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B's Flashcards 1001-1500

1
Q

More firefighters are injured in __ more than any other type of occupancy.

A

single family dwellings

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2
Q

Even before the __ the officer should have begun a careful sizeup of the fire scene.

A

Pumper has stopped

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3
Q

Bystanders can give __

A

Unreliable information

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4
Q

Unofficial reports that “everyone has escaped” should not __

A

Delay or halt the primary search, especially in multifamily residences

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5
Q

Immediate rescue, without a coordinated fire attack, should __

A

Be attempted only in extreme cases (window jumpers)

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6
Q

Many times victims that you see __

A

May not be the ones in dire distress

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7
Q

Firefighters must be aware of the two-in/two-out rule as directed by __ and __

A

OSHA and NFPA 1500

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8
Q

RIT must be provided from the __ to __

A

Initial stages of an incident to its conclusion

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9
Q

If possible, the RIT should be a crew of __ fire fighters, one of whom MUST be an officer.

A

Four

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10
Q

During large operations, the RIT will normally be assigned near the __

A

Command post

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11
Q

RIT should access the preplan off of __ and __

A

The first engine and bring it to the command post

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12
Q

The primary function of the engine company in a rescue situations is to __ (3 things)

A
  1. Support the primary search
  2. Contain the fire
  3. Keep the fire from jeopardizing anyone within the fire building
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13
Q

When is the usual time that the first hose lines are being stretched and positioned?

A

During primary search

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14
Q

The search for victims is normally the function of __

A

Ladder or rescue companies

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15
Q

If the fire is smoldering, the building must be ventliated properly __ the building is entered.

A

Before

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16
Q

When the fire is free burning, ventilation should begin __ as the initial attack.

A

At the same time

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17
Q

In any type of structure, the main thrust of operations is determined by __.

A

The location and severity of the fire and the locationof the occupants most endangered by it.

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18
Q

Can you perform a primary search without an attack line when searching upper floors?

A

Yes, if no line is available. Either way, no time should be lost getting fire fighters to the upper floors above a fire.

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19
Q

Which occupants are in most danger in a typical two-story single family dwelling with two or three rooms on fire on the first floor?

A

Those close to the fire on the first floor and those directly over the fire on the second floor

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20
Q

In a large, occupied residential building, what indicates the greatest danger area for occupants?

A

The location of the fire and the direction of the most smoke

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21
Q

How should schools be evacuated?

A

Completely

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22
Q

What does the necessity to evacuate a hospital or nursing home depend on?

A

Type of construction, the size of the building, and the location and severity of the fire.

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23
Q

The SOG for search should require that the search begin __

A

Where there is the most danger to occupants

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24
Q

Following SOGs, the first are to be searched is __

A

Directly over the fire

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25
Q

Everyone engaged in search should carry a __

A

Fire ax, halligan tool, or claw tool

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26
Q

The windows of rooms that are not involved with fire and hallway windows should be __ in order to vent as much of the upper story as possible.

A

Opened or removed

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27
Q

What is an effective way to show that a room has already been searched?

A

Place a piece of light furniture in the doorway

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28
Q

How should the light piece of furniture used to show a room has been searched be placed?

A

On its side, with the legs pointing out of the room

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29
Q

When establishing water supply, __ as well as __ should be followed.

A

SOGs as well as safe work practices

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30
Q

Where the initial action is laying supply lines, this operation should involve __.

A

As few firefighters as possible, so others can be free for fire attack and rescue

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31
Q

What three factors influence the movement of water at fires?

A
  1. Water source
  2. Pumper
  3. Hose
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32
Q

What are the four possible sources of water at a fire ground?

A
  1. Water main systems,
  2. Static water sources,
  3. Apparatus water tanks,
  4. Mobile water supply apparatus
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33
Q

In regards to flow testing of hydrants, the fire department should __

A

Either run its own tests or be a part of the process if testing is done by another agency

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34
Q

Factors that affect the flow rate of a water main system are __

A

The sizes of mains, the capabilities and locations of elevated reservoirs, and the capacities of pumps if used in the system

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35
Q

Can static pressure and residual pressure both be read on the compound gauge?

A

YES, static with no water flowing and residual with water flowing

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36
Q

Percentage rule for adding lines according to engine company ops book.

A

Drop of 5% can add 3 times the flow
Drop of 10% can add 2 times the flow
Drop of 20% can add 1 times the flow

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37
Q

What are the two types of mobile water supply apparatus?

A

Tankers and tenders

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38
Q

Mobile water supply apparatus generally carry __ to __ gallons.

A

1,000 to 3,500 gallons; PDO book says 1500 to 3000.

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39
Q

Vehicles carrying 1,000 gallons of water or more with a fire pump are generally referred to as __

A

Tankers

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40
Q

Can Pumper-tankers be used to shuttle water from a water source to the fire ground?

A

It should not; It should be used for fire attack or relay pumping.

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41
Q

Vehicles carrying 1,000 gallons of water or more without a fire pump or using a small PTO pump are called __

A

Tenders

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42
Q

During shuttle operations, what determines the number of attack lines that can be placed in service?

A

The supply of water that can be maintained by the mobile water supply apparatus

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43
Q

__ is the key to establishing standard operating guidelines affecting water supply requirements.

A

Preincident planning

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44
Q

A pumper has a mounted fire pump that is at least __

A

750 gpm

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45
Q

__ percent of rated capacity at 200 psi

A

70

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46
Q

__ percent of rated capacity at 250 psi

A

50

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47
Q

Intakes must have __ if the apparatus is to be used in the US

A

Male NH threads; maybe a female swivel coupling with NH threads…the book is contradictory

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48
Q

The usual practice is to install one 2.5 inch discharge for each __ of rated capacity.

A

250 gpm

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49
Q

__ should be provided on pumpers to complement their rated capacity.

A

Adequate discharge outlets

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50
Q

The pump must not be operated above __ percent of its rated peak speed for any length of time.

A

80 percent

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51
Q

The limit of a pump may be imposed either by __ or __.

A

Pump speed or true pump capacity

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52
Q

The residual pressure should not be allowed to drop below __, except under extreme conditions.

A

10 psi

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53
Q

What is the proper thing to do if it looks like residual pressure is dropping below 10 psi?

A

Notify the company officer, lower the discharge pressure of the pump, NEVER shut down a hose line without consent of the people on the end

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54
Q

Attack hose is designed to convey water to __

A

Hose line nozzles, distributer nozzles, master stream appliances, portable hydrants, manifolds, standpipe and sprinkler systems, and pumps used by the fire department

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55
Q

The attack hose is designed for use at operating pressures up to at least __

A

275 psi

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56
Q

An LDH has a diameter __ inch or larger.

A

3.5 inch

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57
Q

When LDH is providing water to attack lines, master streams, portable hydrants, manifolds, and standpipe and sprinkler systems, what should be used?

A

A pressure relief device set at 200 psi

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58
Q

A 2.5 inch line should not be used to deliver much more than __ gpm. The FL at this flow is __ per 100 ft of line.

A

350 gpm; 25 psi per 100 ft

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59
Q

Flow for 1000 ft of one 2.5 inch hose at 175 PDP.

A

275 gpm

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60
Q

Flow for 1000 ft of two 2.5 inch hose at 175 PDP.

A

550 gpm

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61
Q

Flow for 1000 ft of one 3 inch hose at 175 PDP.

A

440 gpm

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62
Q

Flow for 1000 ft of one 4 inch hose at 175 PDP.

A

880 gpm

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63
Q

Flow for 1000 ft of one 5 inch hose at 175 PDP.

A

1,400 gpm

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64
Q

FL for 2.5 inch at 250 gpm.

A

About 15 psi per 100 ft

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65
Q

Is there a decrease in pressure when using 2.5 inch coupling on 3 inch hose?

A

Little will be noticed because the increased velocity at the coupling makes up for most of the loss

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66
Q

NFPA 1961 defines an LDH as a hose with an __ diameter of __ inches or larger.

A

Inside; 3.5 inches; generally an LDH measures 4 inches or greater

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67
Q

A 4 inch LDH can deliver a volume of water to equivalent __ 2.5 inch lines.

A

Three and a half times

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68
Q

A 5 inch LDH can deliver a volume of water equivalent to __ 2.5 inch lines

A

Six

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69
Q

If an LDH is available, it should __ be used for water supply.

A

Always

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70
Q

What will indicate what type of supply line should be used?

A

Training, experience, and sizeup

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71
Q

As a rule, a pumper at a hydrant should initially begin pumping to a unit at the fire at a pump pressure of __

A

100 psi

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72
Q

Excessively long lays, those exceeding about __ (up to __ ft max) may require relaying operations to counteract the effect of friction loss and elevation pressure.

A

1000 ft; 2000 ft

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73
Q

When in a relay, the operator must watch the pump discharge gauge as discharge pressure will fall when the next pumper up the line begins taking water. Then what should the operator do?

A

Adjust the throttle smoothl to bring the discharge pressure up to the starting pressure

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74
Q

At the start of the relay, all pumpers should be set to pump at __

A

150 psi

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75
Q

Who must make the decision as to the type of initial attack line to use?

A

The fire fighter

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76
Q

Do fire fighters use a IMS or ICS system?

A

IMS, Incident management system

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77
Q

What is the most common type of fire encountered by responding fire fighters?

A

A free burning fire

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78
Q

What are the three methods that an interior attack can be conducted?

A

Direct, Indirect, or combination

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79
Q

Which method of fire attack is used most often in offensive fire attack situations?

A

Direct attack

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80
Q

Which type of hose stream is used with a direct attack?

A

Solid or straight stream

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81
Q

What is the objective of the indirect attack?

A

To prevent flashover

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82
Q

Is an indirect attack a good choice when victims might be present?

A

NO, a lot of steam is produced causing burns

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83
Q

Where might an indirect attack be a good choice?

A

Unoccupied Basements, attics, and storage areas

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84
Q

When using an indirect attack and the area has been cooled and ventilated, what should you do next?

A

Switch to a direct attack

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85
Q

Which buildings do not get an aggressive interior attack? (6 things)

A
  1. Buildings in various stages of demolition,
  2. Abandoned for long periods,
  3. Burning for a predetermined period of time,
  4. Contains construction features detrimental to safe interior operations,
  5. Have had previous fires,
  6. Are under construction
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86
Q

The choice of initial attack lines and nozzles depends on the __ of the attack.

A

Purpose

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87
Q

What are the four different purposes of attacking a fire?

A
  1. Holding action
  2. Exposure protection
  3. A defensive operation
  4. An offensive operation
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88
Q

Is it ok to assign one person to an attack line for interior fire fighting?

A

No

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89
Q

A 1.5 inch attack line with a spray nozzle will deliver __ to __ gpm.

A

60 to 125 gpm

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90
Q

It is recommended that the use of a __ inch hoseline be eliminated for structural fire fighting.

A

1.5 inch

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91
Q

What will help to get 2.5 inch hose lines into service more quickly?

A

Adequate staffing

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92
Q

A 1-3/4 inch line can discharge __ gpm with a smooth bore or spray nozzle

A

120-200 gpm

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93
Q

A 2.5 inch fog stream will deliver about __ gpm

A

250

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94
Q

A 2.5 inch solid stream with 1-1/8 inch tip at 50 psi will deliver __ gpm

A

265

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95
Q

A 2.5 inch solid stream with 1-1/4 inch tip at 50 psi will deliver __ gpm

A

325

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96
Q

When it is known that the building is adequately ventilated opposite the direction from which the spray nozzle is being advanced, __

A

A fog stream can be used, but at no more than a 30 degree angle

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97
Q

Flow for 1-3/4 line with smooth bore 15/16 tip.

A

180 gpm at 50 psi

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98
Q

Flow for 1-3/4 line with smooth bore 1 inch tip.

A

200 gpm at 50 psi

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99
Q

Low pressure spray nozzles are available that operate at __ psi nozzle pressure.

A

75 psi; Remember that IFSTA states 50 psi also

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100
Q

What are the four types of spray nozzles?

A

Basic spray nozzle, Constant gallonage, constant pressure (automatic), constant/select gallonage

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101
Q

With which type of nozzle will a weak stream be readily apparent?

A

Basic spray nozzle and constant gallonage spray nozzle

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102
Q

If fire shows at the top of the door as it is opened, the ceiling should be hit with a __ to cool it and control the fire gases.

A

Solid stream

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103
Q

Fire fighters are much more tolerant of __

A

Dry heat than they are of wet heat

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104
Q

Where should you direct the stream if the area is heavily involved?

A

Direct the solid stream forward and upward at the ceiling in a side to side motion or rotate the stream.

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105
Q

Which size hoseline can be ideal for getting above the fire to stop vertical spread from floor to floor by way of the windows?

A

1-3/4 inch

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106
Q

What hose placement would be good on a large fire in a department store or supermarket?

A

Attack the main body of the fire with a 2.5 inch, Use 1-3/4 lines to keep the fire from spreading horizontally, Backup the smaller lines with 2.5 inch lines

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107
Q

__ are the safer and more effective option for a defensive attack.

A

Master streams

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108
Q

With __ involvement of a commercial space, use 2.5 inch lines as your interior attack lines

A

50 percent

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109
Q

In modern garden apartments, fires are often encountered in __

A

Basement storage rooms

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110
Q

How can hose lines be advanced to upper floors? (4 ways)

A
  1. Ground ladders, aerial ladders, or aerial platforms
  2. By hoisting with ropes
  3. By being carried in and connected through a window
  4. By being passed up a window with a pike pole or shephard hook
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111
Q

In a stairway, one __ of hose must be allotted for each floor because so much length is taken up in winding around stairs and through hallways

A

50 ft section

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112
Q

Firefighters attempting to advance line to the fire should __ if that action will help them to advance.

A

Vent as they go

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113
Q

What color might smoke be if the fire is smoldering?

A

Yellow or dirty brown

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114
Q

Where should you vent a smoldering fire?

A

At as high a point as is safely possible

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115
Q

What is a sign that venting is complete on a smoldering fire?

A

The smoldering fire will burst into flame

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116
Q

What are the engine comany’s first line of defense?

A

Backup lines

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117
Q

Are backup lines used for exposure protection?

A

NO

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118
Q

Are backup lines used to attack the fire at other positions?

A

No, they are held in readiness to back up the attack lines

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119
Q

Backup lines should be deployed on __

A

All structural interests

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120
Q

When should backup lines be taken into the fire building?

A

Immediately after attack lines

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121
Q

The engine ops book says to charge backup lines after they are in place.

A

This is not how its normally done…

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122
Q

When are backup lines used?

A

When initial attack lines cannot quickly control the fire

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123
Q

Backup lines should have __ and __ than initial attack lines.

A

Greater reach and deliver more water

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124
Q

In general, backup lines should be at least __ than initial attack lines.

A

One size larger. Although pictures show a 2.5 inch backing up a 2.5 inch

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125
Q

A 2.5 inch line should always be backed up with __

A

Another 2.5 inch line with a larger tip unless these are already in use

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126
Q

One 2.5 inch line may be sufficient to back up two or more 1-3/4 inch attack lines when they are operating within __.

A

One or two floors of each other

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127
Q

What should you do when an interior attack with 2.5 inch hoselines fails to control the fire?

A

Back out all fire fighters and attack using master stream appliances

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128
Q

If the backup lines have to be placed in service, the initial attack lines should __

A

Be shut down if they are ineffective against the fire

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129
Q

Can a backup assignment be given to personnel that were already on initial attack operations?

A

No, they will be tired and the backup operation will be understandably inefficient

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130
Q

Master stream appliances should be charged and manned by __

A

Fresh crews

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131
Q

How many personnel should be on a RIT team?

A

At least 4

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132
Q

__ is second only to rescue on any list of the basic objectives of a firefighting operation.

A

Exposure coverage

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133
Q

What is key to full exposure protection?

A

The adequate number of fire fighters

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134
Q

Any special equipment that will aid in firefighting should be dispatched to the fire scene on the __

A

First alarm

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135
Q

Which type of fire can lead to serious interior exposure problems?

A

Basement fires

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136
Q

What are some of the greatest deterrents to exposure fires?

A

Unpierced fire walls

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137
Q

Factors that affect the severity of an exterior exposure problem: (10 things)

A
  1. Recent weather,
  2. Current weather, especially wind,
  3. Space between fire and exposures,
  4. Building construction design and materials,
  5. Intensity and size of the fire,
  6. Location of the fire,
  7. Availibility and combustibility of the fuel,
  8. Size of the fire fighting force,
  9. Firefighting equipment on hand,
  10. Availibility of water
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138
Q

Recent weather will be a __, and present weather must be __.

A

Matter of record; observed

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139
Q

Other factors that cannot be evaluated until the company arrives at the fire ground are __

A

Wind direction and velocity

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140
Q

Where are flying brands and embers especially dangerous?

A

Lumber yards and other open storage areas

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141
Q

Who can be assigned to flying brand patrol?

A

Under a unified command system, the police department and other authorized radio equipped personnel, such as public works employees, or employees of local utilities.

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142
Q

The only way to protect exposures from radiant heat is to __

A

Cool them by the application of water

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143
Q

What should be done with a standpipe system of an exposure building?

A

It should be charged

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144
Q

Should you always charge a sprinkler system of an exposure building?

A

No, be ready to charge, if necessary

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145
Q

You should begin with what side when providing exposure protection?

A

The leeward or downwind side

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146
Q

What are the most vulnerable exposure areas when the exposure is fairly close to the fire building?

A

The parts of the exposed building just above the fire

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147
Q

Where should exposure protection hose streams be directed?

A

At a level somewhat above the fire

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148
Q

What provides a safer and more effective stream for most situations requiring exposure protection?

A

Master streams

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149
Q

What often make good positions for exposure lines? (5 things)

A
  1. Adjoining roofs,
  2. Secure and safe stacks of noncombustible stored materials,
  3. Buildings across alleys,
  4. Courts,
  5. Narrow Streets
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150
Q

The mobility of __ makes them desireable for interior exposure coverage.

A

Smaller hose lines, such as 1-3/4 inch lines, but severity may indicate need for a 2.5

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151
Q

When searching for fire and making openings, the openings need to be large enough for __ (3 things)

A

Inspection, hose line manipulation, and ventilation

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152
Q

Opening of concealed spaces and ventilation outlets is __

A

Ladder company work, but an engine company will have to do the job if a ladder is unavailable

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153
Q

Where are vertical channels normally placed in commercial buildings, stores, and shopping centers?

A

Toward the rear

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154
Q

In apartment buildings, each vertical shaft is usually placed so that it serves __.

A

Two, four, or more apartments

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155
Q

What is an advantage of a thermal imageing camera?

A

It can locate fire and heat in concealed spaces

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156
Q

Can a thermal imaging camera indicate the direction of fire spread?

A

YES

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157
Q

What size hoseline will be most useful controlling fire in a vertical shaft?

A

A 1-3/4 inch hose line from the roof down the shaft

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158
Q

In a large vertical opening, such as an elevator shaft or a stairway, it may be necessary to use __

A

2.5 inch attack lines

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159
Q

For the most part, there are few exterior signs of fire spread through horizontal channels, except when __

A

The flames reach and involve the exterior walls

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160
Q

Collapse may occur in little as __ minutes with bar joist roofs.

A

10 minutes

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161
Q

With basement fires, offensive fires should be conducted from __

A

The interior, unburned side of the building

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162
Q

__ is a key element in controlling a basement fire by permitting the products of combustion to escape while allowing fire fighters to gain entry into the basement.

A

Ventilation

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163
Q

Is a high fire or low fire better off for fire fighters and occupants in terms of fire spread?

A

A high fire

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164
Q

What are considered points of attack for basement fires?

A

Any and all openings

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165
Q

A basement fire requires full ventilation of __

A

The basement and the first floor

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166
Q

Which basement windows are preferably used for ventilation?

A

The ones opposite those being used for fire attack

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167
Q

In residential or commercial buildings that have basement doors to the outside, it is best to use these doors for __ and __ through basement windows. However interior stairs must be covered.

A

Fire attack; ventilation

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168
Q

Many of the vertical openings in buildings originate at __

A

the basement level

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169
Q

In a basement fire, vertical openings should be opened at __

A

Roof level

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170
Q

Master stream appliances should be __

A

As far away from the fire as possible while still being effective

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171
Q

Master streams are placed into operation when __ (3 things)

A
  1. Hand held lines are ineffective in fire attack
  2. For exposure protection
  3. For backup lines
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172
Q

To be effective, master stream appliances require water flows from __ to __.

A

350 to 2000 gpm

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173
Q

What are the three types of master streams?

A

Portable, Fixed, and elevated master stream

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174
Q

Portable master stream appliances are often referred to as __

A

Deck guns or monitors

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175
Q

A safety lock is provided so that the lock must be manually released before the nozzle can be lowered to below a __

A

35 degree angle

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176
Q

Some portable master stream appliances are made to take advantage of a __ to prevent movement.

A

Hose loop

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177
Q

Where a prepiped waterway is provided on an aerial ladder, the waterway system must be capable of flowing __ at __ at full elevation and extension.

A

1,000 gpm at 100 psi nozzle pressure

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178
Q

A permanently attached monitor must be provided with a __ nozzle.

A

1,000 GPM nozzle

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179
Q

What are the most common smooth bore tip sizes for master stream appliances? (4 things)

A

1-3/8, 1-1/2, 1-3/4, and 2 inches

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180
Q

How much will a 1-3/8 inch tip discharge at 80 psi?

A

500 gpm

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181
Q

How much will a 1-1/2 inch tip discharge at 80 psi?

A

600 gpm

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182
Q

How much will a 1-3/4 inch tip discharge at 80 psi?

A

800 gpm

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183
Q

How much will a 2 inch tip discharge at 80 psi?

A

1000 gpm

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184
Q

When operating a smooth bore master stream, if water supply is a problem, what should you do?

A

Use a smaller tip

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185
Q

Can a 1-1/4 inch tip be used as a master stream?

A

Yes, if water supply is a problem. It will produce 400 gpm at 80 psi.

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186
Q

What water delivery rates are spray nozzles on master streams capable of?

A

300 to 1250 gpm

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187
Q

What are general increments if a master stream spray nozzle has a selectable flow rate?

A

250, 350, 500, 750, and 1000

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188
Q

How many psi must be added due to the friction loss of the master stream device?

A

20-25 psi

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189
Q

Master stream scenario 1, 100 ft from pumper to appliance.

A

1-1/4 smooth bore nozzle (80 psi), 400 gpm stream, Single 2.5 inch water supply, 115 psi pump pressure

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190
Q

Master stream scenario 2, 100 ft from pumper to appliance.

A

Spray nozzle (100psi), 750 gpm stream, Two 2.5 inch water supply, 130 psi pump pressure

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191
Q

Master stream scenario 3, 100 ft from pumper to appliance.

A

2 inch smooth bore nozzle (80 psi), 1000 gpm flow, Single 4 inch supply line, 100 psi pump pressure

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192
Q

What is the smallest nozzle tip used on master stream appliances?

A

1-1/4 inch

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193
Q

It is suggested that a max length of __ of hose be used between the pumper and a master stream appliance when using smaller supply lines.

A

100 ft; It may need to be longer than this, but you should consider LDH

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194
Q

What is an initial recommended discharge pressure for master streams?

A

115 to 130 psi

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195
Q

A great deal of extra pressure will cause a solid stream to __

A

Break up as soon as it leaves the nozzle; A little bit of extra pressure will be no problem

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196
Q

In effect, too much pressure will turn a solid stream into a __

A

Poor fog stream

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197
Q

With a master stream, what factors determine which type of nozzle is used and how it should be operated?

A

Wind conditions and the distance to the fire or exposure.

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198
Q

What nozzle type is most effective when using a master stream for fire attack?

A

Smooth bore

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199
Q

What is one way to combat the wind effects on a master fire stream?

A

Move the appliance closer to the fire building if conditions allow

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200
Q

Solid stream nozzles will perform __ if they are positioned some distance from the building.

A

As well or better

201
Q

A solid stream may be used to attack a fire that is __ floors above the level of the appliance.

A

3-4 floors

202
Q

When operating master streams in poor visability, if possible to do so safely, and officer should __

A

Visually check the building from a safe location

203
Q

What are signs that the master stream is not entering the building in poor visability?

A

The sound of the water hitting the side of the building and heavy water runoff

204
Q

A master stream should only be used as long as __

A

Visible fire is in the area covered by the stream

205
Q

Accountability of members, as in any fire situation, __

A

Is a requirement that must be maintained throughout the incident

206
Q

What is the purpose of a standpipe system?

A

To provide a means of getting water to a fire without long, time consuming hose stretches

207
Q

The first laws, passed in major cities, required standpupes in all buildings more than __.

A

75 ft high

208
Q

NFPA 14

A

Standard for the installation of Standpipe and Hose systems

209
Q

NFPA 14 is referenced by which entities?

A

Local, state, and model building codes and insurance standards

210
Q

What are the 3 classes of standpipe systems?

A
  1. Fire department use (Class 1),
  2. First aid fire fighting (Class 2),
  3. Both (Class 3)
211
Q

What hose connections do Class 2 standpipe systems have?

A

1-1/2 inch

212
Q

Who are Class 2 standpipe systems intended for use?

A

Fire brigades or building occupants before the FD has arrived

213
Q

Which hose connections are provided with Class 3 standpipe systems?

A

Both 1-1/2 and 2-1/2 connections

214
Q

Based on the 1993 edition of NFPA 14, what are the 5 “types” of standpipe systems?

A
  1. Automatic Wet
  2. Automatic Dry
  3. Semiautomatic Dry
  4. Manual Dry
  5. Manual Wet
215
Q

Are semiautomatic dry systems normally filled with pressurized air?

A

Normally filled with air, but it may or may not be pressurized

216
Q

What type of valve does a semiautomatic dry system use?

A

Deluge valve

217
Q

Does a semiautomatic Dry system have a preconnected water supply?

A

YES

218
Q

Is the water supply normally connected to a manual wet system enough for fire suppression?

A

NO, the water is only to detect leaks. An FDC must be used for fire suppression

219
Q

A semiautomatic dry system requires a activation at a remote actuation device located at a __

A

Hose station or valve

220
Q

An exterior standpipe system usually runs along a __

A

Fire escape

221
Q

Where might dry systems be found?

A
  1. Unheated buildings
  2. Where cities do not require wet systems
  3. Buildings built before retroactive standpipe laws were passed
222
Q

Dry systems may be preferred in some heated occupancies to __

A

Prevent expensive water damage due to tampering by tenants

223
Q

What is a problem when multiple dry systems are interconnected where they can be fed off one intake?

A

The time lag for air to escape the system

224
Q

NFPA 14 requires that a water supply for class 1 and 3 systems be able to deliver a residual pressure of __ at the outlet of the top most hose connection on each standpipe.

A

100 psi; This must be accomplished while flowing 250 gpm from each of the two topmost hose connection of the most remote standpipe, plus 250 gpm from each additional standpipe.

225
Q

What is the flow requirement for Class 2 systems per NFPA 14?

A

100 gpm for 30 minutes with a residual pressure of 65 psi

226
Q

For high rise buildings, __ remotely located FDCs are required for each zone within the pumping range of fire apparatus in addition to the automatic water supply

A

Two

227
Q

Why are two FDCs required for high rise buildings?

A

To reduce the possibility of all supply hose being cut by falling glass.

228
Q

When available, a __ is almost always used as the primary source of water.

A

Public waterworks system

229
Q

What is the most common arrangement for medium and high rise apartment and office buildings?

A

A wet system supplied by a public waterworks

230
Q

In what occupancies might additional water sources be required above a public waterworks?

A

Industrial and warehouses

231
Q

Gravity tanks may hold as much as __

A

100,000 gallons of water

232
Q

Where are pressure tanks for standpipe systems usually found?

A

With smaller systems where they supply house lines with water for initial fire attack by the occupants.

233
Q

Pressure tanks rarely exceed __ and can be found anywhere in the system.

A

3,000 gallons

234
Q

How much of a pressure tank is air under pressure?

A

The top third

235
Q

With multiple standpipe systems, when the risers are interconnected, the system must have __ intakes.

A

Two or more

236
Q

What type of valve is usually found on the water source for fire protection systems in industrial and warehouse properties?

A

Postindicator valves

237
Q

What type of valve is usually found on the water source for fire protection systems in apartment buildings, office buildings, and stores?

A

Gate valves or OS&Y valves

238
Q

What are the two common types of PIVs?

A

Butterfly and window type

239
Q

Does a class 2 standpipe system require an FDC?

A

NO

240
Q

Are there valves between a siamese and riser outlet?

A

NO

241
Q

Most FDCs are provided with one 2.5 inch inlet for every __ gpm of design flow rate for the system.

A

250 gpm

242
Q

Signs should be provided to indicate whether an FDC connection serves a __ (3 things)

A

Standpipe, sprinkler, or both

243
Q

When hooking up to a siamese FDC, which line should you hook up first?

A

The left side

244
Q

What is the minimum size of a standpipe?

A

4 inches

245
Q

What can you do if the fire is severe and more flow is needed to an FDC?

A

Hook the engine siamese connections to the FDC siamese.

246
Q

The best arrangement for supplying a standpipe system is to have a pumper positioned within __ of the standpipe siamese.

A

100 feet

247
Q

What do you need to consider with a wet system and a damaged siamese FDC?

A

Connect to the first floor outlet, but charge the hose before opening the valve so that water flows the right direction.

248
Q

When should FD personnel use house lines?

A

Never

249
Q

When carrying tools to make a standpipe connection, what should be considered?

A

Tools should be lightweight, and only those abolutely necessary brought during intial attack

250
Q

Considering standpipe connections, the first hose line into the building should be at least __ feet long.

A

150 feet

251
Q

Describe a “break apart” nozzle for highrise attack.

A

A low pressure (75 psi) spray nozzle rated at 150 gpm coupled witha 15/16 solid bore (50 psi) rated at 180 gpm

252
Q

What has proved most effective for master stream operations inside a building with a large open area?

A

Single or two-inlet deluge set with a solid bore tip

253
Q

Where should an equipment pool (also called interior staging or resource area) be set up?

A

Usually 2 or more floors below the fire floor

254
Q

When working in buildings with standpipe systems (large buildings), all assignments should be given to teams of at least __

A

Two firefighters

255
Q

Must fire fighters have hose lines to check the floor above a fire?

A

If possible yes, but without them if necessary

256
Q

All floors, especially those immediately above the fire, are __

A

Considered exposures

257
Q

Lapping fire from window to window if of particular concern with what type of construction?

A

Fire resistant buildings

258
Q

In high rise fire situations, the elvators and stairways are managed by __

A

Lobby control

259
Q

Elevators should not be used for fires on __

A

Lower floors of a building

260
Q

An elevator should never be taken to __

A

The fire floor or any floor above the fire

261
Q

SOGs should state that fire fighters using an elevator must stop __

A

Two floors or more below the fire and then use the stairway to the fire floor

262
Q

When it is difficult to judge which floor the fire is on, fire fighters may be ordered to stop __

A

2-4 floors below the fire

263
Q

If a house line is installed, what items may need to be removed before the FD can hook to the standpipe? (3 things)

A

House line, reducer fitting, and pressure-reducing device

264
Q

Which floor is preferred to make the standpipe connection for attack lines?

A

The floor below the fire

265
Q

Excess hose should be __

A

Pulled up the stairway toward the next floor BEFORE it is charged

266
Q

When can initial hook up to a standpipe be on the fire floor?

A

When the fire is confirmed some distance away from their point of entry and off the corridor

267
Q

Sometimes, if conditions are favorable, as is often the case in fire-resistant construction, the best thing is to convince occupants to __

A

Stay in their offices or apartments

268
Q

What do some fire officials call the situation where fire has gained control of a corridor and/or wind is fanning the fire?

A

Blowtorch effect

269
Q

Which devices can be used to for fire attack from an adjoining building?

A

2.5 inch handlines and master stream devices

270
Q

The use of the gravity tank off an uninvolved building is a __ for water supply.

A

Last resort

271
Q

As long as enough pressure is available, each sprinkler head will distribute water over an area of __ square ft or more

A

100 square feet or more

272
Q

What are the 4 basic types of sprinkler systems?

A
  1. Wet-pipe
  2. Dry-pipe
  3. Preaction
  4. Deluge
273
Q

What is the simplest and one of the least expensive types of sprinkler systems? Also the most common.

A

Wet-pipe

274
Q

Where are the air exhausters located with a preaction system?

A

At the dry-pipe valve

275
Q

Preaction systems can be used __

A

Wherever dry pipe systems are used

276
Q

Deluge systems are usually installed in high hazard locations such as __ (4 things)

A

Aircraft hangers, chemical plants, laboratories, and transformers

277
Q

NFPA 13E

A

Recommended practice for fire department operations in properties protected by sprinkler and standpipe systems

278
Q

During an actual fire incident, a fire fighter must be assigned to __

A

The main valve and fire pump to ensure a continued operation of the system

279
Q

Should the pump operator wait for orders to start pumping to an FDC?

A

Yes

280
Q

What is a recommended pressure to pump to an FDC?

A

150 psi, but pre fire planning and guidlines may modify this figure

281
Q

If hoselines are being used in the operation, they should be supplied by __

A

A different water system than the one supplying the sprinklers

282
Q

Pumping into an exposure sprinkler FDC should begin when __.

A

Its sprinkler system is activated

283
Q

What is a common mistake made when automatic sprinklers are in operation?

A

Shutting down the system prematurely

284
Q

If at all possible, property conservation should be started during __

A

Extinguishment

285
Q

If possible, the sprinkler system should be __ before the fire fighters leave the building.

A

Restored to service

286
Q

The __ should take the proper steps to ensure a sprinkler system is operational as soon as possible.

A

Building’s owner

287
Q

Overhaul looks for __ (3 things)

A

Fire, sparks, or embers

288
Q

__ should preinspect the building before fire fighters begin the task of overhaul.

A

Competent personnel

289
Q

Can fire fighters dress down when performing overhaul?

A

No, they should be in full PPE and SCBA

290
Q

What should be monitored in addition to CO during overhaul?

A

Asbestos

291
Q

What is the main purpose of overhaul?

A

To make certain that no trace of fire remains to rekindle after the fire force has left.

292
Q

What is the second purpose of overhaul?

A

To leave the structure in as safe a condition as possible.

293
Q

Is cleaning up a necessary part of overhaul?

A

No, just good PR

294
Q

If conditions warrant, and if it is safe to do so, __ could perform cleanup with the IC’s permission.

A

A building’s maintenance force

295
Q

Is the injury rate during overhaul high or low?

A

High even though it should be performed in an unhurried atmosphere

296
Q

__ is useful in identifying and blocking off areas that are unsafe.

A

Barrier tape

297
Q

CO levels have been shown to be __ during overhaul than during actual firefighting activities.

A

Higher

298
Q

During overhaul, fire fighters should check the area for __

A

Possible clues to the ignition of the fire

299
Q

A fire of __ can greatly alter overhaul operations or delay them until investigators can examine the fire scene.

A

Incendiary origin

300
Q

Fire fighters should be sent to a rehabilitatioin sector to __ (4 things)

A

Rest, treat injuries, replace fluids, and have basic vital signs checked

301
Q

Who might be assigned to overhaul?

A

Firefighters who were assigned to staging, manned unused backup lines, or were on exposure assignments

302
Q

With overhaul, fire fighters should be formed into groups that should be assigned to a __ and to a certain area of the building.

A

Sector officer

303
Q

Ordinarily, __ are assigned tasks involving hand and power tool operation during overhaul.

A

Ladder companies

304
Q

Who is usually sent to the floors above and below the fire to check for fire extension?

A

Ladder company crews

305
Q

Where does overhaul begin?

A

Close to the area where firefighting operations ended

306
Q

__ will be useful when checking concealed spaces.

A

Portable lighting

307
Q

An area where __ are found probably has not seen the effects of heat and smoke.

A

Cobwebs

308
Q

What type of insulation is hard to work with?

A

Blown in insulation

309
Q

Where is it especially important to make a full examination of the area under a floor?

A

Along walls and partitions where shafts or other vertical spaces pass through the floor

310
Q

What are preferred for cutting operations during overhaul?

A

Power tools

311
Q

With vertical shafts, firefighters ordinarily should be assigned to check __

A

The bottom and the top of the shaft for fire and sparks

312
Q

Kitchen cabinets are usually constructed with a __ enclosed space between the floor and the bottom shelf.

A

3-5 inch

313
Q

How is wainscoting handled?

A

Removed until a clean area is found and the area is wet down, as necessary

314
Q

In some instances, water removal must be __

A

Completed first to reduce the weight on the floors so that they are safe to walk on.

315
Q

Flying embers are considered

A

convection

316
Q

What type of heat drives firefighters back from normal approach distances?

A

Radiant heat

317
Q

The “flash” of an entire area is more likely to happen in a

A

Open area

318
Q

Carbon monoxide is

A

colorless, odorless, and poisonous

319
Q

How many divisions does a divided hose bed have?

A

Two

320
Q

Why is there a strong tendency to use smaller hose lines for initial attack?

A

Lack of proper staffing

321
Q

If discharge outlets are not available for a 2.5 inch preconnect hose line, a separate hose compartment can be set up to hold

A

150 to 250 feet of 2.5 inch hose

322
Q

How are solid stream nozzles classified?

A

According to the nozzle diameter

323
Q

Which smoothbore nozzles are considered for handlines?

A

1 and one eighth or 1 and one quarter

324
Q

What produces the so called standard fire department stream?

A

2.5 inch hose with a one and one eighth inch nozzle at 50 psi and it flows 250 gpm

325
Q

Which is perhaps the most desireable hose lay?

A

Forward using a charged line

326
Q

Which water supply technique is effective when drafting is necessary?

A

Direct to the fire approach

327
Q

Who ensures that the apparatus is in a safe place and if possible that other apparatus will have access?

A

Company officer

328
Q

What are coverage assignments usually based on?

A

Proximity of companies to the fireground

329
Q

Positioning for narrow detached building or single family detached dwelling?

A

Drive past the building to get a view of 3 sides

330
Q

Buildings can present problems because of

A

Size, construction, location, or use

331
Q

What is vital in mercantile areas?

A

Rear coverage

332
Q

When positioning at high rises

A

consider width and length of the building along with locations of standpipes rather than height

333
Q

Proper placement of hoselines and rapid ventilation may be considered

A

rescue operations

334
Q

Preperation for rescue begins

A

before the alarm is received

335
Q

What factors are important in asceraining what rescue operations are needed?

A

Occupancy, size, population, age, and extent of the fire

336
Q

What will determine where firefighters begin search and rescue and fire attack operations

A

Initial size up

337
Q

What is the average size water tank?

A

500 gallons

338
Q

When searching upper floors, doors and windows of rooms other than the fire room should be

A

Opened to provide ventilation, providing that this will not spread the fire

339
Q

It is the job of the engine company to

A

Contain and extinguish the fire and open passageways

340
Q

Even with hospitals, if there is doubt that the fire will be controlled there should be

A

Complete evacuation

341
Q

Being able to perform proper ventilation will depend on

A

The number of firefighters available

342
Q

When an attempt to reach the floor over the fire is untenable

A

Ventilation from the outside is mandatory

343
Q

Rooms that the fire has entered should

A

also be searched if possible, then the door should be shut to isolate the fire

344
Q

How many attack lines are charged and flowing to read the residual pressure?

A

One

345
Q

What is a must when drafting is the only way to ensure a water supply?

A

Preincident planning

346
Q

What does the number of mobile water supply apparatus depend on?

A

Distance, fire size, fill and dump times, traffic and road conditions

347
Q

Operation of the pumper is limited by

A

Engine speed and residual pressure

348
Q

An attack line is designed to

A

combat fires beyond the incipient stage

349
Q

The second method of relay pumping works better for houses that are

A

Set back from the street

350
Q

An indirect attack uses what types of streams?

A

Solid, straight, or narrow fog

351
Q

Is an 1.5 inch nozzle usually equipped with a spray or solid nozzle?

A

spray

352
Q

Using a wider fog pattern will (4 things)

A

Give firefighters more protection, decrease reach, diminish firefighting effectiveness, and push fire through a building

353
Q

Do this after the main body of the fire is knocked down

A

Let the fire “blow”

354
Q

How much more water and a inch and three quarter hose flow over an inch and a half

A

Double

355
Q

In a smoldering building does smoke rise rapidly or slowly?

A

rapidly because the smoke is hot

356
Q

Rit crews are in addition to

A

backup lines

357
Q

What is the worst combination of factors for exposure protection?

A

Recent dry weather and high winds

358
Q

Exposure lines must be placed where they will cover

A

the max amount of exposed area

359
Q

What hose is desireable for interior exposure coverage?

A

Inch and three quarter

360
Q

How high should you make an opening to control vertical spread of fire?

A

About waist high

361
Q

Where are basement fires usually vented?

A

The burned side (proper direction)

362
Q

What should be kept outside of the collapse zone?

A

Personnel and equipment

363
Q

Master streams can be used for

A

fire attack, exposure protection, and backup lines

364
Q

In a window, a master stream should be moved

A

horizontally and vertically

365
Q

Automatic dry standpipes are pressurized with air

A

Semiautomatic dry pipe may or may not be pressurized with air

366
Q

Is the water supply of a semiauto dry pipe enough to handle water demand for fire fighting?

A

Yes

367
Q

Where are gravity tanks mounted when supplying one and two story buildings

A

on the ground

368
Q

How many supply lines should be connected to intake FDCs?

A

At least 2

369
Q

Items in an equipment pool

A

Lights, hoses, nozzles, forcible entry tools, fans, pike poles, and SCBA cylinders

370
Q

What normally keeps a deluge valve closed?

A

Compressed air

371
Q

Manual operations of special fire protection systems are normally assigned to

A

building personnel

372
Q

What three things to reduce injury during overhaul?

A

Preinspection, fresh crews, accountibility

373
Q

What is the primary purpose of overhaul?

A

To make sure the fire is extinguished completely

374
Q

Which NFPA requires driver/operators to have certain preventative maintenance skills?

A

NFPA 1002

375
Q

Define Maintenance.

A

Keeping the apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness.

376
Q

Define Repair.

A

To restore or replace that which has become inoperable.

377
Q

What does preventative maintenance ensure? (3 things)

A
  1. Apparatus reliability
  2. Reduces the frequency and cost of repairs
  3. Lessens out of service time
378
Q

What is the goal of preventative maintenance?

A

is to eliminate unexpected and catastrophic failures that may endanger firefighters and the general public

379
Q

Some FDs may have a designated apparatus maintenance officer that meets the requirements of…

A

Emergency vehicle technician according to NFPA 1071, Standard for emergency vehicle technician professional qualifications

380
Q

NFPA 1071

A

Standard for Emergency Vehicle Technician professional qualifications.

381
Q

When performing more complex maintenance procedures, departments should have…

A

Separate mechanics

382
Q

Driver operators should be able to perform ______ maintenance functions.

A

Basic

383
Q

In almost all cases, repair functions are carried out by _______.

A

Qualified mechanics

384
Q

Every fire department should have SOPs for a….

A

Systematic apparatus maintenance program that complies with applicable NFPA standards

385
Q

SOPs for apparatus maintenance should identify… (4 things)

A
  1. Who performs certain maintenance functions
  2. When they are to be performed
  3. How problems that are detected are corrected or reported
  4. How the process is documented
386
Q

Maintenance SOPs should clearly dictate…

A

Items that driver/operator are responsible for and which conditions they are allowed to correct on their own

387
Q

Smaller fire departments may do what to assist with repairs?

A

Contract with local automotive/truck repair business

388
Q

Typically, career fire departments require driver/operators to perform apparatus inspection and maintenance checks at

A

The beginning of each tour of duty

389
Q

More detailed work may be completed on a _____ or ______ basis.

A

Weekly or monthly

390
Q

Volunteer fire departments should establish a procedure by which all apparatus are inspected and maintained on at least a ______ or ______ schedule.

A

Weekly or biweekly

391
Q

List 3 functions that maintenance records serve.

A
  1. Warranty claims
  2. Accident investigations
  3. Data on whether to continue repairs or buy new equipment
392
Q

Keeping the apparatus body clean also helps promote a…

A

Longer vehicle life (particularly true where road salts are used)

393
Q

List the more vulnerable areas of an apparatus to collect dirt and grime. (4 things)

A
  1. Engine
  2. Wiring
  3. Carburetor or fuel injectors
  4. Controls
394
Q

T/F Overcleaning can have negative effects

A

True, it can remove lubrication from chassis, engine, pump, or other components

395
Q

What is the most commonly performed maintenance function?

A

Washing

396
Q

During the first ____ months after an apparatus is received, it should be washed _____ with cold water to harden the paint and keep it from spotting.

A

Six months, frequently

397
Q

Recommend washing instructions for new paint - hose stream

A

Use a garden hose without a nozzle. The water pressure should be set so that a stream from the hose is no longer than 1 foot.

398
Q

After new paint has cured - hose stream

A

A garden hose with a nozzle or a pressure washer may be used to speed the cleaning of the apparatus.

399
Q

In general, what should be used to clean automotive glass?

A

Warm soapy water or commercial glass cleaners with paper towels or cloth rags

400
Q

What should not be used to remove deposits from glass? (4 things)

A

Putty knives, razor blades, steel wool, or metal objects

401
Q

Warning list of cleaners not to be used to clean interior surfaces

A
  1. Cleaning solvents like acetone, lacquer thinner, enamel reducer, and nail polish
  2. Corrosives or caustics like laundry soap or bleach
  3. Hazardous substances like gas, naphtha, or carbon tetrachloride
402
Q

On many newer apparatus the application of wax is…

A

No longer necessary and may damage clear coats

403
Q

Generally, wax should not be applied until paint is how old?

A

Six months

404
Q

Describe the circle or walk-around method for checking a truck. What is the final step?

A

Start at the driver’s door and work around the apparatus in a clockwise pattern. The final step is starting the apparatus and performing a functional check on apparatus systems.

405
Q

What are the requirements of an apparatus inspection procedure based on? (2 things)

A

NFPA 1002 and government pretrip inspection requirements for obtaining a CDL

406
Q

What is the first portion of the vehicle that should be specifically checked?

A

The left side of the front or cab of the vehicle

407
Q

T/F Seals that retain axle gear oil may show slight seepage and still be serviceable.

A

True. Trails of fluid on the wheel or tire are unacceptable.

408
Q

For proper tire inflation, the manufacturer’s recommendation is based on what weight?

A

The total weight of the finished apparatus including the tools and equipment

409
Q

What is the first thing to be checked when inspecting the front of the vehicle?

A

Any new significant body damage

410
Q

When inspecting the front of the cab, is it allowable to skip the light inspection until the operational checks are performed?

A

Yes. This is a personal preference.

411
Q

Describe the inspection of retread tires.

A

You should inspect for tread separation and if found the tire should be replaced

412
Q

When checking hose loads in the main hose bed, what should you look for? (2 things)

A
  1. The right amount of hose

2. The hose is loaded and finished correctly.

413
Q

What should the driver do prior to starting the apparatus?

A

Make sure the seat and mirrors are adjusted correctly

414
Q

Why should all the electrical switches be off when starting the apparatus?

A

To avoid excessive load on the battery

415
Q

If the speedometer shows something other than zero or very near zero when parked, what situations may be occurring? (2 things)

A
  1. The gauge is defective

2. The truck is in pump gear

416
Q

Appropriate hearing protection should be worn if personnel will be exposed to noise levels in excess of _____ decibels.

A

90 decibels

417
Q

How does a load sequencer function?

A

It turns on various lights at specified intervals so that the start up electrical load does not occur at the same time.

418
Q

Steering wheel play limitations.

A

10 degrees in either direction. On a 20-inch wheel this is 2- inches.

419
Q

NFPA that covers brake testing.

A

NFPA 1901

420
Q

NFPA 1901 brake test requirements.

A
  1. Complete stop in 35 ft at 20 mph on a dry pavement
  2. Parking brake should hold on a 20 degree incline.
  3. Air pressure should build within 60 seconds
421
Q

System air pressure where the air horn no longer works.

A

Under 80 psi

422
Q

Method for testing road brakes or parking brake

A

Firmly press brake pedal and apparatus should stop in 20 ft at 5 mph

423
Q

Which fluid is should be checked while the engine is running?

A

Automatic transmission fluid; power steering fluid maybe

424
Q

When is it recommended to add windshield washer fluid to an apparatus?

A

Anytime it is less than half full

425
Q

Most modern vehicle batteries are which type?

A

Sealed and require no internal inspection

426
Q

Battery connections may be cleaned with what solution?

A

Baking soda with water, then wire brush and rinsed with clean water

427
Q

Some power steering systems require the fluid level to be checked while….

A

the engine is running at normal operating temperature.

428
Q

What does the SAE number indicate for lubricants?

A

The viscosity

429
Q

What gas do batteries produce when being charged?

A

Explosive hydrogen gas

430
Q

According to NFPA statistics, what percentage of firefighter injuries and deaths are caused by vehicle collisions while responding to or returning from emergency calls.

A

20-25 percent. NIOSH is 25 firefighter deaths per year. About an equal number of civilians are killed as well.

431
Q

Collisions at ______ are by far the most frequent and severe.

A

Intersections

432
Q

In what type of conditions do collisions most commonly occur?

A

Dry, clear, days

433
Q

Five basic causes of fire apparatus collisions.

A
  1. Improper backing
  2. Reckless driving by the public
  3. Excessive speed by the fire apparatus
  4. Lack of driving skill and experience by the apparatus operator
  5. Poor apparatus design or maintenance
434
Q

Will a vehicle with air brakes or hydraulic brakes take longer to stop?

A

Air brakes. There is a slight lag before air brakes activate

435
Q

What percent of drivers were not aware of a problem until it was too late according to SAE?

A

42 percent

436
Q

Poor vehicle maintenance may result in vehicle system failures or collisions. This is particularly true for which vehicle system?

A

Braking system

437
Q

Driver/Operators are regulated by which entities? (5 things)

A
  1. Federal laws
  2. State or provincial laws
  3. City ordinances
  4. NFPA standards
  5. Departmental policies
438
Q

When should the driver start the vehicle when responding to a call?

A

As soon as possible to let it warm up

439
Q

When can the battery switch be operated while the vehicle is running?

A

Never

440
Q

How do you determine if you should use one or two batteries when turning on a vehicle?

A

Follow manufacturer’s instructions and departmental SOPs

441
Q

When are dual starter switches used?

A

Vehicles with two batteries

442
Q

Time for starter control intervals

A

Operate starter for no longer than 30 seconds with 60 seconds between intervals

443
Q

Sequence to start apparatus

A
  1. Disconnect shore lines
  2. Turn on battery or batteries
  3. Start the engine
  4. Observe the gauges
  5. Adjust the seat, mirrors, and steering wheel
444
Q

Amount of time for oil pressure gauge to indicate a reasonable amount.

A

5 to 10 seconds after starting

445
Q

Order for adjusting seat, mirror, and steering wheel

A

Generally best to adjust the seat first followed by the mirrors and wheel

446
Q

How long to keep the engine in the low gear.

A

Until the apparatus is clear of the station and the driver/operator has an unobstructed view of the street and traffic conditions.

447
Q

When to shift in a sharp curves or turning corners with manual transmission.

A

Before the curve or intersection

448
Q

When to select a lower gear when going downhill.

A

Before starting downhill

449
Q

Can the engine governor control downhill speed.

A

No. The wheels will turn the driveshaft and the engine. The engine could be damaged if you go downhill too fast.

450
Q

Engine speed faster than the rated RPM can have what negative impacts. (4 things)

A
  1. valves hitting pistons
  2. increased oil consumption
  3. damage requiring overhaul
  4. injector plug seizures
451
Q

Gear 5

A

Normal load, grade, and traffic conditions with open road ahead

452
Q

Gear 4

A

Moderate grades and over-the-road operation with moderate speeds

453
Q

Gear 3

A

Operating in heavy traffic

454
Q

Gear 2

A

Need for speed control requiring a hold condition such as descending a steep grade or operation on rough terrain

455
Q

Gear 1

A

Starting gear for initial movement forward

456
Q

With an automatic transmission, does the amount of pressure on the gas pedal affect shifting?

A

Yes. A fully depressed pedal will upshift near the governed speed of the engine while a partially depressed pedal will upshift at a more appropriate lower engine speed.

457
Q

How do you maintain engine rpm control?

A

Using correct throttling

458
Q

Lugging

A

The result of overthrottling while the transmission is in too high a gear for a given set of conditions. (Trying to accelerate up a steep grade)

459
Q

How to prevent lugging.

A

Downshift

460
Q

Gear choice to prolong engine life.

A

Choose a gear that allows the engine to operate at 200 or 300 rpm lower than maximum recommended rpm.

461
Q

Things to consider when braking. (4 things)

A
  1. Weight of the vehicle
  2. Condition of the brakes
  3. Condition of the tires
  4. Condition of the road
462
Q

When to disengage the clutch while braking.

A

Last few feet of travel

463
Q

How much fuel is used while idling.

A

Half gallon of fuel per hour

464
Q

What rpm should be set while idling?

A

900-1100 rpm

465
Q

What is the recommended idle period before shutting down an engine?

A

3-5 minutes so the engine can cool

466
Q

NFPA 1901

A

Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus

467
Q

NFPA 1500

A

Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program

468
Q

3 exceptions for not wearing a seatbelt

A
  1. Patient care in the back of an ambulance
  2. When loading hose
  3. Training for new tiller drivers
469
Q

When loading hose while moving… (5 things)

A
  1. A safety officer must be assigned other than the D/O or a hose loader
  2. Road should be closed
  3. The apparatus should be driven forward at no more than 5 mph
  4. No members are allowed to stand on any portion of the apparatus while in motion
  5. Members in the hosebed must sit or kneel while the vehicle is in motion
470
Q

Department SOPs should require that, when backing,…

A

There be at least one firefighter - and preferably two - behind the apparatus to act as spotters

471
Q

Spotter position when backing.

A

The spotter should be on the drivers side about 1 vehicle length behind with a portable radio

472
Q

What should the driver do if there is not a backup alarm.

A

Sound to horn twice per SOPs

473
Q

When can fire apparatus proceed through a red traffic signal or stop sign?

A

After coming to a complete stop and ensuring that all lanes of traffic are accounted for and yielding

474
Q

When is driving in the oncoming lane not recommended?

A

In situations where oncoming traffic cannot see the apparatus for any reason

475
Q

Anticipation control factors… ( 5 things)

A
  1. Aim high in steering
  2. Get the big picture
  3. Keep your eyes moving
  4. Leave yourself an out
  5. Make sure others can see and hear you
476
Q

What two things does visual lead time interact directly with?

A

Reaction time for evasice manuver and stopping distance

477
Q

How many seconds do some departments recommend looking ahead?

A

12 seconds on city streets and 20 seconds on highway

478
Q

Define reaction distance

A

The distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake after perceiving the need for stopping.

479
Q

Define total stopping distance

A

The reaction distance plus the vehicle braking distance

480
Q

What things affect a driver’s reaction distance? (5 things)

A
  1. Age
  2. Aptitude
  3. Emotions
  4. Fatigue
  5. Intoxicating substances ingested
481
Q

Other factors that influence the driver’s ability to stop the apparatus. (4 things)

A
  1. Condition and slope of the driving surface
  2. Speed
  3. Weight of the vehicle
  4. Type and condition of the vehicle braking system
482
Q

Optimal stopping surface

A

flat, dry, paved road

483
Q

Average driver reaction distance compared to speed.

A

Reaction distance in feet will be a slight bit higher than speed in mph

484
Q

Total stopping distance for 4 sized vehicles at 50 mph

A

Auto - 186 ft
Light truck - 280 ft
Heavy truck - 310 ft
Three axle truck - 375 ft

485
Q

Whenever a vehicle undergoes a change in speed or direction, weight transfer takes place relative to the….

A

rate and degree of change.

486
Q

The most common causes of skids involve driver error: (5 things)

A
  1. Driving too fast for road conditions
  2. Failing to properly appreciate weight shifts of heavy apparatus
  3. Failing to anticipate objects (vehicles or animals)
  4. Improper use of auxiliary brake
  5. Improper maintenance of tire air pressure and adequate tread depth
487
Q

How does the ABS system work?

A

Digital technology in an onboard computer monitors each wheel and controls pressure to the brakes

488
Q

How fast is the ABS computer?

A

The computer makes decisions more than 20 times per second until the vehicle is brought to a halt

489
Q

What is the momentary delay for air brakes?

A

0.4 seconds

490
Q

How does a front-limiting valve type auxiliary braking system work?

A

“dry road/slippery road” switch reduces the air pressure on the front steering axle by 50 percent when the switch is in the slippery road setting

491
Q

How much was braking capacity reduced in the slippery road setting?

A

25%

492
Q

When were fewer trucks built with the “slippery road” switch.

A

After the adoption of the Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard 121 of 1975 by the US govt

493
Q

Where are electromagnetic brake systems connected?

A

To the drive shaft or the rear axle of the vehicle

494
Q

Under what speed will electromagnetic brake systems not activate?

A

2 mph

495
Q

Is there a switch for automatic traction control (ATC)?

A

No, there is no switch. A green engine light will engage on the dash

496
Q

How does ATC work on slippery roads?

A

reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction and begin to spin, this transfers torque to the wheels that still have traction

497
Q

What does the ATC light do when the snow-and-mud switch is activated?

A

Flashes continuously

498
Q

What do you activate if you want the “rock” an apparatus out of a particular spot?

A

Snow-and-mud switch

499
Q

Which lane should apparatus be driven while on city streets?

A

fast lane

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