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PDO Questions Flashcards

1
Q

what is the main purpose of a fire department pumper?

A

to provide adequate water pressure for effective fire streams

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2
Q

what is the standard for automotive Fire Apparatus?

A

NFPA 1901

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3
Q

1901 specifies a minimum pump capacity and water tank capacity, what are they?

A

pump capacity 750 GPM, water tank capacity at least 300 gallons

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4
Q

who categorizes pumping apparatus and Mobile water supply apparatus based on capability

A

incident command system (ics)

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5
Q

what is the purpose of apparatus typing?

A

to make it easier for incident commanders to call for exactly the types of resources they need to manage an incident

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6
Q

1901 states that a mobile water supply apparatus must have a tank capacity of what?

A

at least 1, 000 gallons

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7
Q

riding on the outside of the apparatus is prohibited by which NFPA?

A

NFPA 1500 standard on fire department occupational safety and health program

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8
Q

what is the difference between maintenance and repair?

A

maintenance is keeping equipment or apparatus in a state of usefulness, where as repair is to restore or put together something that has become inoperable

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9
Q

How should a vehicle be checked?

A

walk clockwise starting at the driver door

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10
Q

Driver/Operator must have a keen awareness of what three angles for the apparatus they are driving?

A

Angle of approach, Angle of departure, and Breakover angle

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11
Q

What is visual lead time?

A

It is the time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed.

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12
Q

NFPA 1901 specifies a minimum pump capacity and water capacity of what

A

750gpm and 300 gallons

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13
Q

What are the pump capacities of the 3 sizes of pumpers?

A

Mini <500gpm, Midi<1,000 gmp, Full size at least 750gpm-3,000

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14
Q

What are the two basic functions of a mobile water supply apparatus?

A

Mobile shuttle operation(dump tank) or a nurse tender(connected to a pumper)

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15
Q

What class foam is extremely effective in attacking wildland fires and protecting exposures?

A

Class a

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16
Q

What is an inverter used for?

A

to convert a vehicle’s 12- or 24- volt DC current into 110- or 220- volt AC current; typically used to power vehicle-mounted floodlights

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17
Q

Below what pressure does an air pressure protetion valve that prevents air horns or other nonessential devices from being opperated activate?

A

below 80psi

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18
Q

What is the most common place for a collision to occur?

A

At an intersection

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19
Q

What is the law of inertia?

A

“objects in motion tend to remain in motion; objects at rest tend to remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force”

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20
Q

At what speed does and engine begin to outrun its audible warning device?

A

above 50mph

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21
Q

What are the maximum operating pressures for a solid stream handline and master stream?

A

Handline maximum of 50psi while master stream is max 80psi

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22
Q

What is the formula for the discharge rate?

A

GPM=29.7xd^2x(sqroot of NP) Where: GPM= discharge in gallons per minute, 29.7 = constant, d= diameter of the orifice in inches, NP= nozzle pressure in psi

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23
Q

What is the formula for nozzle reaction for solid stream nozzles?

A

NR=1.57xd^2xNP; Where: NR= nozzle reaction in lbs, 1.57 = constant, d= Nozzle diameter in inches, NP= nozzle pressure in psi

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24
Q

What is a simple equation to calculate nozzle reaction on the fireground?

A

NR=Q/3 where q equals the total flow of water in gpm flowing through the nozzle

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25
Q

What is the formula for calcuating nozzle reaction for fog stream nozzles?

A

NR=.0505xQx(square root of NP) Where NR= nozzle reaction in lbs, Q= total flow through the nozzle in gpm, NP= nozzle pressure in psi

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26
Q

What is the theoretical formula for friction loss?

A

FL=CQ^2L Where: FL= friction loss in psi, C= friction loss coefficient, Q= Flow rate in hundreds of gallons per minute(gpm/100), L= Hose length in hundreds of feet(feet/100)

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27
Q

What is a pitot tube used fore?

A

A pitot tube and guage is used to measure water flow pressure in psi

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28
Q

What does a flowmeter do?

A

a flowmeter measures water flow in gpm.

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29
Q

What is the equation for elevation pressure on the fire ground?

A

EP=.5H, Where EP= elevation pressure in psi, H= height in feet

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30
Q

What is the equation for elevation pressure loss in a multistory building?

A

EP=5psi x (number of stories - 1)

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31
Q

What is total friction loss a combination of?

A

Friction loss, elevation pressure loss, and appliance loss

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32
Q

At what flow do you add 10 psi for friction loss for an appliance?

A

350gpm

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33
Q

When calculating pressure loss with a master stream device, the driver must add how much psi to the pressure loss calculation?

A

25psi

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34
Q

What is the formula for pump discharge pressure?

A

PDP=NP+TPL where pdp = pump discharge pressure in psi, NP= nozzle pressure in psi, TPL= total pressure loss in psi(due to friction, elevation, and appliances)

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35
Q

What does the net pump discharge pressure equal?

A

Net pump discharge pressure = pump discharge pressure - intake reading

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36
Q

What are pparataus which carry al standard engine company equipment, but also feature a larger than standard amount of rescue and extrication equipment commonly called?

A

Rescue Pumpers

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37
Q

Most industrial foam pumpers are primarily intended to produce large quantities of foam to attack what type of fire?

A

Class B fires

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38
Q

Pumping apparatus with elevated water devices typipcally range in height from what to what?

A

50 -75 feet

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39
Q

The majority of wildland fire apparatus have pump capacities less than what?

A

500 gallons

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40
Q

What kind of foam has been shown to be extremely effective in attacking wildland fires and protecting exposures?

A

Class A foams

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41
Q

Some fireboats have the pumping capacity as high as what?

A

50,000 gpm

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42
Q

Portabable generators are manufactured with a bariety of power capabilities, with what being the largest?

A

5,000Watts

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43
Q

Rescue vehicles commonly have generators with power capabilities of what or greater?

A

50,000 Watts

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44
Q

Pump capacities larger than 750 gpm increase in increments of 250 gpm with most municipal fire departments operating pumpers of what or less?

A

2,000 gpm

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45
Q

wildland fire apparatus can be equipped with water tanks of what or larger?

A

1000 gallons

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46
Q

if you were looking fro information on the requirements for the design of wildland fire apparatus, where would you look?

A

NFPA 1906

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47
Q

VOLUNTEER FIRE DEPARTMENTS SHOULD ESTABLISH A PROCEDURE WHEREBY fire apparatus is inspected and maintained on which schedule?

A

Weely

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48
Q

Where does the “Circle” or pre-trip walk-about end?

A

Inside the cab by starting the apparatus and performing a functional check on apparatus systems

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49
Q

The device that turns various lights on at specific interbals so taht the startup electrical load for all devices on the apparatus do not occur at the same time is called what?

A

Load Sequencer

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50
Q

What is the standard for emergence behicle technician professional qualifications?

A

nfpa 1071

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51
Q

Apparatus brakes should be thoroughly tested at least _____ using the methods described in nfpa 1911

A

Annually

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52
Q

On apparatus equipped with air brakes, air pressure should build up to a sufficient level to allow safe behicle operations with a time span of ______ after starting the apparatus.

A

60 seconds

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53
Q

Apparatus equipped with air brakes have an air pressure protection valve that prevents the air horns from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below what?

A

80 Psi

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54
Q

To test the road brakes, the driver should allow the vehicle to move forward at a swpeed of about 5 mph. The driver then applies the brakes firmly. The apparatus should come to a stop within about how many feet?

A

20

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55
Q

To test the parking break the driver should allow the vehicle to move forward at a speed of about 5 mph. The driver the applies the brakes firmly. The apparatus should come to a stop within about how many feet?

A

20

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56
Q

When should the apparatus air system be checked?

A

When the engine is off, with the system at normal operating pressure

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57
Q

When filling lubrication fill connections, how should you opperate the pump handle of the gun?

A

By applying it until resistance is felt.

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58
Q

The first step in charging a vehicle’s batter is to?

A

Don the appropiate ppe

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59
Q

When should a driver test the warning devices of apparatus?

A

Only when the driver is in the cab, and no one else is around

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60
Q

An inspection where a certain system or component of an apparatus is operated to ensure that it is functioning properly is called what?

A

Functional check

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61
Q

An electical monitoring system that will shed electrical load in a predertermined order if the chassis voltage begins to drop below a predetermined level is known as what?

A

Load management system

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62
Q

A braking system taht uses a fluid in a closed system to pressurize wheel cylinders when activated is called what?

A

Hydraulic braking system

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63
Q

What is an Air brake test?

A

A series of tests to ensure the serviceability of an air braking system

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64
Q

What is a stack adjuster?

A

A device used in air braking systems that connect between the activation pads and the brake pads that compensate for bake pad wear

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65
Q

What is a specific inspection to an area of the chassis or apparatus to ensure that the unit is operating properly in accordance with the manufacturer’s initial design known as?

A

Post-Maintenance/Repair Inspection

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66
Q

According to NFPA 1911 driver should check for bulges in the apparatus tires greater than what?

A

3/8 inch

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67
Q

When starting the apparatus engine, air pressure should build to 85 to 100 psi within ____ at full engine rpm

A

45 seconds

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68
Q

According to data compiled by NIOSH, the number of firefighter fatalities occurring while responding to or returning from emergencies is second only to the number of fatalities resulting from ____

A

suddon cardiac arrest

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69
Q

D/O must also meet the requirements of ____

A

NFPA 1001 Firefighter 1

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70
Q

NFPA 1582

A

Comprehensive Occupational Medical program for fire departments; this may be used as the criteria upon which the medical evaluation is based

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71
Q

Which NFPA provides very specific requirements about vision?

A

NFPA 1582

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72
Q

NFPA 1582 recommends what if a firefighter cannot hear all the frequencies of a hearing test

A

Reject the candidate

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73
Q

NFPA 1451

A

Standard for a fire service vehicle operations training program

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74
Q

At what level are most laws and statutes concerning motor vehicle operation maintained?

A

State or provincial level

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75
Q

When encountering a bus with red lights, the fire apparatus should only proceed after a ___ signal has been given by the bus driver or a police officer

A

Safe to pass

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76
Q

In the US, who establishes the basic requirements for licensing of drivers?

A

DOT

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77
Q

What factors affect a fire department’s choice of aerial apparatus? (7 things)

A
  1. Maneuverability
  2. the number or responders the apparatus will need to carry
  3. Most common tasks required of the aerial device
  4. Amount of equipment it will carry
  5. Budget
  6. insurance industry recomendations 7. Planning department recomendations
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78
Q

What three categories does NFPA 1901 use to define aerial apparatus?

A
  1. Aerial Ladder
  2. Elevating Platform
  3. Water towers
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79
Q

What is the most common aerial fire apparatus in North America

A

Aerial ladder apparatus

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80
Q

What is the primary function of the turntable?

A

To provide continuous rotation of the aerial device on a horizontal plane

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81
Q

How do you measure the working height for aerial ladders?

A

From the ground to the highest rung with the ladder at max elevation and extension

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82
Q

How tall must the foot plate be around an aerial platform?

A

4 inches

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83
Q

What is the required floor area for a platform?

A

14 square feet

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84
Q

On an aerial platform no opening under the railing can be greater than ___.

A

24 inches

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85
Q

How many operator control stations are required for elevating platforms?

A

TWO, one at street level and one in the platform

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86
Q

Is a backup hydraulic system required for elevated platform apparatus?

A

YES

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87
Q

What happens if the heat reflective shield of an aerial platform is aged, dirty, or damaged?

A

It can lose its ability to reflect heat, shields that have been damaged must be replaced

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88
Q

As required by NFPA 1901, a ____ is also necessary on the bottom of the platform

A

Protective water fog curtain nozzle (75 gpm)

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89
Q

The water fog curtain nozzle should flow at least ___ per NFPA 1901

A

75 gpm

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90
Q

What are the load requirements for elevating platforms when fully extended at any elevation?

A

750 pounds with no water in the pipe or 500 pounds if there is water in the pipe

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91
Q

What must the water delivery system of an elevated platform be capable of discharging?

A

1000 gpm at 100 psi

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92
Q

What are the requirements for setting up an elevating platform less than 110 feet?

A

Raised from bedded position to max extension and elevation and rotated 90 degrees within 150 seconds

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93
Q

Is there a time requirement for setting an elevating platform taller than 110 feet?

A

NO

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94
Q

Is a communication system between the two control stations required?

A

YES

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95
Q

How is the working height of an aerial ladder platform determined?

A

From the ground to the top surface of the highest platform handrail

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96
Q

What are common sizes for aerial ladder platforms?

A

85 to 110 feet

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97
Q

What is the most common aerial ladder platform in service today?

A

Straight chassis, three-axle vehicle with rear mounted aerial device

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98
Q

What is the small ladder attached to the boom of a telescoping aerial platform used for?

A

Emergency escape for firefighters working in the platform

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99
Q

What are common sizes for telescoping aerial platforms?

A

75 to 100 feet

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100
Q

Where can hydraulic lines, air lines, electrical cords, and waterways be kept when a telescoping aerial platform is made of box beam construction?

A

Within the center or on the outside of the box beam

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101
Q

With tubular truss construction of telescoping apparatus, tubular steel is welded to form a box shape using ____ or ___ truss design.

A

Cantilever or triangle truss design

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102
Q

What is an additional benefit of an articulating aerial platform?

A

Enables the platform to go “Up and over”, which may be especially useful during rescue operations

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103
Q

Standard articulating aerial platforms range in height from ___ to ___.

A

55 to 85 feet

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104
Q

When an aerial device both telescopes and articulates where do they extend?

A

These devices typically consist of two or more telescoping booms on each side of the articulating hinge

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105
Q

An aerial device with a large telescoping boom and an articulating end on the last fly section may range in height from ___ to ___.

A

90 to 174 feet

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106
Q

Where is a water tower controlled?

A

By the D/O at ground level, controls are located either at the rear of the apparatus or on the midship pump panel

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107
Q

A water tower fire stream is designed to be deployed at a range of elevations starting from ___ to ___

A

A few degrees below horizontal to nearly 90 degrees from the ground

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108
Q

What are common sizes for water towers?

A

50 to 130 feet

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109
Q

Water tower are capable of flows from ___ to ___.

A

1000 to 5000 gpm

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110
Q

If a water tower is equipped with a ladder and it does not meet NFPA 1901 it is recommended that these devices be used only as ___

A

Emergency escape routes

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111
Q

What are the 5 components of a quint?

A
  1. Fire pump
  2. Water tank
  3. Supply and attack hose
  4. Ground ladders
  5. Aerial device or elevated platform
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112
Q

____ establishes the number of sections and minimum reach required of an aerial apparatus

A

NFPA 1901

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113
Q

What are the two most common materials for construction of aerial apparatus?

A

Heat treated aluminum alloy and steel

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114
Q

How can the fabricated structural members of an aerial be fastened? (3 ways)

A

Rivets, welded (steel), or heliarced (aluminum alloy)

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115
Q

NFPA 1901 establishes requirements for the dimensions of ____.

A

Sections and structural members of the aerial ladder

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116
Q

How were some early aerial devices operated?

A

Manually by any one of several designs including spring operated and gear driven

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117
Q

What are the four main components of a hydraulic system?

A

actuators, Hydraulic fluid, hydraulic pump, and a hydraulic reservoir

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118
Q

How is the aerial hydraulic pump powered?

A

By a PTO arrangement off the vehicle’s main engine

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119
Q

What type of pump is the aerial hydraulic pump?

A

load sensing piston pump, rotary vane pump, or rotary gear positive-displacement pump

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120
Q

Hydraulic fluid is used because it is practically ___.

A

Incompressible and it allows force to be transmitted over a relatively large distance with little loss of power

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121
Q

The hydraulic fluid may be under pressure up to ___.

A

3500 psi

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122
Q

Pinhole leaks are capable of ___.

A

Cutting through human tissue and may also cause severe burns

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123
Q

How does the hydraulic reservoir condition the hydraulic fluid?

A

It allows air, heat, and foreign matter to be eliminated from the fluid.

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124
Q

What can be used to supplement the hydraulic reservoirs ability to condition the fluid?

A

A filter and exchange type oil cooler

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125
Q

What type of hydraulic hose do most manufacturers use?

A

Steel tubing and aircraft type, steel braided hose.

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126
Q

Hydraulic hose must be rated to withstand pressures at least ___ times greater than normal operating pressure.

A

FOUR

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127
Q

Valves designed to prevent unintentional or undesirable motion of an aerial device from position

A

Counterbalance valve

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128
Q

One of the more important valves in the system is the ____ (also known as the ____ or ____ valve). This is a three way valve that directs fluid to either the stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves

A

Selector valve (transfer or diverter valve)

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129
Q

Which valves are used to direct and control the power in the system AFTER the selector valve has been positioned? (4 valve types)

A

Actuator valves, monitor valves, stack valves, and proportional directional valves; These valves tend to be 4 or 5 way

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130
Q

Does NFPA 1901 require an aux hydraulic pump?

A

YES; usually 12V DC but can be 110 AC; works at a reduced speed

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131
Q

How should an aux hydraulic pump be operated?

A

A minute on with a minute rest in between operations

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132
Q

How many cylinders does a stabilizer have?

A

One or Two

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133
Q

What are other names for hoisting cylinders?

A

Elevating or lift cylinders; their function is to elevate the aerial device from its stowed position

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134
Q

What is normal hydraulic pressure for hoisting cylinders?

A

850 to 3000 psi

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135
Q

What is a trunnion?

A

The pivoting end or the piston rod that is connected to the anchor ear by the heel pin

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136
Q

In newer apparatus when the hoisting cylinder has an integral safety valve how can the ladder be lowered?

A

Manually bleeding the pressure with a bleed down valve

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137
Q

Describe extension cylinders

A

Dual acting that work to extend the second fly section

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138
Q

What are extension and retraction cables made of and called?

A

Corrosion and abrasion resistant aircraft quality cables called plow steel

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139
Q

On most aerial apparatus, the lower aerial device control pedestal is located on the ____

A

Turntable

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140
Q

Turntables generally operate on ___

A

Large sheer ball type bearings

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141
Q

For apparatus equipped with a platform, NFPA 1901 also requires a control station ___

A

In the platform; the controls on the turntable should be able to override the platform controls

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142
Q

What order should the aerial control levers be in?

A

Extension, rotation, elevation from left to right

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143
Q

What type of apparatus may use a joystick to control the aerial device?

A

Water towers, telescoping platforms, and articulating platforms

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144
Q

What are the two types of pre-piped waterway systems

A

Bed ladder systems and telescoping waterway systems

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145
Q

Controls and instruments that may be located on the control pedestal (13 items)

A

engine speed switch, light switches, overide switches, breathing air level gauge, hydraulic oil pressure gauge, hydraulic oil temp gauge, aerial deadman foot switch, load chart and load minder, water flow gauge, cradle indicatior light, extension indicators, stop and lock controls, rund alignment indicatior, inclinometer, hour meter for ladder opp time, nozzle stow indicator, engine starter switch, communications equipment, elevated master stream controls, hydraulic lock valve, rescue/waterway switch, auxiliary hydraulic pump or emergency pump switch, switch for the emergency operation pump

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146
Q

What size pipe is used for bed ladder waterway systems?

A

3 or 3.5 inch

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147
Q

What is the intake for a bed ladder waterway system

A

Two or three way siamese

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148
Q

What type of nozzle are bed ladder waterway systems usually equipped with?

A

Solid stream

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149
Q

Most bed ladder pipes are equipped with ____ operated nozzles

A

Manually

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150
Q

Ladders that are ___ feet or shorter and equipped with a telescoping water system have the piping that extends directly to the tip of the fly section

A

110 feet

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151
Q

What are telescoping water pipes usually made of?

A

Aluminum or other metal

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152
Q

What is the internal diameter of telescoping water pipes?

A

Usually 4 inches

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153
Q

Most telescoping water systems are capable of flows up to ___

A

1000 gpm

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154
Q

What are the main components of the detachable ladder pipe system?

A

The ladder pipe itself, fire hose, hose straps, and a clappered siamese

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155
Q

A detachable ladder pipe system may be equipped with which type nozzle?

A

Fog or solid

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156
Q

How is a detachable ladder pipe controlled?

A

Usually at the tip of the ladder by a firefighter, but can be with ropes

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157
Q

What are typical flows for detachable ladder pipe systems?

A

Less than 750 gpm

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158
Q

Detachable ladder pipes are usually what size?

A

3 to 3.5 inch

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159
Q

How many locations should the hose of a detachable ladder pipe be attached to the ladder?

A

two or three

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160
Q

What are allowable horizontal range of movement for detachable ladder pipes?

A

15 degrees either way; 30 degrees total

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161
Q

Platform apparatus may be able to flow up to ____

A

2000 gpm

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162
Q

Some ____ are equipped with video cameras at the tip of the aerial device

A

Water towers

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163
Q

A piercing nozzle attached to a water tower system is capable of flows up to ____

A

300 gpm

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164
Q

The communication device on the tip of the ladder is ___ while the one at the turntable control station does not have to be ___

A

Hands free

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165
Q

NFPA 1901 now REQUIRES a two way communication system on all aerial device apparatus. When possible, IFSTA recommends that all aerial devices without a communication system ___

A

Be retrofitted to include one

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166
Q

T/F In some cases, the facepiece air hose may be long enough to allow the firefighter the ability to leave the aerial device and work remotely from it while still connected to the breathing air system.

A

TRUE

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167
Q

Does NFPA 1901 require aerial devices to be equipped with breathing air systems?

A

NO

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168
Q

What requirements does NFPA 1901 establish for breathing air systems if an aerial is equipped? (5 things)

A
  1. Number of firefighters to be supported by the system
  2. Capacity of the compressed air cylinders
  3. Pressure requirements of the piping system
  4. Low air warning alarms
  5. Conformity to government regulations
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169
Q

NFPA 1989

A

Standard on Breathing Air Quality for Emergency Services Respiratory Protection

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170
Q

____are the most common power source used for emergency services and can be portable or fixed to the apparatus

A

Generators

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171
Q

The inverter is a step-up transformer that converts the vehicles __ or __ DC current to __ or __ AC current

A

12 or 24 to 110 or 220

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172
Q

Inverters are generally capable of providing up to ___ watts of electric power. They are most commonly used to power ___

A

5000 watts; vehicle mounted floodlights

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173
Q

Most portable generators are designed to be carried by __ or __ people.

A

One or Two

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174
Q

Vehicle mounted generators can be powered by __, __, or __ engines or by __ or __ systems.

A

Gas, or diesel engines or hydraulic or PTO systems

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175
Q

Vehicle mounted power plants usually have 110 and 220 volt capabilities with up to ___ watts of power available.

A

12,000 watts

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176
Q

It is common to find up to ___ watt vehicle mounted generators on rescue vehicles.

A

50,000 watts

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177
Q

Portable lights generally range from ___ to ___ watts

A

300 to 1000 watts

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178
Q

Does NFPA 1901 contain requirements for lights at the tip of the aerial device??

A

NO

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179
Q

How often should you examine electrical power cords?

A

Daily

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180
Q

Electrical power cords must be ___. (4 things)

A

Adequately insulated, contain a ground wire, be waterproof, and have no exposed wires

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181
Q

How can hydraulic pumps for extrication tools receive power? (4 things)

A

From compressed air, electric motors, two or four cycle motors, or apparatus mounted power take off units

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182
Q

Hydraulic hoses for extrication tools that are ___ feet or greater from the pump may have a diminishing effect on tool operation.

A

100 feet

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183
Q

common recomended lengths should not exceed______ feet per reel or cord for electrical power.

A

200ft

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184
Q

Which NFPA contains a list of the minimum equipment with which each aerial apparatus should be equipped?

A

NFPA 1901

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185
Q

A ladder complement must include at least the following:

A

Attic ladders, Roof ladders, Extension ladders

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186
Q

Many fire agencies choose to carry an extension ladder that is ___ feet or longer to reach fourth and fifth story windows. These ladders are called “Pole” ladders.

A

40 feet

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187
Q

Pole ladders are equipped with ___

A

Stay Poles, also called tormentors

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188
Q

What equipment does NFPA 1901 establish as the minimum requirements for forcible entry.

A

Flathead axes, pick head axes, pike poles, plaster hooks, crowbars, claw tools, sledge hammers, hacksaws and keyhole saws, wrenches, hammers, rotary saws, reciprocating saws, chain saws, hydraulic door openers/rabbet tool, cutting torches, halligan tools

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189
Q

Hydraulic door openers (also know as ___) are used to force entry through swinging doors.

A

Rabbet tools (for swinging doors)

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190
Q

What are two common pieces of equipment used for ventilation?

A

Exhaust fans and positive pressure blowers

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191
Q

Smoke ejectors are most commonly powered by ___

A

Built in electric motors

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192
Q

How can positive pressure blowers be powered?

A

Electric motors, some are gas engines

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193
Q

NFPA 1901 requires aerial apparatus to be equipped with multiple salvage covers and __ scoop shovels to assist with salvage and overhaul efforts.

A

TWO

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194
Q

When does loss control start?

A

From the minute companies leave the station and continues throughout the entire incident

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195
Q

Per NFPA 1901, additional equipment to be carried on the aerial apparatus includes:

A

portable hand lights, portable fire extinguishers, water extinguisher, multiple scba units, spare scba cylinders, medical kit, spanner wrenches, bolt cutters, ladder belts, light use safety rope, general use life safety rope, utility rope, wheel chocks

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196
Q

The process of positioning the apparatus at an actual fire incident will be at the discretion of the ___, ___, or the ___ and influenced by ___

A

IC, Truck company officer, or the driver operator; and influenced by conditions of the fireground

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197
Q

SOPs for positioning generally apply to aerial apparatus that are assigned to the ___

A

Initial response to an emergency; Later arriving aerials will be positioned according to the IAP or incident management personnel

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198
Q

Five stories is equal to about how many feet?

A

60 feet

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199
Q

The inside/outside rule assumes that the department is operating aerial devices with a reach of ___

A

100 feet

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200
Q

____ at ___ place the maximum amount of stress on an aerial device and, in some cases, reduce the load carrying capacity of that device.

A

Long extensions at low angles

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201
Q

The best rescue approach is made from __ and ____

A

uphill and Upwind

202
Q

What is the preferred procedure to push heat or fire away from the aerial while a rescue operation is in progress?

A

Use a wide-angle fog stream

203
Q

Where should a platform aerial be positioned if the victim will be brought in over the handrail.

A

Turntable directly in line with the target so that the platform is squarely in front of the target

204
Q

Where should a platform aerial be positioned if the victim will enter through the hinged gate?

A

The turntable a little forward or behind the target because the gate is typically on the side of the platform

205
Q

When aerial devices are used to give firefighters access to upper levels they should not be repositioned unless ___

A

Acknowledged and approved by the firefighters who were deployed from the aerial device

206
Q

fall protection will only be useful if the tether is secured to an apropriate ________

A

anchor point, never anchor onto cables, wires, lights, or any other feature that is not a permanent structural element of the device

207
Q

The aerial should be placed so that the vent holes will not be cut in the ___

A

Travel path back to the device.

208
Q

Aerial ladders should be extended at least ___ above the roof level.

A

6 feet

209
Q

When operating an aerial platform, the driver/operator should extend the platform so that the floor of the platform is ___

A

even with or extended slightly over the roof’s ledge

210
Q

What is the goal for ladder placement when breaking windows for horizontal ventilation?

A

Upwind of the window and slightly higher so the firefighter does not have to deal with falling glass

211
Q

What are the three techniques for elevated master streams?

A

Blitz attack, defensive attack, or exposure protection

212
Q

How should the apparatus be positioned if the device is to be used as a master stream close to the ground?

A

Position so that the turntable is directly in line with the intended target

213
Q

A recommended tactic is to direct the master stream at the ___

A

Ceiling of the target fire area

214
Q

Elevated streams are most commonly used in ___

A

Defensive operations

215
Q

Manhole covers are a good indication of ___. These surfaces are unstable for the support of aerial apparatus.

A

Underground voids

216
Q

What is ice shrugging?

A

A method of removing ice; slowly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove accumulated ice

217
Q

If ice shrugging is not effective for large accumulations of ice, ____ may be necessary

A

De-icing fluid

218
Q

When operating in high wind the driver should spot the apparatus in a manner that requires the aerial to be raised to the ___ extension needed.

A

Minimum

219
Q

A good way to operate an aerial in wind is to __

A

Position the apparatus so that the aerial may be used over the front or rear preferably parallel to the wind

220
Q

What is the goal distance to stay away from overhead electric lines?

A

10 ft

221
Q

The aerial apparatus is most stable when the aerial device is operated directly over the ___

A

Front or rear of the vehicle (along the longitudinal axis)

222
Q

An angle ___ to the apparatus is the least stable position.

A

Perpendicular

223
Q

If a driver has the entire parking lot to use, he or she should ___ rather than park parallel to the objective.

A

Nose or back the aerial apparatus into position

224
Q

What is the preferred method to position a rear mounted aerial for maximum reach?

A

Back in

225
Q

With jackknifing, the greatest stability occurs when the tractor angle is approx. ____ from in-line and the aerial device is extended away from this angle

A

60 degrees

226
Q

With jackknifing. good stability occurs at angles up to ___, beyond this stability decreases rapidly.

A

90 degrees

227
Q

Modern tillered apparatus may have stabilizer systems that allow them to be adequately stabilized without jackknifing. Even those apparatus become ___

A

More stable when the apparatus is jackknifed

228
Q

When an apparatus must operate off an incline, the driver can reduce stress by spotting the turntable ___ from the point of operation.

A

Downhill

229
Q

Ideally, the truck should be operated in the ___ position with the aerial device directly in-line to reduce the stress

A

Uphill

230
Q

What is another term for an unsupported tip position?

A

Cantilever position; supported tip rests on the wall/roof of the building

231
Q

If the manufacturer recommends that its device be operated in a supported position, ___

A

The load or the amount of extension must be reduced for low angles of elevation during unsupported operations

232
Q

The max loading for an unsupported aerial device occurs when operated at angles between ___ from horizontal.

A

70-80 degrees

233
Q

What are signs that an exterior wall collapse may occur? (6 things)

A

Bulging walls, sagging roofs, large cracks in the exterior, falling bricks blocks or mortar, interior collapse

234
Q

If the fire building is known to be unstable and in poor repair, the aerial device should not be used in a ___ position.

A

Supported

235
Q

Incidents that require ___ or ___ require level 2 staging.

A

Mutual aid or multiple alarms

236
Q

The staging area manager should communicate available resources and resource needs to the ___

A

Operations section chief

237
Q

Other names for hot zone

A

Restricted zone, exclusion zone, or red zone

238
Q

Most railroad companies advise that vehicles be kept at least ___ from the tracks when possible.

A

25 feet

239
Q

Even if a halt confirmation has been received from a railroad, keep the aerial device at least ___ above the level of the rails as an added safety precaution.

A

25 feet

240
Q

What are the three basic types of aircraft incidents to which aerial apparatus may respond?

A
  1. Aircraft incidents involving extrication
  2. Aircraft incidents involving extrication complicated by fire
  3. Non-incident related aircraft fires
241
Q

Aerial apparatus are more likely to be useful at ___ involving large frame aircraft.

A

Non-accident related fires

242
Q

Where do slides inflate and drop from larger aircraft?

A

From the rear of the wings near the emergency window exits; smaller aircraft slides may drop from the door opening

243
Q

Where should you stage when responding to a dispatched aircraft emergency landing?

A

Near the expected touchdown area not the final position the aircraft is expected to stop

244
Q

When can you position inside of the dike walls of an elevated petroleum storage tank?

A

When a roadway is built on top of the dike.

245
Q

It is more efficient to discharge foam streams ___.

A

Downwind

246
Q

What are some challenges presented at petroleum processing facilities in regards to positioning the apparatus? (3 things)

A

Narrow driveways, Dead end access, and overhead obstructions

247
Q

What should you do if the apparatus is used solely for person power?

A

Shut down the engine

248
Q

IFSTA recommends that stabilizers (also called outriggers) and stabilizer pads (also called jack plates) be fully deployed _____ the aerial device is raised from its bed.

A

Every time

249
Q

Even if the device is only raised a few feet from the cradle to open a tilt cab, ___.

A

IFSTA recommends placing the stabilizers in position to minimize stress on the suspension

250
Q

As long as the ___ does not extend outside the base of stability, the apparatus should remain stable.

A

Gravity circle

251
Q

If the apparatus is parked on a lateral grade, the center of gravity (and the theoretical gravity circle) will be shifted to the ___.

A

Lower side

252
Q

Excessive loading on the aerial device will result in an ___ of the gravity circle.

A

Expansion

253
Q

The PTO should not be engaged until ___

A

The aerial apparatus has been properly positioned in accordance with the conditions on the scene

254
Q

A PTO activation switch may be pneumatic, electric, hydraulic or a combination of the three. Pneumatic systems require anywhere from ___ to ___ psi for the PTO to be operated.

A

50 to 140 psi

255
Q

Some apparatus manufacturers recommend that apparatus equipped with engine brakes or retarders ___

A

May need to have that system be shut off prior to engaging the aerial PTO

256
Q

How does a “hot-shift” PTO system work?

A

These systems can be engaged when the main transmission is in neutral.

257
Q

The wheels should have chocks placed both in front of and behind the tire, on both sides of the apparatus, with approx. ___ of extra space for the apparatus to move without causing a wheel chock to become stuck under a tire.

A

An inch

258
Q

Where is the selector valve located to provide power to the stabilizing system?

A

Either on the rear step area or midship on the driver’s side of the apparatus

259
Q

On some makes of apparatus, operation of the selector valve automatically ___

A

Releases the aerial device bed locks

260
Q

Generally there is one control for each of the stabilizers, and ___ control can be operated at a time.

A

More than one

261
Q

Many of the stabilizer hydraulic controls are ____.

A

Lever-type that move up to about 90 degrees

262
Q

On some apparatus, the aerial device cannot be raised unless the extension arms are ___

A

Fully extended

263
Q

What are the usual sizes of stabilizer pads?

A

24 inch by 24 inch

264
Q

When operating on level ground which side is lowered first?

A

It makes no difference

265
Q

Some types of apparatus may have ___ that automatically engage once proper stabilization has been achieved

A

Safety interlocks

266
Q

What is a difference in fulcrum stabilizers opposed to H style

A

Fulcrum can only be fully extended, cannot be short jacked

267
Q

Fulcrum stabilizers should be lowered to ___ prior to the placement of the stabilizer pads.

A

Within a few inches of the ground

268
Q

What is easier to correct, lateral or longitudinal uneven terrains?

A

Lateral

269
Q

Correction of lateral unevenness can be achieved on grades of up to ___ percent.

A

5 percent

270
Q

With lateral uneven terrain, Most manufacturers recommend that the stabilizers on the __ side of the vehicle be lowered first.

A

Uphill

271
Q

With uneven lateral terrain, it is preferred that the aerial device be operated over the ___ side of the apparatus.

A

Uphill

272
Q

Referring to longitudinal uneven terrain, articulating apparatus should generally be operated off the ___ of the vehicle whenever possible.

A

either the rear or the front

273
Q

Most apparatus have restricted loads when operating on grades, some as much as ___

A

One half the normal load

274
Q

On most aerial apparatus, the combination of ___ valves and the ___ provide automatic locking capabilities of the stabilizers.

A

the interlock feature of the selector, hydraulic system holding

275
Q

The ___ prevents the flow of hydraulic fluid into or out of the stabilization system while the aerial device is in use.

A

Interlock

276
Q

The ____ prevent the movement of fluid within the stabilization system.

A

Holding valves

277
Q

It may be necessary to set the holding valves by __.

A

Operating the stabilizer controls once in each direction after the selector valve has been moved to the aerial position.

278
Q

With manual stabilizers what do you do if the stabilizer lifts off the pad during aerial operations?

A

Do not adjust it, this is normal load shifting

279
Q

IFSTA does not recommend operating the aerial device using more than ___ motion at a time, even though it is technically possible to do so. This practice is taxing on the hydraulic pump and may lead to an accident and adds undue stress on the aerial device.

A

ONE

280
Q

Describe, in order, the series of motions to position an aerial device for use.

A

Elevation, rotation, extension, lowering

281
Q

Some newer apparatus are equipped with controls that are particularly well suited for simultaneous control such as with __ type controls.

A

Joystick

282
Q

____ regardless of the skill of the operator, should be minimized due to the large amount of dynamic stress placed upon the aerial device when the motion is halted.

A

Full speed operations

283
Q

The aerial function controls on most aerial devices are directly linked to the ____

A

vehicle’s engine throttle

284
Q

The operator should lift the aerial device to an elevation that is ___ than that required to reach the target area.

A

Slightly higher

285
Q

Less experienced drivers may find it easier to sight along the ___ of the ladder as it is being extended.

A

Top rails

286
Q

The aerial device should be positioned approx. ___ above the surface of the target and allowed to settle onto the surface from the weight of the firefighters on board the device.

A

4 to 6 inches

287
Q

Do electrical interlocks need to be activated?

A

NO

288
Q

When do most aerial ladder failures or apparatus overturning occur?

A

It involves a combination of overloading and overextension of the ladder at low angles of elevation

289
Q

As long as water is flowing, the ___ from the ladder pipe helps to counteract the force of gravity and assists in supporting the extra weight of the ladder.

A

Nozzle reaction; this is why failures may occur shortly after the water supply to the ladder pipe was shut off.

290
Q

What are the keys to operating on a grade? (3 things)

A

Optimum positioning, proper stabilization, and knowing load restrictions for the given grade

291
Q

Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: small trees in motion; whitecaps visible on ponds and small lakes.

A

15-24 mph

292
Q

Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: Large tree branches in motion; whistling heard in utility wires

A

25-31 mph

293
Q

Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: Whole trees in motion; inconvenience felt walking against wind

A

32-38 mph

294
Q

Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: Twigs break off trees walking against the wind is generally impeded minor building damage

A

39-54 mph

295
Q

What is effective to prevent immediate ice adhesion to the aerial device?

A

Apply grease to exposed sliding surfaces

296
Q

Is heat damage to the aerial device always visible?

A

No

297
Q

What are some obvious signs of heat damage to an aerial? (4 things)

A

Discoloration, disfiguration, deformed weld, or improper operation of the aerial device

298
Q

What NFPA refers to recommended out of service OOS criteria?

A

NFPA 1911

299
Q

The gathering of what conditions will greatly aid any professional reviews of the incident to determine the exact cause leading to the failure. (3 things)

A

Weather, load, or emergency factors

300
Q

What are the two types of articulating aerial platforms?

A

Water towers (sometimes configured as snozzles) and aerial platforms

301
Q

If other apparatus, particularly ___, position too close to the articulating aerial apparatus, its aerial device operating space may be impeded to the point of making it inoperable.

A

Telescoping aerial apparatus

302
Q

Some articulating platforms are also equipped with ___ that support the platform during road travel.

A

Basket stabilizers

303
Q

Many articulating elevating platforms have a switch on the ___ that is used to activate or deactivate the platform control panel.

A

Turntable control station panel

304
Q

When operating the aerial device from the lower control station, the driver should stand on an ___.

A

Anti-electrocution platform

305
Q

How much does 1 cubic inch of ice weigh?

A

0.03 lb

306
Q

What are the less obvious effects of cold weather?

A

Physical changes in the properties of the steel structural members of the device

307
Q

When subjected to extreme cold (sub zero) the device should be operated in a manner that will minimize or eliminate ___ to its structural members.

A

Shock loading

308
Q

How are water curtain nozzles operated?

A

Usually by some type of foot pedal or valve on the floor of the platform

309
Q

All manufacturers of articulating aerial apparatus include ___

A

Precautionary measures and recommendations for safe operation in their operator’s handbook

310
Q

To avoid unsafe positioning of the tip of the aerial platform, the operator should always ___.

A

Rotate that turntable until it faces the working area before the final position

311
Q

How can valves be controlled?

A

Manually, electrically, hydraulically, mechanically, or a combination of any

312
Q

Which valve acts as a safety feature if there is a leak?

A

Check valve

313
Q

What converts the hydraulic power to mechanical force?

A

The actuators (hydraulic cylinders)

314
Q

Where is the ladder pipe designed to be clamped?

A

The top two rungs on the fly section

315
Q

Where is water most commonly pumped from for a water tower?

A

The pump on the apparatus

316
Q

Loss control activities include (4 things)

A

Safe driving skills, water application techniques, salvage, and overhaul

317
Q

Things to consider when spotting an aerial apparatus (5 things)

A

Surface conditions, grade, windy conditions, electrical hazards and ground or overhead obstructions, angle and location of aerial device operation, and special situations

318
Q

When approaching from the uphill side

A

pull the apparatus past the building and operate the aerial device from the rear

319
Q

When approaching from the downhill side

A

stop short of the building and operate the aerial over the cab

320
Q

What facilitates the orderly positioning of apparatus?

A

A staging procedure

321
Q

What zone is the hazmat control officer in?

A

cold zone

322
Q

With lateral uneven terrain and you must operate on the downhill side, what should you consider?

A

Less amounts of extension and loading

323
Q

When parked on longitudinal grades you should not

A

Extend or retract over the side of the apparatus

324
Q

Which NFPA requires driver/operators to have certain preventative maintenance skills?

A

NFPA 1002

325
Q

Define Maintenance.

A

Keeping the apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness.

326
Q

Define Repair.

A

To restore or replace that which has become inoperable.

327
Q

What does preventative maintenance ensure? (3 things)

A
  1. Apparatus reliability 2. Reduces the frequency and cost of repairs 3. Lessens out of service time
328
Q

What is the goal of preventative maintenance?

A

is to eliminate unexpected and catastrophic failures that may endanger firefighters and the general public

329
Q

Some FDs may have a designated apparatus maintenance officer that meets the requirements of…

A

Emergency vehicle technician according to NFPA 1071, Standard for emergency vehicle technician professional qualifications

330
Q

NFPA 1071

A

Standard for Emergency Vehicle Technician professional qualifications.

331
Q

Driver operators should be able to perform ______ maintenance functions.

A

Basic

332
Q

In almost all cases, repair functions are carried out by _______.

A

Qualified mechanics

333
Q

Every fire department should have SOPs for a….

A

Systematic apparatus maintenance program that complies with applicable NFPA standards

334
Q

Typically, career fire departments require driver/operators to perform apparatus inspection and maintenance checks at

A

The beginning of each tour of duty

335
Q

More detailed work may be completed on a _____ or ______ basis.

A

Weekly or monthly

336
Q

Volunteer fire departments should establish a procedure by which all apparatus are inspected and maintained on at least a ______ or ______ schedule.

A

Weekly or biweekly

337
Q

List 3 functions that maintenance records serve.

A
  1. Warranty claims 2. Accident investigations 3. Data on whether to continue repairs or buy new equipment
338
Q

Keeping the apparatus body clean also helps promote a…

A

Longer vehicle life (particularly true where road salts are used)

339
Q

T/F Overcleaning can have negative effects

A

True, it can remove lubrication from chassis, engine, pump, or other components

340
Q

What is the most commonly performed maintenance function?

A

Washing

341
Q

During the first ____ months after an apparatus is received, it should be washed _____ with cold water to harden the paint and keep it from spotting.

A

Six months, frequently

342
Q

Recommend washing instructions for new paint - hose stream

A

Use a garden hose without a nozzle. The water pressure should be set so that a stream from the hose is no longer than 1 foot.

343
Q

After new paint has cured - hose stream

A

A garden hose with a nozzle or a pressure washer may be used to speed the cleaning of the apparatus.

344
Q

In general, what should be used to clean automotive glass?

A

Warm soapy water or commercial glass cleaners with paper towels or cloth rags

345
Q

What should not be used to remove deposits from glass? (3 things)

A

Putty knives, steel wool, or any abrasive tool

346
Q

On many newer apparatus the application of wax is…

A

No longer necessary and may damage clear coats

347
Q

Generally, wax should not be applied until paint is how old?

A

Six months

348
Q

Describe the circle or walk-around method for checking a truck. What is the final step?

A

Start at the driver’s door and work around the apparatus in a clockwise pattern. The final step is starting the apparatus and performing a functional check on apparatus systems.

349
Q

What are the requirements of an apparatus inspection procedure based on? (2 things)

A

NFPA 1002 and government pretrip inspection requirements for obtaining a CDL

350
Q

T/F Seals that retain axle gear oil may show slight seepage and still be serviceable.

A

True. Trails of fluid on the wheel or tire are unacceptable.

351
Q

What is the first thing to be checked when inspecting the front of the vehicle?

A

Any new significant body damage

352
Q

When checking hose loads in the main hose bed, what should you look for? (3 things)

A
  1. The right amount of hose 2. The hose is loaded and finished correctly. 3. and the cover is in good condition
353
Q

What should the driver do prior to starting the apparatus?

A

Make sure the seat and mirrors are adjusted correctly

354
Q

If the speedometer shows something other than zero or very near zero when parked, what situations may be occurring? (2 things)

A

The gauge is defective or The truck is in pump gear

355
Q

How does a load sequencer function?

A

It turns on various lights at specified intervals so that the start up electrical load does not occur at the same time.

356
Q

Steering wheel play limitations.

A

10 degrees in either direction. On a 20-inch wheel this is 2- inches.

357
Q

NFPA that covers brake testing.

A

NFPA 1911

358
Q

System air pressure where the air horn no longer works.

A

Under 80 psi

359
Q

Method for testing road brakes or parking brake

A

Firmly press brake pedal and apparatus should stop in 20 ft at 5 mph

360
Q

Which fluid is should be checked while the engine is running?

A

Automatic transmission fluid; power steering fluid maybe

361
Q

When is it recommended to add windshield washer fluid to an apparatus?

A

Anytime it is less than half full

362
Q

Most modern vehicle batteries are which type?

A

maintenance free

363
Q

Some power steering systems require the fluid level to be checked while….

A

the engine is running at normal operating temperature.

364
Q

What does the SAE number indicate for lubricants?

A

The viscosity

365
Q

What gas do batteries produce when being charged?

A

Explosive hydrogen gas

366
Q

Collisions at ______ are by far the most frequent and severe.

A

Intersections

367
Q

Five basic causes of fire apparatus collisions.

A
  1. Improper backing 2. Reckless driving. 3 Excessive speed 4. Lack of driving skill and experience 5. overloading and misuse, 6. mechanical failure, 7. driver operator personal readiness
368
Q

What percent of drivers were not aware of a problem until it was too late according to SAE?

A

42 percent

369
Q

Driver/Operators are regulated by which entities? (5 things)

A
  1. Federal laws 2. State or provincial laws 3. City ordinances 4. NFPA standards 5. Departmental policies
370
Q

When should the driver start the vehicle when responding to a call?

A

As soon as possible to let it warm up

371
Q

When can the battery switch be operated while the vehicle is running?

A

Never

372
Q

Amount of time for oil pressure gauge to indicate a reasonable amount.

A

5 to 10 seconds after starting

373
Q

Order for adjusting seat, mirror, and steering wheel

A

Generally best to adjust the seat first followed by the mirrors and wheel

374
Q

Can the engine governor control downhill speed.

A

No. The wheels will turn the driveshaft and the engine. The engine could be damaged if you go downhill too fast.

375
Q

Lugging

A

The result of overthrottling while the transmission is in too high a gear for a given set of conditions. (Trying to accelerate up a steep grade)

376
Q

How to prevent lugging.

A

Downshift

377
Q

Things to consider when braking. (4 things)

A
  1. Weight of the vehicle 2. Condition of the brakes 3. Condition of the tires 4. Condition of the road
378
Q

NFPA 1901

A

Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus

379
Q

NFPA 1500

A

Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program

380
Q

When loading hose while moving… (5 things)

A
  1. A safety officer must be assigned other than the D/O or a hose loader 2. Road should be closed 3. The apparatus should be driven forward at no more than 5 mph 4. No members are allowed to stand on any portion of the apparatus while in motion 5. Members in the hosebed must sit or kneel while the vehicle is in motion
381
Q

Department SOPs should require that, when backing,…

A

There be at least one firefighter - and preferably two - behind the apparatus to act as spotters

382
Q

Spotter position when backing.

A

The spotter should be on the drivers side about 1 vehicle length behind with a portable radio

383
Q

What should the driver do if there is not a backup alarm.

A

Sound to horn twice per SOPs

384
Q

When can fire apparatus proceed through a red traffic signal or stop sign?

A

After coming to a complete stop and ensuring that all lanes of traffic are accounted for and yielding

385
Q

When is driving in the oncoming lane not recommended?

A

In situations where oncoming traffic cannot see the apparatus for any reason

386
Q

Anticipation control factors… ( 6 things)

A
  1. Aim high in steering 2. Get the big picture 3. Keep your eyes moving 4. Leave yourself an out 5. Make sure others can see and hear you 6. maintain enough distance from the vehicle ahead to pull out of trafic safely if the need arises
387
Q

What two things does visual lead time interact directly with?

A

Reaction time for evasice manuver and stopping distance

388
Q

Define reaction distance

A

The distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake after perceiving the need for stopping.

389
Q

Define total stopping distance

A

The reaction distance plus the vehicle braking distance

390
Q

Other factors that influence the driver’s ability to stop the apparatus. (4 things)

A
  1. Condition and slope of the driving surface 2. Speed 3. Weight of the vehicle 4. Type and condition of the vehicle braking system
391
Q

Optimal stopping surface

A

flat, dry, paved road

392
Q

Total stopping distance for 4 sized vehicles at 50 mph

A

Auto - 186 ft Light truck - 280 ft Heavy truck - 310 ft Three axle truck - 375 ft

393
Q

Whenever a vehicle undergoes a change in speed or direction, weight transfer takes place relative to the….

A

rate and degree of change.

394
Q

The most common causes of skids involve driver error: (4 things)

A
  1. Driving too fast for road conditions 2. Failing to anticipate objects (vehicles or animals) 3. Improper use of auxiliary brake 4. Improper maintenance of tire air pressure and adequate tread depth
395
Q

How does the ABS system work?

A

Digital technology in an onboard computer monitors each wheel and controls pressure to the brakes

396
Q

How fast is the ABS computer?

A

The computer makes decisions more than 20 times per second until the vehicle is brought to a halt

397
Q

Where are electromagnetic brake systems connected?

A

To the drive shaft or the rear axle of the vehicle

398
Q

How does ATC work on slippery roads?

A

reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction and begin to spin, this transfers torque to the wheels that still have traction

399
Q

What do you activate if you want the “rock” an apparatus out of a particular spot?

A

Snow-and-mud switch

400
Q

Which lane should apparatus be driven while on city streets?

A

fast lane

401
Q

When do automatic snow chains lose their effectiveness?

A

When snow is deeper than 3-6 inches or when the vehicle is moving very slow or in reverse.

402
Q

Under normal operating conditions, the interaxle differential switch should be in the _____ position.

A

Unlocked

403
Q

At what speed can an apparatus out run the siren?

A

50 mph

404
Q

When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, units should travel at least ____ to ____ feet apart.

A

300 to 500 feet

405
Q

Headlights should be turned ____ while responding.

A

ON

406
Q

Warning lights combined with _______, reduce the effectiveness of the reflective trim on the firefighters protective clothing or vests.

A

On scene floodlights

407
Q

Distance that microphones can hear sirens for preemption devices.

A

several hundred feet to about 1/2 mile

408
Q

What light system will microphone preemption devices have?

A

white (direction of travel) and blue (non-direction of travel) lights in each direction of travel, somewhere to the side of the regular traffic signals.

409
Q

Which NFPA provides some specific direction on how driver/operator candidates should be tested?

A

NFPA 1002

410
Q

NFPA 1451

A

Standard for a Fire Service Vehicle Operations Training Program

411
Q

Alley dock dimensions

A

40 ft curb to curb 12 ft wide alley 20 ft deep

412
Q

Number of markers and spacing for serpentine course.

A

At least 3 markers spaced 30 to 38 ft apart.

413
Q

Which direction do you maneuver the serpentine course first?

A

Backwards

414
Q

Confined space turn around dimensions

A

At least 100 ft long and 50 ft wide

415
Q

What are the number of allowed direction changes for the confined space turn around?

A

Unlimited

416
Q

What if the apparatus is small enough to complete a U-turn in the confined space turn around?

A

Make the dimensions smaller so backing is required

417
Q

Speed for diminishing clearance maneuver.

A

Fast enough to require the driver to exercise quick judgement

418
Q

Diminishing clearance dimensions.

A

75 ft long

Lane narrowing from 9 ft 6 inches to 8 ft 2 inches

419
Q

Stopping dimensions for diminishing clearance.

A

50 feet after the last stanchion must stop within 6 inches of finish line

420
Q

NFPA 1002 road test minimum elements. (9 things)

A
  1. Four left and four right turns 2. A straight section of urban business or two-lane rural road at least 1 mile long 3. One through intersection and two stopping intersections 4. Railroad crossing 5. One curve 6. Limited access highway with on or off ramp and two lane changes 7. A downgrade that requires downshifting or braking 8. An upgrade that requires gear shift to maintain speed 9. An underpass or low-clearance bridge.
421
Q

Determining the proper position for the attack pumper begins with what?

A

Sizing up the incident

422
Q

How are later arriving units directed to location?

A

Based on SOPs or orders from the IC

423
Q

Where to park during investigation mode(where no fire is evident)?

A

pull the apparatus past the front of the building if feasible

424
Q

During “investigation” mode, where should the driver be?

A

Remain with the apparatus to make standpipe connections or pull attack lines and operate the pump

425
Q

What do you need to do if you position contrary to SOPs?

A

Let the incoming units know of the change

426
Q

Whenever possible, attempt to position the apparatus _____ of the incident.

A

Upwind

427
Q

Being upwind negates the need for what?

A

Drivers to wear SCBA

428
Q

What is the one exception to positioning the apparatus uphill from the incident?

A

Wildland fires since the fire will spread uphill

429
Q

What is the collapse zone equal to?

A

1.5 times the height of the building

430
Q

When possible, position the apparatus at the _____ of the building.

A

Corners

431
Q

What is the optimum position for aerial apparatus?

A

Corners

432
Q

How far away can debris land when falling from a building?

A

Up to 200 feet from the base of the building

433
Q

“Inside/Outside” method of positioning

A

If the building is less than five stories tall, engine companies are positioned on the side of the street closest to the building and aerial are positioned outboard of the engine.

434
Q

Where should pumpers that are providing water for an elevated stream be positioned?

A

As close to the aerial apparatus as possible.

435
Q

Pumpers will generally position _____ for the sprinkler or standpipe FDC.

A

As close as possible to the water source

436
Q

Many departments have SOCs that require the ____ pumper to proceed directly to the FDC, others do not.

A

First-due

437
Q

Which drafting sites should receive preference?

A

Ones accessible from a paved surface and require a minimum length of hose. Also ones that minimize the required lift.

438
Q

At what amount of feet of lift will the pump meet its rated capacity?

A

10 ft

439
Q

When drafting, an intake hose may be laid on a _____ to keep it off the bottom.

A

Ground ladder

440
Q

When should an intake hose be attached to the engine when drafting?

A

At the draft site, or park short of the final draft spot if the area around the actual drafting spot is limited and connect the intake hose and strainer and have it carried while the pumper is driven to the final position

441
Q

How high should a dry hydrant used for drafting be off the ground?

A

15 inches

442
Q

What should be the clearance around strainer used with a dry hydrant?

A

2 ft

443
Q

Only hard intake hose that has been designed to withstand _____ should be connected to a fire hydrant

A

Positive pressure

444
Q

Intake hose sections are commonly what length?

A

10-50 ft

445
Q

When hooking to a hydrant do you judge the distance from the curb or hydrant?

A

Hydrant

446
Q

How many twists should you put in the hose if sexless couplings are not used?

A

2, no twists for sexless couplings

447
Q

What is one of the easiest ways to ensure the maximum possible flow through a hose?

A

Remove kinks

448
Q

Other names for a large diameter intake

A

Steamer or intake header

449
Q

Define dual pumping.

A

When one hydrant supplies two pumpers (rarely used), position pumpers intake-to-intake

450
Q

NFPA 1962

A

Standard for the Inspection, Care, and Use of Fire Hose, Couplings, and Nozzles and the Service Testing of Fire Hose

451
Q

3 Reasons for Tandem Pumping operations (like relay pumping for a shorter distance)

A
  1. Supply high rise
  2. Very long hose lays
  3. Attack pumper is a short distance from the hydrant, but long distance from the fire
452
Q

How far apart can the engines be for tandem pumping?

A

Up to 300 ft

453
Q

How are pumpers connected when tandem pumping?

A

Discharge of water supply engine to intake of attack engine

454
Q

T/F Wildland fire apparatus are seldom positioned in the same location for the duration of an incident

A

TRUE

455
Q

What are the two most common functions of wildland apparatus?

A
  1. Providing structure protection

2. Making a direct attack on the fire

456
Q

What is the highest priority for wildland firefighting after life safety?

A

Protection of structures

457
Q

To facilitate a rapid exit, what should wildland apparatus do for driveways?

A

Back in from the last known turn around

458
Q

In regards to wind, which side of a structure should a wildland apparatus be placed?

A

The lee side

459
Q

Where should a wildland fire attack always begin?

A

From an anchor point that is a natural or man made barrier to protect from fire

460
Q

Name some typical anchor points.

A

Roads, Lakes, ponds, streams, and previously burned areas

461
Q

What is a concern when driving on the shoulders of railroad roadbeds?

A

Tire damage can result from the angular rock, the rock is prone to sliding, rollover, could be hit by train

462
Q

When apparatus is used in a mobile attack, hose lines should be kept as _____ as possible.

A

Short

463
Q

When a wildland fire is spreading rapidly upslope, where should the firefighters draw back to?

A

The flanks

464
Q

You should not drive the apparatus into smoke where crews are operating. If you must drive through smoke what should you do?

A

Sound the horn and siren intermittently, use warning and headlights, and drive slowly

465
Q

Which NFPA lists having an EMS unit on fire and hazmat incidents as a requirement.

A

NFPA 1500

466
Q

Who initiates level 2 staging?

A

The IC or Operations section chief when requesting additional resources

467
Q

How many units needed where level 1 staging may be initiated?

A

2 companies or more

468
Q

How far away should units stage with level 1 staging?

A

At least one block away

469
Q

Who generally becomes the Staging Area manager?

A

The company officer of the first company to arrive at the staging area

470
Q

The staging manager communicates the resource availability and resource needs to the ______ or the ____.

A

Planning section or IC

471
Q

According to the Manual of Uniform Traffic Control Devices, emergency vehicle lighting should be….

A

used as needed to reach the scene, but once on scene its use should be reduced as much as possible.

472
Q

At least ______ lane next to the incident should be closed when operating on the highway.

A

ONE

473
Q

Departments that commonly respond to highway incidents tend to prefer…

A

top-mounted pump panels

474
Q

Control zones are not necessarily ____ and can be ____ as the incident changes.

A

Static; adjusted

475
Q

Decon is usually located…

A

Within the warm zone in the decon corridor

476
Q

It may require ______ for a fully loaded train to come to a complete stop.

A

one to two miles

477
Q

Apparatus positioning on EMS incidents is important from a ____ and _____ standpoint.

A

Tactical and safety

478
Q

For fire protection purposes water is assumed to weigh

A

62.4 lb/cf or 8.3 lb/gal

479
Q

How much does water expand when converted to steam?

A

1700 times

480
Q

pressure is ?

A

the force per unit area exerted by a liquid or gas measured in psi

481
Q

force is?

A

simple measure of weight, usually expressed in lbs or kilos

482
Q

The height required for a 1 square inch column of water to produce 1 psi at its base is _____

A

2.304 feet

483
Q

A 1 square inch column of water one foot high exerts a pressure at its base of ___

A

.434 psi

484
Q

The sped at which a fluid travels through a hose or pipe is often called what?

A

velocity

485
Q

Velocity is determined by what to things

A

the pressure upon that fluid as well as the size of the orifice through which it is flowing

486
Q

Water has _____ surface tension that makes it difficult to penetrate dense items.

A

High

487
Q

First principle of pressure

A

Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface to which it acts

488
Q

Second principle of pressure

A

Fluid pressure at a point in a fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions

489
Q

Third principle of pressure

A

Pressure applied to a confined fluid from without is transmitted equally in all directions

490
Q

Fourth principle of pressure

A

The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth

491
Q

Fifth principle of pressure

A

The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the density of the liquid

492
Q

Sixth principle of pressure

A

The pressure of a liquid on the bottom of a vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel

493
Q

What is a common method of measuring atmospheric pressure?

A

Compare the weight of the atmosphere with the weight of mercury

494
Q

Absolute zero pressure is called a ______.

A

Perfect Vacuum

495
Q

______ is stored potential energy available to force water through pipes, fittings, fire hose, and adapters.

A

Static pressure

496
Q

Is residual pressure measured at the flowing hydrant?

A

No, a different hydrant than the one flowing

497
Q

_____ refers to the centerline of the pump or the bottom of a static water supply source above or below ground level

A

Elevation

498
Q

Pressure drop is of little consequence to about _____.

A

2,000 ft

499
Q

Above sea level, atmospheric pressure decreases approximately _____.

A

0.5 psi for every 1,000 ft

500
Q

In fire hose, the following cause friction loss: (6 things)

A
  1. Movement of water molecules against each other 2. Linings in the fire hose 3. Couplings 4. Sharp bends 5. Change in hose size or orifice by adapters 6. Improper gasket size

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