B's Flashcards 1001-1500
1
Q
More firefighters are injured in __ more than any other type of occupancy.
A
single family dwellings
2
Q
Even before the __ the officer should have begun a careful sizeup of the fire scene.
A
Pumper has stopped
3
Q
Bystanders can give __
A
Unreliable information
4
Q
Unofficial reports that “everyone has escaped” should not __
A
Delay or halt the primary search, especially in multifamily residences
5
Q
Immediate rescue, without a coordinated fire attack, should __
A
Be attempted only in extreme cases (window jumpers)
6
Q
Many times victims that you see __
A
May not be the ones in dire distress
7
Q
Firefighters must be aware of the two-in/two-out rule as directed by __ and __
A
OSHA and NFPA 1500
8
Q
RIT must be provided from the __ to __
A
Initial stages of an incident to its conclusion
9
Q
If possible, the RIT should be a crew of __ fire fighters, one of whom MUST be an officer.
A
Four
10
Q
During large operations, the RIT will normally be assigned near the __
A
Command post
11
Q
RIT should access the preplan off of __ and __
A
The first engine and bring it to the command post
12
Q
The primary function of the engine company in a rescue situations is to __ (3 things)
A
- Support the primary search
- Contain the fire
- Keep the fire from jeopardizing anyone within the fire building
13
Q
When is the usual time that the first hose lines are being stretched and positioned?
A
During primary search
14
Q
The search for victims is normally the function of __
A
Ladder or rescue companies
15
Q
If the fire is smoldering, the building must be ventliated properly __ the building is entered.
A
Before
16
Q
When the fire is free burning, ventilation should begin __ as the initial attack.
A
At the same time
17
Q
In any type of structure, the main thrust of operations is determined by __.
A
The location and severity of the fire and the locationof the occupants most endangered by it.
18
Q
Can you perform a primary search without an attack line when searching upper floors?
A
Yes, if no line is available. Either way, no time should be lost getting fire fighters to the upper floors above a fire.
19
Q
Which occupants are in most danger in a typical two-story single family dwelling with two or three rooms on fire on the first floor?
A
Those close to the fire on the first floor and those directly over the fire on the second floor
20
Q
In a large, occupied residential building, what indicates the greatest danger area for occupants?
A
The location of the fire and the direction of the most smoke
21
Q
How should schools be evacuated?
A
Completely
22
Q
What does the necessity to evacuate a hospital or nursing home depend on?
A
Type of construction, the size of the building, and the location and severity of the fire.
23
Q
The SOG for search should require that the search begin __
A
Where there is the most danger to occupants
24
Q
Following SOGs, the first are to be searched is __
A
Directly over the fire
25
Everyone engaged in search should carry a __
Fire ax, halligan tool, or claw tool
26
The windows of rooms that are not involved with fire and hallway windows should be __ in order to vent as much of the upper story as possible.
Opened or removed
27
What is an effective way to show that a room has already been searched?
Place a piece of light furniture in the doorway
28
How should the light piece of furniture used to show a room has been searched be placed?
On its side, with the legs pointing out of the room
29
When establishing water supply, __ as well as __ should be followed.
SOGs as well as safe work practices
30
Where the initial action is laying supply lines, this operation should involve __.
As few firefighters as possible, so others can be free for fire attack and rescue
31
What three factors influence the movement of water at fires?
1. Water source
2. Pumper
3. Hose
32
What are the four possible sources of water at a fire ground?
1. Water main systems,
2. Static water sources,
3. Apparatus water tanks,
4. Mobile water supply apparatus
33
In regards to flow testing of hydrants, the fire department should __
Either run its own tests or be a part of the process if testing is done by another agency
34
Factors that affect the flow rate of a water main system are __
The sizes of mains, the capabilities and locations of elevated reservoirs, and the capacities of pumps if used in the system
35
Can static pressure and residual pressure both be read on the compound gauge?
YES, static with no water flowing and residual with water flowing
36
Percentage rule for adding lines according to engine company ops book.
Drop of 5% can add 3 times the flow
Drop of 10% can add 2 times the flow
Drop of 20% can add 1 times the flow
37
What are the two types of mobile water supply apparatus?
Tankers and tenders
38
Mobile water supply apparatus generally carry __ to __ gallons.
1,000 to 3,500 gallons; PDO book says 1500 to 3000.
39
Vehicles carrying 1,000 gallons of water or more with a fire pump are generally referred to as __
Tankers
40
Can Pumper-tankers be used to shuttle water from a water source to the fire ground?
It should not; It should be used for fire attack or relay pumping.
41
Vehicles carrying 1,000 gallons of water or more without a fire pump or using a small PTO pump are called __
Tenders
42
During shuttle operations, what determines the number of attack lines that can be placed in service?
The supply of water that can be maintained by the mobile water supply apparatus
43
__ is the key to establishing standard operating guidelines affecting water supply requirements.
Preincident planning
44
A pumper has a mounted fire pump that is at least __
750 gpm
45
__ percent of rated capacity at 200 psi
70
46
__ percent of rated capacity at 250 psi
50
47
Intakes must have __ if the apparatus is to be used in the US
Male NH threads; maybe a female swivel coupling with NH threads...the book is contradictory
48
The usual practice is to install one 2.5 inch discharge for each __ of rated capacity.
250 gpm
49
__ should be provided on pumpers to complement their rated capacity.
Adequate discharge outlets
50
The pump must not be operated above __ percent of its rated peak speed for any length of time.
80 percent
51
The limit of a pump may be imposed either by __ or __.
Pump speed or true pump capacity
52
The residual pressure should not be allowed to drop below __, except under extreme conditions.
10 psi
53
What is the proper thing to do if it looks like residual pressure is dropping below 10 psi?
Notify the company officer, lower the discharge pressure of the pump, NEVER shut down a hose line without consent of the people on the end
54
Attack hose is designed to convey water to __
Hose line nozzles, distributer nozzles, master stream appliances, portable hydrants, manifolds, standpipe and sprinkler systems, and pumps used by the fire department
55
The attack hose is designed for use at operating pressures up to at least __
275 psi
56
An LDH has a diameter __ inch or larger.
3.5 inch
57
When LDH is providing water to attack lines, master streams, portable hydrants, manifolds, and standpipe and sprinkler systems, what should be used?
A pressure relief device set at 200 psi
58
A 2.5 inch line should not be used to deliver much more than __ gpm. The FL at this flow is __ per 100 ft of line.
350 gpm; 25 psi per 100 ft
59
Flow for 1000 ft of one 2.5 inch hose at 175 PDP.
275 gpm
60
Flow for 1000 ft of two 2.5 inch hose at 175 PDP.
550 gpm
61
Flow for 1000 ft of one 3 inch hose at 175 PDP.
440 gpm
62
Flow for 1000 ft of one 4 inch hose at 175 PDP.
880 gpm
63
Flow for 1000 ft of one 5 inch hose at 175 PDP.
1,400 gpm
64
FL for 2.5 inch at 250 gpm.
About 15 psi per 100 ft
65
Is there a decrease in pressure when using 2.5 inch coupling on 3 inch hose?
Little will be noticed because the increased velocity at the coupling makes up for most of the loss
66
NFPA 1961 defines an LDH as a hose with an __ diameter of __ inches or larger.
Inside; 3.5 inches; generally an LDH measures 4 inches or greater
67
A 4 inch LDH can deliver a volume of water to equivalent __ 2.5 inch lines.
Three and a half times
68
A 5 inch LDH can deliver a volume of water equivalent to __ 2.5 inch lines
Six
69
If an LDH is available, it should __ be used for water supply.
Always
70
What will indicate what type of supply line should be used?
Training, experience, and sizeup
71
As a rule, a pumper at a hydrant should initially begin pumping to a unit at the fire at a pump pressure of __
100 psi
72
Excessively long lays, those exceeding about __ (up to __ ft max) may require relaying operations to counteract the effect of friction loss and elevation pressure.
1000 ft; 2000 ft
73
When in a relay, the operator must watch the pump discharge gauge as discharge pressure will fall when the next pumper up the line begins taking water. Then what should the operator do?
Adjust the throttle smoothl to bring the discharge pressure up to the starting pressure
74
At the start of the relay, all pumpers should be set to pump at __
150 psi
75
Who must make the decision as to the type of initial attack line to use?
The fire fighter
76
Do fire fighters use a IMS or ICS system?
IMS, Incident management system
77
What is the most common type of fire encountered by responding fire fighters?
A free burning fire
78
What are the three methods that an interior attack can be conducted?
Direct, Indirect, or combination
79
Which method of fire attack is used most often in offensive fire attack situations?
Direct attack
80
Which type of hose stream is used with a direct attack?
Solid or straight stream
81
What is the objective of the indirect attack?
To prevent flashover
82
Is an indirect attack a good choice when victims might be present?
NO, a lot of steam is produced causing burns
83
Where might an indirect attack be a good choice?
Unoccupied Basements, attics, and storage areas
84
When using an indirect attack and the area has been cooled and ventilated, what should you do next?
Switch to a direct attack
85
Which buildings do not get an aggressive interior attack? (6 things)
1. Buildings in various stages of demolition,
2. Abandoned for long periods,
3. Burning for a predetermined period of time,
4. Contains construction features detrimental to safe interior operations,
5. Have had previous fires,
6. Are under construction
86
The choice of initial attack lines and nozzles depends on the __ of the attack.
Purpose
87
What are the four different purposes of attacking a fire?
1. Holding action
2. Exposure protection
3. A defensive operation
4. An offensive operation
88
Is it ok to assign one person to an attack line for interior fire fighting?
No
89
A 1.5 inch attack line with a spray nozzle will deliver __ to __ gpm.
60 to 125 gpm
90
It is recommended that the use of a __ inch hoseline be eliminated for structural fire fighting.
1.5 inch
91
What will help to get 2.5 inch hose lines into service more quickly?
Adequate staffing
92
A 1-3/4 inch line can discharge __ gpm with a smooth bore or spray nozzle
120-200 gpm
93
A 2.5 inch fog stream will deliver about __ gpm
250
94
A 2.5 inch solid stream with 1-1/8 inch tip at 50 psi will deliver __ gpm
265
95
A 2.5 inch solid stream with 1-1/4 inch tip at 50 psi will deliver __ gpm
325
96
When it is known that the building is adequately ventilated opposite the direction from which the spray nozzle is being advanced, __
A fog stream can be used, but at no more than a 30 degree angle
97
Flow for 1-3/4 line with smooth bore 15/16 tip.
180 gpm at 50 psi
98
Flow for 1-3/4 line with smooth bore 1 inch tip.
200 gpm at 50 psi
99
Low pressure spray nozzles are available that operate at __ psi nozzle pressure.
75 psi; Remember that IFSTA states 50 psi also
100
What are the four types of spray nozzles?
Basic spray nozzle, Constant gallonage, constant pressure (automatic), constant/select gallonage
101
With which type of nozzle will a weak stream be readily apparent?
Basic spray nozzle and constant gallonage spray nozzle
102
If fire shows at the top of the door as it is opened, the ceiling should be hit with a __ to cool it and control the fire gases.
Solid stream
103
Fire fighters are much more tolerant of __
Dry heat than they are of wet heat
104
Where should you direct the stream if the area is heavily involved?
Direct the solid stream forward and upward at the ceiling in a side to side motion or rotate the stream.
105
Which size hoseline can be ideal for getting above the fire to stop vertical spread from floor to floor by way of the windows?
1-3/4 inch
106
What hose placement would be good on a large fire in a department store or supermarket?
Attack the main body of the fire with a 2.5 inch, Use 1-3/4 lines to keep the fire from spreading horizontally, Backup the smaller lines with 2.5 inch lines
107
__ are the safer and more effective option for a defensive attack.
Master streams
108
With __ involvement of a commercial space, use 2.5 inch lines as your interior attack lines
50 percent
109
In modern garden apartments, fires are often encountered in __
Basement storage rooms
110
How can hose lines be advanced to upper floors? (4 ways)
1. Ground ladders, aerial ladders, or aerial platforms
2. By hoisting with ropes
3. By being carried in and connected through a window
4. By being passed up a window with a pike pole or shephard hook
111
In a stairway, one __ of hose must be allotted for each floor because so much length is taken up in winding around stairs and through hallways
50 ft section
112
Firefighters attempting to advance line to the fire should __ if that action will help them to advance.
Vent as they go
113
What color might smoke be if the fire is smoldering?
Yellow or dirty brown
114
Where should you vent a smoldering fire?
At as high a point as is safely possible
115
What is a sign that venting is complete on a smoldering fire?
The smoldering fire will burst into flame
116
What are the engine comany's first line of defense?
Backup lines
117
Are backup lines used for exposure protection?
NO
118
Are backup lines used to attack the fire at other positions?
No, they are held in readiness to back up the attack lines
119
Backup lines should be deployed on __
All structural interests
120
When should backup lines be taken into the fire building?
Immediately after attack lines
121
The engine ops book says to charge backup lines after they are in place.
This is not how its normally done...
122
When are backup lines used?
When initial attack lines cannot quickly control the fire
123
Backup lines should have __ and __ than initial attack lines.
Greater reach and deliver more water
124
In general, backup lines should be at least __ than initial attack lines.
One size larger. Although pictures show a 2.5 inch backing up a 2.5 inch
125
A 2.5 inch line should always be backed up with __
Another 2.5 inch line with a larger tip unless these are already in use
126
One 2.5 inch line may be sufficient to back up two or more 1-3/4 inch attack lines when they are operating within __.
One or two floors of each other
127
What should you do when an interior attack with 2.5 inch hoselines fails to control the fire?
Back out all fire fighters and attack using master stream appliances
128
If the backup lines have to be placed in service, the initial attack lines should __
Be shut down if they are ineffective against the fire
129
Can a backup assignment be given to personnel that were already on initial attack operations?
No, they will be tired and the backup operation will be understandably inefficient
130
Master stream appliances should be charged and manned by __
Fresh crews
131
How many personnel should be on a RIT team?
At least 4
132
__ is second only to rescue on any list of the basic objectives of a firefighting operation.
Exposure coverage
133
What is key to full exposure protection?
The adequate number of fire fighters
134
Any special equipment that will aid in firefighting should be dispatched to the fire scene on the __
First alarm
135
Which type of fire can lead to serious interior exposure problems?
Basement fires
136
What are some of the greatest deterrents to exposure fires?
Unpierced fire walls
137
Factors that affect the severity of an exterior exposure problem: (10 things)
1. Recent weather,
2. Current weather, especially wind,
3. Space between fire and exposures,
4. Building construction design and materials,
5. Intensity and size of the fire,
6. Location of the fire,
7. Availibility and combustibility of the fuel,
8. Size of the fire fighting force,
9. Firefighting equipment on hand,
10. Availibility of water
138
Recent weather will be a __, and present weather must be __.
Matter of record; observed
139
Other factors that cannot be evaluated until the company arrives at the fire ground are __
Wind direction and velocity
140
Where are flying brands and embers especially dangerous?
Lumber yards and other open storage areas
141
Who can be assigned to flying brand patrol?
Under a unified command system, the police department and other authorized radio equipped personnel, such as public works employees, or employees of local utilities.
142
The only way to protect exposures from radiant heat is to __
Cool them by the application of water
143
What should be done with a standpipe system of an exposure building?
It should be charged
144
Should you always charge a sprinkler system of an exposure building?
No, be ready to charge, if necessary
145
You should begin with what side when providing exposure protection?
The leeward or downwind side
146
What are the most vulnerable exposure areas when the exposure is fairly close to the fire building?
The parts of the exposed building just above the fire
147
Where should exposure protection hose streams be directed?
At a level somewhat above the fire
148
What provides a safer and more effective stream for most situations requiring exposure protection?
Master streams
149
What often make good positions for exposure lines? (5 things)
1. Adjoining roofs,
2. Secure and safe stacks of noncombustible stored materials,
3. Buildings across alleys,
4. Courts,
5. Narrow Streets
150
The mobility of __ makes them desireable for interior exposure coverage.
Smaller hose lines, such as 1-3/4 inch lines, but severity may indicate need for a 2.5
151
When searching for fire and making openings, the openings need to be large enough for __ (3 things)
Inspection, hose line manipulation, and ventilation
152
Opening of concealed spaces and ventilation outlets is __
Ladder company work, but an engine company will have to do the job if a ladder is unavailable
153
Where are vertical channels normally placed in commercial buildings, stores, and shopping centers?
Toward the rear
154
In apartment buildings, each vertical shaft is usually placed so that it serves __.
Two, four, or more apartments
155
What is an advantage of a thermal imageing camera?
It can locate fire and heat in concealed spaces
156
Can a thermal imaging camera indicate the direction of fire spread?
YES
157
What size hoseline will be most useful controlling fire in a vertical shaft?
A 1-3/4 inch hose line from the roof down the shaft
158
In a large vertical opening, such as an elevator shaft or a stairway, it may be necessary to use __
2.5 inch attack lines
159
For the most part, there are few exterior signs of fire spread through horizontal channels, except when __
The flames reach and involve the exterior walls
160
Collapse may occur in little as __ minutes with bar joist roofs.
10 minutes
161
With basement fires, offensive fires should be conducted from __
The interior, unburned side of the building
162
__ is a key element in controlling a basement fire by permitting the products of combustion to escape while allowing fire fighters to gain entry into the basement.
Ventilation
163
Is a high fire or low fire better off for fire fighters and occupants in terms of fire spread?
A high fire
164
What are considered points of attack for basement fires?
Any and all openings
165
A basement fire requires full ventilation of __
The basement and the first floor
166
Which basement windows are preferably used for ventilation?
The ones opposite those being used for fire attack
167
In residential or commercial buildings that have basement doors to the outside, it is best to use these doors for __ and __ through basement windows. However interior stairs must be covered.
Fire attack; ventilation
168
Many of the vertical openings in buildings originate at __
the basement level
169
In a basement fire, vertical openings should be opened at __
Roof level
170
Master stream appliances should be __
As far away from the fire as possible while still being effective
171
Master streams are placed into operation when __ (3 things)
1. Hand held lines are ineffective in fire attack
2. For exposure protection
3. For backup lines
172
To be effective, master stream appliances require water flows from __ to __.
350 to 2000 gpm
173
What are the three types of master streams?
Portable, Fixed, and elevated master stream
174
Portable master stream appliances are often referred to as __
Deck guns or monitors
175
A safety lock is provided so that the lock must be manually released before the nozzle can be lowered to below a __
35 degree angle
176
Some portable master stream appliances are made to take advantage of a __ to prevent movement.
Hose loop
177
Where a prepiped waterway is provided on an aerial ladder, the waterway system must be capable of flowing __ at __ at full elevation and extension.
1,000 gpm at 100 psi nozzle pressure
178
A permanently attached monitor must be provided with a __ nozzle.
1,000 GPM nozzle
179
What are the most common smooth bore tip sizes for master stream appliances? (4 things)
1-3/8, 1-1/2, 1-3/4, and 2 inches
180
How much will a 1-3/8 inch tip discharge at 80 psi?
500 gpm
181
How much will a 1-1/2 inch tip discharge at 80 psi?
600 gpm
182
How much will a 1-3/4 inch tip discharge at 80 psi?
800 gpm
183
How much will a 2 inch tip discharge at 80 psi?
1000 gpm
184
When operating a smooth bore master stream, if water supply is a problem, what should you do?
Use a smaller tip
185
Can a 1-1/4 inch tip be used as a master stream?
Yes, if water supply is a problem. It will produce 400 gpm at 80 psi.
186
What water delivery rates are spray nozzles on master streams capable of?
300 to 1250 gpm
187
What are general increments if a master stream spray nozzle has a selectable flow rate?
250, 350, 500, 750, and 1000
188
How many psi must be added due to the friction loss of the master stream device?
20-25 psi
189
Master stream scenario 1, 100 ft from pumper to appliance.
1-1/4 smooth bore nozzle (80 psi), 400 gpm stream, Single 2.5 inch water supply, 115 psi pump pressure
190
Master stream scenario 2, 100 ft from pumper to appliance.
Spray nozzle (100psi), 750 gpm stream, Two 2.5 inch water supply, 130 psi pump pressure
191
Master stream scenario 3, 100 ft from pumper to appliance.
2 inch smooth bore nozzle (80 psi), 1000 gpm flow, Single 4 inch supply line, 100 psi pump pressure
192
What is the smallest nozzle tip used on master stream appliances?
1-1/4 inch
193
It is suggested that a max length of __ of hose be used between the pumper and a master stream appliance when using smaller supply lines.
100 ft; It may need to be longer than this, but you should consider LDH
194
What is an initial recommended discharge pressure for master streams?
115 to 130 psi
195
A great deal of extra pressure will cause a solid stream to __
Break up as soon as it leaves the nozzle; A little bit of extra pressure will be no problem
196
In effect, too much pressure will turn a solid stream into a __
Poor fog stream
197
With a master stream, what factors determine which type of nozzle is used and how it should be operated?
Wind conditions and the distance to the fire or exposure.
198
What nozzle type is most effective when using a master stream for fire attack?
Smooth bore
199
What is one way to combat the wind effects on a master fire stream?
Move the appliance closer to the fire building if conditions allow
200
Solid stream nozzles will perform __ if they are positioned some distance from the building.
As well or better
201
A solid stream may be used to attack a fire that is __ floors above the level of the appliance.
3-4 floors
202
When operating master streams in poor visability, if possible to do so safely, and officer should __
Visually check the building from a safe location
203
What are signs that the master stream is not entering the building in poor visability?
The sound of the water hitting the side of the building and heavy water runoff
204
A master stream should only be used as long as __
Visible fire is in the area covered by the stream
205
Accountability of members, as in any fire situation, __
Is a requirement that must be maintained throughout the incident
206
What is the purpose of a standpipe system?
To provide a means of getting water to a fire without long, time consuming hose stretches
207
The first laws, passed in major cities, required standpupes in all buildings more than __.
75 ft high
208
NFPA 14
Standard for the installation of Standpipe and Hose systems
209
NFPA 14 is referenced by which entities?
Local, state, and model building codes and insurance standards
210
What are the 3 classes of standpipe systems?
1. Fire department use (Class 1),
2. First aid fire fighting (Class 2),
3. Both (Class 3)
211
What hose connections do Class 2 standpipe systems have?
1-1/2 inch
212
Who are Class 2 standpipe systems intended for use?
Fire brigades or building occupants before the FD has arrived
213
Which hose connections are provided with Class 3 standpipe systems?
Both 1-1/2 and 2-1/2 connections
214
Based on the 1993 edition of NFPA 14, what are the 5 "types" of standpipe systems?
1. Automatic Wet
2. Automatic Dry
3. Semiautomatic Dry
4. Manual Dry
5. Manual Wet
215
Are semiautomatic dry systems normally filled with pressurized air?
Normally filled with air, but it may or may not be pressurized
216
What type of valve does a semiautomatic dry system use?
Deluge valve
217
Does a semiautomatic Dry system have a preconnected water supply?
YES
218
Is the water supply normally connected to a manual wet system enough for fire suppression?
NO, the water is only to detect leaks. An FDC must be used for fire suppression
219
A semiautomatic dry system requires a activation at a remote actuation device located at a __
Hose station or valve
220
An exterior standpipe system usually runs along a __
Fire escape
221
Where might dry systems be found?
1. Unheated buildings
2. Where cities do not require wet systems
3. Buildings built before retroactive standpipe laws were passed
222
Dry systems may be preferred in some heated occupancies to __
Prevent expensive water damage due to tampering by tenants
223
What is a problem when multiple dry systems are interconnected where they can be fed off one intake?
The time lag for air to escape the system
224
NFPA 14 requires that a water supply for class 1 and 3 systems be able to deliver a residual pressure of __ at the outlet of the top most hose connection on each standpipe.
100 psi; This must be accomplished while flowing 250 gpm from each of the two topmost hose connection of the most remote standpipe, plus 250 gpm from each additional standpipe.
225
What is the flow requirement for Class 2 systems per NFPA 14?
100 gpm for 30 minutes with a residual pressure of 65 psi
226
For high rise buildings, __ remotely located FDCs are required for each zone within the pumping range of fire apparatus in addition to the automatic water supply
Two
227
Why are two FDCs required for high rise buildings?
To reduce the possibility of all supply hose being cut by falling glass.
228
When available, a __ is almost always used as the primary source of water.
Public waterworks system
229
What is the most common arrangement for medium and high rise apartment and office buildings?
A wet system supplied by a public waterworks
230
In what occupancies might additional water sources be required above a public waterworks?
Industrial and warehouses
231
Gravity tanks may hold as much as __
100,000 gallons of water
232
Where are pressure tanks for standpipe systems usually found?
With smaller systems where they supply house lines with water for initial fire attack by the occupants.
233
Pressure tanks rarely exceed __ and can be found anywhere in the system.
3,000 gallons
234
How much of a pressure tank is air under pressure?
The top third
235
With multiple standpipe systems, when the risers are interconnected, the system must have __ intakes.
Two or more
236
What type of valve is usually found on the water source for fire protection systems in industrial and warehouse properties?
Postindicator valves
237
What type of valve is usually found on the water source for fire protection systems in apartment buildings, office buildings, and stores?
Gate valves or OS&Y valves
238
What are the two common types of PIVs?
Butterfly and window type
239
Does a class 2 standpipe system require an FDC?
NO
240
Are there valves between a siamese and riser outlet?
NO
241
Most FDCs are provided with one 2.5 inch inlet for every __ gpm of design flow rate for the system.
250 gpm
242
Signs should be provided to indicate whether an FDC connection serves a __ (3 things)
Standpipe, sprinkler, or both
243
When hooking up to a siamese FDC, which line should you hook up first?
The left side
244
What is the minimum size of a standpipe?
4 inches
245
What can you do if the fire is severe and more flow is needed to an FDC?
Hook the engine siamese connections to the FDC siamese.
246
The best arrangement for supplying a standpipe system is to have a pumper positioned within __ of the standpipe siamese.
100 feet
247
What do you need to consider with a wet system and a damaged siamese FDC?
Connect to the first floor outlet, but charge the hose before opening the valve so that water flows the right direction.
248
When should FD personnel use house lines?
Never
249
When carrying tools to make a standpipe connection, what should be considered?
Tools should be lightweight, and only those abolutely necessary brought during intial attack
250
Considering standpipe connections, the first hose line into the building should be at least __ feet long.
150 feet
251
Describe a "break apart" nozzle for highrise attack.
A low pressure (75 psi) spray nozzle rated at 150 gpm coupled witha 15/16 solid bore (50 psi) rated at 180 gpm
252
What has proved most effective for master stream operations inside a building with a large open area?
Single or two-inlet deluge set with a solid bore tip
253
Where should an equipment pool (also called interior staging or resource area) be set up?
Usually 2 or more floors below the fire floor
254
When working in buildings with standpipe systems (large buildings), all assignments should be given to teams of at least __
Two firefighters
255
Must fire fighters have hose lines to check the floor above a fire?
If possible yes, but without them if necessary
256
All floors, especially those immediately above the fire, are __
Considered exposures
257
Lapping fire from window to window if of particular concern with what type of construction?
Fire resistant buildings
258
In high rise fire situations, the elvators and stairways are managed by __
Lobby control
259
Elevators should not be used for fires on __
Lower floors of a building
260
An elevator should never be taken to __
The fire floor or any floor above the fire
261
SOGs should state that fire fighters using an elevator must stop __
Two floors or more below the fire and then use the stairway to the fire floor
262
When it is difficult to judge which floor the fire is on, fire fighters may be ordered to stop __
2-4 floors below the fire
263
If a house line is installed, what items may need to be removed before the FD can hook to the standpipe? (3 things)
House line, reducer fitting, and pressure-reducing device
264
Which floor is preferred to make the standpipe connection for attack lines?
The floor below the fire
265
Excess hose should be __
Pulled up the stairway toward the next floor BEFORE it is charged
266
When can initial hook up to a standpipe be on the fire floor?
When the fire is confirmed some distance away from their point of entry and off the corridor
267
Sometimes, if conditions are favorable, as is often the case in fire-resistant construction, the best thing is to convince occupants to __
Stay in their offices or apartments
268
What do some fire officials call the situation where fire has gained control of a corridor and/or wind is fanning the fire?
Blowtorch effect
269
Which devices can be used to for fire attack from an adjoining building?
2.5 inch handlines and master stream devices
270
The use of the gravity tank off an uninvolved building is a __ for water supply.
Last resort
271
As long as enough pressure is available, each sprinkler head will distribute water over an area of __ square ft or more
100 square feet or more
272
What are the 4 basic types of sprinkler systems?
1. Wet-pipe
2. Dry-pipe
3. Preaction
4. Deluge
273
What is the simplest and one of the least expensive types of sprinkler systems? Also the most common.
Wet-pipe
274
Where are the air exhausters located with a preaction system?
At the dry-pipe valve
275
Preaction systems can be used __
Wherever dry pipe systems are used
276
Deluge systems are usually installed in high hazard locations such as __ (4 things)
Aircraft hangers, chemical plants, laboratories, and transformers
277
NFPA 13E
Recommended practice for fire department operations in properties protected by sprinkler and standpipe systems
278
During an actual fire incident, a fire fighter must be assigned to __
The main valve and fire pump to ensure a continued operation of the system
279
Should the pump operator wait for orders to start pumping to an FDC?
Yes
280
What is a recommended pressure to pump to an FDC?
150 psi, but pre fire planning and guidlines may modify this figure
281
If hoselines are being used in the operation, they should be supplied by __
A different water system than the one supplying the sprinklers
282
Pumping into an exposure sprinkler FDC should begin when __.
Its sprinkler system is activated
283
What is a common mistake made when automatic sprinklers are in operation?
Shutting down the system prematurely
284
If at all possible, property conservation should be started during __
Extinguishment
285
If possible, the sprinkler system should be __ before the fire fighters leave the building.
Restored to service
286
The __ should take the proper steps to ensure a sprinkler system is operational as soon as possible.
Building's owner
287
Overhaul looks for __ (3 things)
Fire, sparks, or embers
288
__ should preinspect the building before fire fighters begin the task of overhaul.
Competent personnel
289
Can fire fighters dress down when performing overhaul?
No, they should be in full PPE and SCBA
290
What should be monitored in addition to CO during overhaul?
Asbestos
291
What is the main purpose of overhaul?
To make certain that no trace of fire remains to rekindle after the fire force has left.
292
What is the second purpose of overhaul?
To leave the structure in as safe a condition as possible.
293
Is cleaning up a necessary part of overhaul?
No, just good PR
294
If conditions warrant, and if it is safe to do so, __ could perform cleanup with the IC's permission.
A building's maintenance force
295
Is the injury rate during overhaul high or low?
High even though it should be performed in an unhurried atmosphere
296
__ is useful in identifying and blocking off areas that are unsafe.
Barrier tape
297
CO levels have been shown to be __ during overhaul than during actual firefighting activities.
Higher
298
During overhaul, fire fighters should check the area for __
Possible clues to the ignition of the fire
299
A fire of __ can greatly alter overhaul operations or delay them until investigators can examine the fire scene.
Incendiary origin
300
Fire fighters should be sent to a rehabilitatioin sector to __ (4 things)
Rest, treat injuries, replace fluids, and have basic vital signs checked
301
Who might be assigned to overhaul?
Firefighters who were assigned to staging, manned unused backup lines, or were on exposure assignments
302
With overhaul, fire fighters should be formed into groups that should be assigned to a __ and to a certain area of the building.
Sector officer
303
Ordinarily, __ are assigned tasks involving hand and power tool operation during overhaul.
Ladder companies
304
Who is usually sent to the floors above and below the fire to check for fire extension?
Ladder company crews
305
Where does overhaul begin?
Close to the area where firefighting operations ended
306
__ will be useful when checking concealed spaces.
Portable lighting
307
An area where __ are found probably has not seen the effects of heat and smoke.
Cobwebs
308
What type of insulation is hard to work with?
Blown in insulation
309
Where is it especially important to make a full examination of the area under a floor?
Along walls and partitions where shafts or other vertical spaces pass through the floor
310
What are preferred for cutting operations during overhaul?
Power tools
311
With vertical shafts, firefighters ordinarily should be assigned to check __
The bottom and the top of the shaft for fire and sparks
312
Kitchen cabinets are usually constructed with a __ enclosed space between the floor and the bottom shelf.
3-5 inch
313
How is wainscoting handled?
Removed until a clean area is found and the area is wet down, as necessary
314
In some instances, water removal must be __
Completed first to reduce the weight on the floors so that they are safe to walk on.
315
Flying embers are considered
convection
316
What type of heat drives firefighters back from normal approach distances?
Radiant heat
317
The "flash" of an entire area is more likely to happen in a
Open area
318
Carbon monoxide is
colorless, odorless, and poisonous
319
How many divisions does a divided hose bed have?
Two
320
Why is there a strong tendency to use smaller hose lines for initial attack?
Lack of proper staffing
321
If discharge outlets are not available for a 2.5 inch preconnect hose line, a separate hose compartment can be set up to hold
150 to 250 feet of 2.5 inch hose
322
How are solid stream nozzles classified?
According to the nozzle diameter
323
Which smoothbore nozzles are considered for handlines?
1 and one eighth or 1 and one quarter
324
What produces the so called standard fire department stream?
2.5 inch hose with a one and one eighth inch nozzle at 50 psi and it flows 250 gpm
325
Which is perhaps the most desireable hose lay?
Forward using a charged line
326
Which water supply technique is effective when drafting is necessary?
Direct to the fire approach
327
Who ensures that the apparatus is in a safe place and if possible that other apparatus will have access?
Company officer
328
What are coverage assignments usually based on?
Proximity of companies to the fireground
329
Positioning for narrow detached building or single family detached dwelling?
Drive past the building to get a view of 3 sides
330
Buildings can present problems because of
Size, construction, location, or use
331
What is vital in mercantile areas?
Rear coverage
332
When positioning at high rises
consider width and length of the building along with locations of standpipes rather than height
333
Proper placement of hoselines and rapid ventilation may be considered
rescue operations
334
Preperation for rescue begins
before the alarm is received
335
What factors are important in asceraining what rescue operations are needed?
Occupancy, size, population, age, and extent of the fire
336
What will determine where firefighters begin search and rescue and fire attack operations
Initial size up
337
What is the average size water tank?
500 gallons
338
When searching upper floors, doors and windows of rooms other than the fire room should be
Opened to provide ventilation, providing that this will not spread the fire
339
It is the job of the engine company to
Contain and extinguish the fire and open passageways
340
Even with hospitals, if there is doubt that the fire will be controlled there should be
Complete evacuation
341
Being able to perform proper ventilation will depend on
The number of firefighters available
342
When an attempt to reach the floor over the fire is untenable
Ventilation from the outside is mandatory
343
Rooms that the fire has entered should
also be searched if possible, then the door should be shut to isolate the fire
344
How many attack lines are charged and flowing to read the residual pressure?
One
345
What is a must when drafting is the only way to ensure a water supply?
Preincident planning
346
What does the number of mobile water supply apparatus depend on?
Distance, fire size, fill and dump times, traffic and road conditions
347
Operation of the pumper is limited by
Engine speed and residual pressure
348
An attack line is designed to
combat fires beyond the incipient stage
349
The second method of relay pumping works better for houses that are
Set back from the street
350
An indirect attack uses what types of streams?
Solid, straight, or narrow fog
351
Is an 1.5 inch nozzle usually equipped with a spray or solid nozzle?
spray
352
Using a wider fog pattern will (4 things)
Give firefighters more protection, decrease reach, diminish firefighting effectiveness, and push fire through a building
353
Do this after the main body of the fire is knocked down
Let the fire "blow"
354
How much more water and a inch and three quarter hose flow over an inch and a half
Double
355
In a smoldering building does smoke rise rapidly or slowly?
rapidly because the smoke is hot
356
Rit crews are in addition to
backup lines
357
What is the worst combination of factors for exposure protection?
Recent dry weather and high winds
358
Exposure lines must be placed where they will cover
the max amount of exposed area
359
What hose is desireable for interior exposure coverage?
Inch and three quarter
360
How high should you make an opening to control vertical spread of fire?
About waist high
361
Where are basement fires usually vented?
The burned side (proper direction)
362
What should be kept outside of the collapse zone?
Personnel and equipment
363
Master streams can be used for
fire attack, exposure protection, and backup lines
364
In a window, a master stream should be moved
horizontally and vertically
365
Automatic dry standpipes are pressurized with air
Semiautomatic dry pipe may or may not be pressurized with air
366
Is the water supply of a semiauto dry pipe enough to handle water demand for fire fighting?
Yes
367
Where are gravity tanks mounted when supplying one and two story buildings
on the ground
368
How many supply lines should be connected to intake FDCs?
At least 2
369
Items in an equipment pool
Lights, hoses, nozzles, forcible entry tools, fans, pike poles, and SCBA cylinders
370
What normally keeps a deluge valve closed?
Compressed air
371
Manual operations of special fire protection systems are normally assigned to
building personnel
372
What three things to reduce injury during overhaul?
Preinspection, fresh crews, accountibility
373
What is the primary purpose of overhaul?
To make sure the fire is extinguished completely
374
Which NFPA requires driver/operators to have certain preventative maintenance skills?
NFPA 1002
375
Define Maintenance.
Keeping the apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness.
376
Define Repair.
To restore or replace that which has become inoperable.
377
What does preventative maintenance ensure? (3 things)
1. Apparatus reliability
2. Reduces the frequency and cost of repairs
3. Lessens out of service time
378
What is the goal of preventative maintenance?
is to eliminate unexpected and catastrophic failures that may endanger firefighters and the general public
379
Some FDs may have a designated apparatus maintenance officer that meets the requirements of...
Emergency vehicle technician according to NFPA 1071, Standard for emergency vehicle technician professional qualifications
380
NFPA 1071
Standard for Emergency Vehicle Technician professional qualifications.
381
When performing more complex maintenance procedures, departments should have...
Separate mechanics
382
Driver operators should be able to perform ______ maintenance functions.
Basic
383
In almost all cases, repair functions are carried out by _______.
Qualified mechanics
384
Every fire department should have SOPs for a....
Systematic apparatus maintenance program that complies with applicable NFPA standards
385
SOPs for apparatus maintenance should identify... (4 things)
1. Who performs certain maintenance functions
2. When they are to be performed
3. How problems that are detected are corrected or reported
4. How the process is documented
386
Maintenance SOPs should clearly dictate...
Items that driver/operator are responsible for and which conditions they are allowed to correct on their own
387
Smaller fire departments may do what to assist with repairs?
Contract with local automotive/truck repair business
388
Typically, career fire departments require driver/operators to perform apparatus inspection and maintenance checks at
The beginning of each tour of duty
389
More detailed work may be completed on a _____ or ______ basis.
Weekly or monthly
390
Volunteer fire departments should establish a procedure by which all apparatus are inspected and maintained on at least a ______ or ______ schedule.
Weekly or biweekly
391
List 3 functions that maintenance records serve.
1. Warranty claims
2. Accident investigations
3. Data on whether to continue repairs or buy new equipment
392
Keeping the apparatus body clean also helps promote a...
Longer vehicle life (particularly true where road salts are used)
393
List the more vulnerable areas of an apparatus to collect dirt and grime. (4 things)
1. Engine
2. Wiring
3. Carburetor or fuel injectors
4. Controls
394
T/F Overcleaning can have negative effects
True, it can remove lubrication from chassis, engine, pump, or other components
395
What is the most commonly performed maintenance function?
Washing
396
During the first ____ months after an apparatus is received, it should be washed _____ with cold water to harden the paint and keep it from spotting.
Six months, frequently
397
Recommend washing instructions for new paint - hose stream
Use a garden hose without a nozzle. The water pressure should be set so that a stream from the hose is no longer than 1 foot.
398
After new paint has cured - hose stream
A garden hose with a nozzle or a pressure washer may be used to speed the cleaning of the apparatus.
399
In general, what should be used to clean automotive glass?
Warm soapy water or commercial glass cleaners with paper towels or cloth rags
400
What should not be used to remove deposits from glass? (4 things)
Putty knives, razor blades, steel wool, or metal objects
401
Warning list of cleaners not to be used to clean interior surfaces
1. Cleaning solvents like acetone, lacquer thinner, enamel reducer, and nail polish
2. Corrosives or caustics like laundry soap or bleach
3. Hazardous substances like gas, naphtha, or carbon tetrachloride
402
On many newer apparatus the application of wax is...
No longer necessary and may damage clear coats
403
Generally, wax should not be applied until paint is how old?
Six months
404
Describe the circle or walk-around method for checking a truck. What is the final step?
Start at the driver's door and work around the apparatus in a clockwise pattern. The final step is starting the apparatus and performing a functional check on apparatus systems.
405
What are the requirements of an apparatus inspection procedure based on? (2 things)
NFPA 1002 and government pretrip inspection requirements for obtaining a CDL
406
What is the first portion of the vehicle that should be specifically checked?
The left side of the front or cab of the vehicle
407
T/F Seals that retain axle gear oil may show slight seepage and still be serviceable.
True. Trails of fluid on the wheel or tire are unacceptable.
408
For proper tire inflation, the manufacturer's recommendation is based on what weight?
The total weight of the finished apparatus including the tools and equipment
409
What is the first thing to be checked when inspecting the front of the vehicle?
Any new significant body damage
410
When inspecting the front of the cab, is it allowable to skip the light inspection until the operational checks are performed?
Yes. This is a personal preference.
411
Describe the inspection of retread tires.
You should inspect for tread separation and if found the tire should be replaced
412
When checking hose loads in the main hose bed, what should you look for? (2 things)
1. The right amount of hose
| 2. The hose is loaded and finished correctly.
413
What should the driver do prior to starting the apparatus?
Make sure the seat and mirrors are adjusted correctly
414
Why should all the electrical switches be off when starting the apparatus?
To avoid excessive load on the battery
415
If the speedometer shows something other than zero or very near zero when parked, what situations may be occurring? (2 things)
1. The gauge is defective
| 2. The truck is in pump gear
416
Appropriate hearing protection should be worn if personnel will be exposed to noise levels in excess of _____ decibels.
90 decibels
417
How does a load sequencer function?
It turns on various lights at specified intervals so that the start up electrical load does not occur at the same time.
418
Steering wheel play limitations.
10 degrees in either direction. On a 20-inch wheel this is 2- inches.
419
NFPA that covers brake testing.
NFPA 1901
420
NFPA 1901 brake test requirements.
1. Complete stop in 35 ft at 20 mph on a dry pavement
2. Parking brake should hold on a 20 degree incline.
3. Air pressure should build within 60 seconds
421
System air pressure where the air horn no longer works.
Under 80 psi
422
Method for testing road brakes or parking brake
Firmly press brake pedal and apparatus should stop in 20 ft at 5 mph
423
Which fluid is should be checked while the engine is running?
Automatic transmission fluid; power steering fluid maybe
424
When is it recommended to add windshield washer fluid to an apparatus?
Anytime it is less than half full
425
Most modern vehicle batteries are which type?
Sealed and require no internal inspection
426
Battery connections may be cleaned with what solution?
Baking soda with water, then wire brush and rinsed with clean water
427
Some power steering systems require the fluid level to be checked while....
the engine is running at normal operating temperature.
428
What does the SAE number indicate for lubricants?
The viscosity
429
What gas do batteries produce when being charged?
Explosive hydrogen gas
430
According to NFPA statistics, what percentage of firefighter injuries and deaths are caused by vehicle collisions while responding to or returning from emergency calls.
20-25 percent. NIOSH is 25 firefighter deaths per year. About an equal number of civilians are killed as well.
431
Collisions at ______ are by far the most frequent and severe.
Intersections
432
In what type of conditions do collisions most commonly occur?
Dry, clear, days
433
Five basic causes of fire apparatus collisions.
1. Improper backing
2. Reckless driving by the public
3. Excessive speed by the fire apparatus
4. Lack of driving skill and experience by the apparatus operator
5. Poor apparatus design or maintenance
434
Will a vehicle with air brakes or hydraulic brakes take longer to stop?
Air brakes. There is a slight lag before air brakes activate
435
What percent of drivers were not aware of a problem until it was too late according to SAE?
42 percent
436
Poor vehicle maintenance may result in vehicle system failures or collisions. This is particularly true for which vehicle system?
Braking system
437
Driver/Operators are regulated by which entities? (5 things)
1. Federal laws
2. State or provincial laws
3. City ordinances
4. NFPA standards
5. Departmental policies
438
When should the driver start the vehicle when responding to a call?
As soon as possible to let it warm up
439
When can the battery switch be operated while the vehicle is running?
Never
440
How do you determine if you should use one or two batteries when turning on a vehicle?
Follow manufacturer's instructions and departmental SOPs
441
When are dual starter switches used?
Vehicles with two batteries
442
Time for starter control intervals
Operate starter for no longer than 30 seconds with 60 seconds between intervals
443
Sequence to start apparatus
1. Disconnect shore lines
2. Turn on battery or batteries
3. Start the engine
4. Observe the gauges
5. Adjust the seat, mirrors, and steering wheel
444
Amount of time for oil pressure gauge to indicate a reasonable amount.
5 to 10 seconds after starting
445
Order for adjusting seat, mirror, and steering wheel
Generally best to adjust the seat first followed by the mirrors and wheel
446
How long to keep the engine in the low gear.
Until the apparatus is clear of the station and the driver/operator has an unobstructed view of the street and traffic conditions.
447
When to shift in a sharp curves or turning corners with manual transmission.
Before the curve or intersection
448
When to select a lower gear when going downhill.
Before starting downhill
449
Can the engine governor control downhill speed.
No. The wheels will turn the driveshaft and the engine. The engine could be damaged if you go downhill too fast.
450
Engine speed faster than the rated RPM can have what negative impacts. (4 things)
1. valves hitting pistons
2. increased oil consumption
3. damage requiring overhaul
4. injector plug seizures
451
Gear 5
Normal load, grade, and traffic conditions with open road ahead
452
Gear 4
Moderate grades and over-the-road operation with moderate speeds
453
Gear 3
Operating in heavy traffic
454
Gear 2
Need for speed control requiring a hold condition such as descending a steep grade or operation on rough terrain
455
Gear 1
Starting gear for initial movement forward
456
With an automatic transmission, does the amount of pressure on the gas pedal affect shifting?
Yes. A fully depressed pedal will upshift near the governed speed of the engine while a partially depressed pedal will upshift at a more appropriate lower engine speed.
457
How do you maintain engine rpm control?
Using correct throttling
458
Lugging
The result of overthrottling while the transmission is in too high a gear for a given set of conditions. (Trying to accelerate up a steep grade)
459
How to prevent lugging.
Downshift
460
Gear choice to prolong engine life.
Choose a gear that allows the engine to operate at 200 or 300 rpm lower than maximum recommended rpm.
461
Things to consider when braking. (4 things)
1. Weight of the vehicle
2. Condition of the brakes
3. Condition of the tires
4. Condition of the road
462
When to disengage the clutch while braking.
Last few feet of travel
463
How much fuel is used while idling.
Half gallon of fuel per hour
464
What rpm should be set while idling?
900-1100 rpm
465
What is the recommended idle period before shutting down an engine?
3-5 minutes so the engine can cool
466
NFPA 1901
Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus
467
NFPA 1500
Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program
468
3 exceptions for not wearing a seatbelt
1. Patient care in the back of an ambulance
2. When loading hose
3. Training for new tiller drivers
469
When loading hose while moving… (5 things)
1. A safety officer must be assigned other than the D/O or a hose loader
2. Road should be closed
3. The apparatus should be driven forward at no more than 5 mph
4. No members are allowed to stand on any portion of the apparatus while in motion
5. Members in the hosebed must sit or kneel while the vehicle is in motion
470
Department SOPs should require that, when backing,...
There be at least one firefighter - and preferably two - behind the apparatus to act as spotters
471
Spotter position when backing.
The spotter should be on the drivers side about 1 vehicle length behind with a portable radio
472
What should the driver do if there is not a backup alarm.
Sound to horn twice per SOPs
473
When can fire apparatus proceed through a red traffic signal or stop sign?
After coming to a complete stop and ensuring that all lanes of traffic are accounted for and yielding
474
When is driving in the oncoming lane not recommended?
In situations where oncoming traffic cannot see the apparatus for any reason
475
Anticipation control factors... ( 5 things)
1. Aim high in steering
2. Get the big picture
3. Keep your eyes moving
4. Leave yourself an out
5. Make sure others can see and hear you
476
What two things does visual lead time interact directly with?
Reaction time for evasice manuver and stopping distance
477
How many seconds do some departments recommend looking ahead?
12 seconds on city streets and 20 seconds on highway
478
Define reaction distance
The distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake after perceiving the need for stopping.
479
Define total stopping distance
The reaction distance plus the vehicle braking distance
480
What things affect a driver's reaction distance? (5 things)
1. Age
2. Aptitude
3. Emotions
4. Fatigue
5. Intoxicating substances ingested
481
Other factors that influence the driver's ability to stop the apparatus. (4 things)
1. Condition and slope of the driving surface
2. Speed
3. Weight of the vehicle
4. Type and condition of the vehicle braking system
482
Optimal stopping surface
flat, dry, paved road
483
Average driver reaction distance compared to speed.
Reaction distance in feet will be a slight bit higher than speed in mph
484
Total stopping distance for 4 sized vehicles at 50 mph
Auto - 186 ft
Light truck - 280 ft
Heavy truck - 310 ft
Three axle truck - 375 ft
485
Whenever a vehicle undergoes a change in speed or direction, weight transfer takes place relative to the....
rate and degree of change.
486
The most common causes of skids involve driver error: (5 things)
1. Driving too fast for road conditions
2. Failing to properly appreciate weight shifts of heavy apparatus
3. Failing to anticipate objects (vehicles or animals)
4. Improper use of auxiliary brake
5. Improper maintenance of tire air pressure and adequate tread depth
487
How does the ABS system work?
Digital technology in an onboard computer monitors each wheel and controls pressure to the brakes
488
How fast is the ABS computer?
The computer makes decisions more than 20 times per second until the vehicle is brought to a halt
489
What is the momentary delay for air brakes?
0.4 seconds
490
How does a front-limiting valve type auxiliary braking system work?
"dry road/slippery road" switch reduces the air pressure on the front steering axle by 50 percent when the switch is in the slippery road setting
491
How much was braking capacity reduced in the slippery road setting?
25%
492
When were fewer trucks built with the "slippery road" switch.
After the adoption of the Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard 121 of 1975 by the US govt
493
Where are electromagnetic brake systems connected?
To the drive shaft or the rear axle of the vehicle
494
Under what speed will electromagnetic brake systems not activate?
2 mph
495
Is there a switch for automatic traction control (ATC)?
No, there is no switch. A green engine light will engage on the dash
496
How does ATC work on slippery roads?
reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction and begin to spin, this transfers torque to the wheels that still have traction
497
What does the ATC light do when the snow-and-mud switch is activated?
Flashes continuously
498
What do you activate if you want the "rock" an apparatus out of a particular spot?
Snow-and-mud switch
499
Which lane should apparatus be driven while on city streets?
fast lane
