (4 things)
1. Condition and slope of the driving surface 2. Speed 3. Weight of the vehicle 4. Type and condition of the vehicle braking system
391
Optimal stopping surface
flat, dry, paved road
392
Total stopping distance for 4 sized vehicles at 50 mph
Auto - 186 ft Light truck - 280 ft Heavy truck - 310 ft Three axle truck - 375 ft
393
Whenever a vehicle undergoes a change in speed or direction, weight transfer takes place relative to the....
rate and degree of change.
394
The most common causes of skids involve driver error: (4 things)
1. Driving too fast for road conditions 2. Failing to anticipate objects (vehicles or animals) 3. Improper use of auxiliary brake 4. Improper maintenance of tire air pressure and adequate tread depth
395
How does the ABS system work?
Digital technology in an onboard computer monitors each wheel and controls pressure to the brakes
396
How fast is the ABS computer?
The computer makes decisions more than 20 times per second until the vehicle is brought to a halt
397
Where are electromagnetic brake systems connected?
To the drive shaft or the rear axle of the vehicle
398
How does ATC work on slippery roads?
reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction and begin to spin, this transfers torque to the wheels that still have traction
399
What do you activate if you want the "rock" an apparatus out of a particular spot?
Snow-and-mud switch
400
Which lane should apparatus be driven while on city streets?
fast lane
401
When do automatic snow chains lose their effectiveness?
When snow is deeper than 3-6 inches or when the vehicle is moving very slow or in reverse.
402
Under normal operating conditions, the interaxle differential switch should be in the _____ position.
Unlocked
403
At what speed can an apparatus out run the siren?
50 mph
404
When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, units should travel at least ____ to ____ feet apart.
300 to 500 feet
405
Headlights should be turned ____ while responding.
ON
406
Warning lights combined with _______, reduce the effectiveness of the reflective trim on the firefighters protective clothing or vests.
On scene floodlights
407
Distance that microphones can hear sirens for preemption devices.
several hundred feet to about 1/2 mile
408
What light system will microphone preemption devices have?
white (direction of travel) and blue (non-direction of travel) lights in each direction of travel, somewhere to the side of the regular traffic signals.
409
Which NFPA provides some specific direction on how driver/operator candidates should be tested?
NFPA 1002
410
NFPA 1451
Standard for a Fire Service Vehicle Operations Training Program
411
Alley dock dimensions
40 ft curb to curb 12 ft wide alley 20 ft deep
412
Number of markers and spacing for serpentine course.
At least 3 markers spaced 30 to 38 ft apart.
413
Which direction do you maneuver the serpentine course first?
Backwards
414
Confined space turn around dimensions
At least 100 ft long and 50 ft wide
415
What are the number of allowed direction changes for the confined space turn around?
Unlimited
416
What if the apparatus is small enough to complete a U-turn in the confined space turn around?
Make the dimensions smaller so backing is required
417
Speed for diminishing clearance maneuver.
Fast enough to require the driver to exercise quick judgement
418
Diminishing clearance dimensions.
75 ft long
| Lane narrowing from 9 ft 6 inches to 8 ft 2 inches
419
Stopping dimensions for diminishing clearance.
50 feet after the last stanchion must stop within 6 inches of finish line
420
NFPA 1002 road test minimum elements. (9 things)
1. Four left and four right turns 2. A straight section of urban business or two-lane rural road at least 1 mile long 3. One through intersection and two stopping intersections 4. Railroad crossing 5. One curve 6. Limited access highway with on or off ramp and two lane changes 7. A downgrade that requires downshifting or braking 8. An upgrade that requires gear shift to maintain speed 9. An underpass or low-clearance bridge.
421
Determining the proper position for the attack pumper begins with what?
Sizing up the incident
422
How are later arriving units directed to location?
Based on SOPs or orders from the IC
423
Where to park during investigation mode(where no fire is evident)?
pull the apparatus past the front of the building if feasible
424
During "investigation" mode, where should the driver be?
Remain with the apparatus to make standpipe connections or pull attack lines and operate the pump
425
What do you need to do if you position contrary to SOPs?
Let the incoming units know of the change
426
Whenever possible, attempt to position the apparatus _____ of the incident.
Upwind
427
Being upwind negates the need for what?
Drivers to wear SCBA
428
What is the one exception to positioning the apparatus uphill from the incident?
Wildland fires since the fire will spread uphill
429
What is the collapse zone equal to?
1.5 times the height of the building
430
When possible, position the apparatus at the _____ of the building.
Corners
431
What is the optimum position for aerial apparatus?
Corners
432
How far away can debris land when falling from a building?
Up to 200 feet from the base of the building
433
"Inside/Outside" method of positioning
If the building is less than five stories tall, engine companies are positioned on the side of the street closest to the building and aerial are positioned outboard of the engine.
434
Where should pumpers that are providing water for an elevated stream be positioned?
As close to the aerial apparatus as possible.
435
Pumpers will generally position _____ for the sprinkler or standpipe FDC.
As close as possible to the water source
436
Many departments have SOCs that require the ____ pumper to proceed directly to the FDC, others do not.
First-due
437
Which drafting sites should receive preference?
Ones accessible from a paved surface and require a minimum length of hose. Also ones that minimize the required lift.
438
At what amount of feet of lift will the pump meet its rated capacity?
10 ft
439
When drafting, an intake hose may be laid on a _____ to keep it off the bottom.
Ground ladder
440
When should an intake hose be attached to the engine when drafting?
At the draft site, or park short of the final draft spot if the area around the actual drafting spot is limited and connect the intake hose and strainer and have it carried while the pumper is driven to the final position
441
How high should a dry hydrant used for drafting be off the ground?
15 inches
442
What should be the clearance around strainer used with a dry hydrant?
2 ft
443
Only hard intake hose that has been designed to withstand _____ should be connected to a fire hydrant
Positive pressure
444
Intake hose sections are commonly what length?
10-50 ft
445
When hooking to a hydrant do you judge the distance from the curb or hydrant?
Hydrant
446
How many twists should you put in the hose if sexless couplings are not used?
2, no twists for sexless couplings
447
What is one of the easiest ways to ensure the maximum possible flow through a hose?
Remove kinks
448
Other names for a large diameter intake
Steamer or intake header
449
Define dual pumping.
When one hydrant supplies two pumpers (rarely used), position pumpers intake-to-intake
450
NFPA 1962
Standard for the Inspection, Care, and Use of Fire Hose, Couplings, and Nozzles and the Service Testing of Fire Hose
451
3 Reasons for Tandem Pumping operations (like relay pumping for a shorter distance)
1. Supply high rise
2. Very long hose lays
3. Attack pumper is a short distance from the hydrant, but long distance from the fire
452
How far apart can the engines be for tandem pumping?
Up to 300 ft
453
How are pumpers connected when tandem pumping?
Discharge of water supply engine to intake of attack engine
454
T/F Wildland fire apparatus are seldom positioned in the same location for the duration of an incident
TRUE
455
What are the two most common functions of wildland apparatus?
1. Providing structure protection
| 2. Making a direct attack on the fire
456
What is the highest priority for wildland firefighting after life safety?
Protection of structures
457
To facilitate a rapid exit, what should wildland apparatus do for driveways?
Back in from the last known turn around
458
In regards to wind, which side of a structure should a wildland apparatus be placed?
The lee side
459
Where should a wildland fire attack always begin?
From an anchor point that is a natural or man made barrier to protect from fire
460
Name some typical anchor points.
Roads, Lakes, ponds, streams, and previously burned areas
461
What is a concern when driving on the shoulders of railroad roadbeds?
Tire damage can result from the angular rock, the rock is prone to sliding, rollover, could be hit by train
462
When apparatus is used in a mobile attack, hose lines should be kept as _____ as possible.
Short
463
When a wildland fire is spreading rapidly upslope, where should the firefighters draw back to?
The flanks
464
You should not drive the apparatus into smoke where crews are operating. If you must drive through smoke what should you do?
Sound the horn and siren intermittently, use warning and headlights, and drive slowly
465
Which NFPA lists having an EMS unit on fire and hazmat incidents as a requirement.
NFPA 1500
466
Who initiates level 2 staging?
The IC or Operations section chief when requesting additional resources
467
How many units needed where level 1 staging may be initiated?
2 companies or more
468
How far away should units stage with level 1 staging?
At least one block away
469
Who generally becomes the Staging Area manager?
The company officer of the first company to arrive at the staging area
470
The staging manager communicates the resource availability and resource needs to the ______ or the ____.
Planning section or IC
471
According to the Manual of Uniform Traffic Control Devices, emergency vehicle lighting should be....
used as needed to reach the scene, but once on scene its use should be reduced as much as possible.
472
At least ______ lane next to the incident should be closed when operating on the highway.
ONE
473
Departments that commonly respond to highway incidents tend to prefer...
top-mounted pump panels
474
Control zones are not necessarily ____ and can be ____ as the incident changes.
Static; adjusted
475
Decon is usually located...
Within the warm zone in the decon corridor
476
It may require ______ for a fully loaded train to come to a complete stop.
one to two miles
477
Apparatus positioning on EMS incidents is important from a ____ and _____ standpoint.
Tactical and safety
478
For fire protection purposes water is assumed to weigh
62.4 lb/cf or 8.3 lb/gal
479
How much does water expand when converted to steam?
1700 times
480
pressure is ?
the force per unit area exerted by a liquid or gas measured in psi
481
force is?
simple measure of weight, usually expressed in lbs or kilos
482
The height required for a 1 square inch column of water to produce 1 psi at its base is _____
2.304 feet
483
A 1 square inch column of water one foot high exerts a pressure at its base of ___
.434 psi
484
The sped at which a fluid travels through a hose or pipe is often called what?
velocity
485
Velocity is determined by what to things
the pressure upon that fluid as well as the size of the orifice through which it is flowing
486
Water has _____ surface tension that makes it difficult to penetrate dense items.
High
487
First principle of pressure
Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface to which it acts
488
Second principle of pressure
Fluid pressure at a point in a fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions
489
Third principle of pressure
Pressure applied to a confined fluid from without is transmitted equally in all directions
490
Fourth principle of pressure
The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth
491
Fifth principle of pressure
The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the density of the liquid
492
Sixth principle of pressure
The pressure of a liquid on the bottom of a vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel
493
What is a common method of measuring atmospheric pressure?
Compare the weight of the atmosphere with the weight of mercury
494
Absolute zero pressure is called a ______.
Perfect Vacuum
495
______ is stored potential energy available to force water through pipes, fittings, fire hose, and adapters.
Static pressure
496
Is residual pressure measured at the flowing hydrant?
No, a different hydrant than the one flowing
497
_____ refers to the centerline of the pump or the bottom of a static water supply source above or below ground level
Elevation
498
Pressure drop is of little consequence to about _____.
2,000 ft
499
Above sea level, atmospheric pressure decreases approximately _____.
0.5 psi for every 1,000 ft
500
In fire hose, the following cause friction loss: (6 things)
1. Movement of water molecules against each other 2. Linings in the fire hose 3. Couplings 4. Sharp bends 5. Change in hose size or orifice by adapters 6. Improper gasket size
