B's Flashcards 1501-2000
1
Q
When do automatic snow chains lose their effectiveness?
A
When snow is deeper than 8 inches or when the vehicle is moving very slow or in reverse.
2
Q
How much further does it take a vehicle to stop in snow or ice than dry concrete?
A
3 to 15 times more distance.
3
Q
3 names for the ATC system for an apparatus that has tandem rear axles.
A
interaxle differential lock, power divider, or third differential.
4
Q
Under normal operating conditions, the interaxle differential switch should be in the _____ position.
A
Unlocked
5
Q
At what speed can an apparatus out run the siren?
A
50 mph
6
Q
Siren projection distances
A
40 mph - 300 ft
60 mph - 12 ft or less
7
Q
When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, units should travel at least ____ to ____ feet apart.
A
300 to 500 feet
8
Q
Headlights should be turned ____ while responding.
A
ON
9
Q
Warning lights combined with _______, reduce the effectiveness of the reflective trim on the firefighters protective clothing or vests.
A
On scene floodlights
10
Q
Distance that microphones can hear sirens for preemption devices.
A
From a few hundred meters to 1/2 a mile.
11
Q
What light system will microphone preemption devices have?
A
white (direction of travel) and blue (non-direction of travel) lights in each direction of travel, somewhere to the side of the regular traffic signals.
12
Q
Which NFPA provides some specific direction on how driver/operator candidates should be tested?
A
NFPA 1002
13
Q
NFPA 1451
A
Standard for a Fire Service Vehicle Operations Training Program
14
Q
Alley dock dimensions
A
40 ft curb to curb
12 ft wide alley
20 ft deep
15
Q
Station parking maneuver test as a substitute to the alley dock dimensions.
A
30 ft curb to curb
20 ft simulated apron
12 ft wide simulated garage door
The bay should be 10 ft longer than the vehicle
16
Q
Number of markers and spacing for serpentine course.
A
At least 3 markers spaced 30 to 38 ft apart.
17
Q
Which direction do you maneuver the serpentine course first?
A
Backwards
18
Q
Confined space turn around dimensions
A
At least 100 ft long and 50 ft wide
19
Q
What are the number of allowed direction changes for the confined space turn around?
A
Unlimited
20
Q
What if the apparatus is small enough to complete a U-turn in the confined space turn around?
A
Make the dimensions smaller so backing is required
21
Q
Speed for diminishing clearance maneuver.
A
Fast enough to require the driver to exercise quick judgement
22
Q
Diminishing clearance dimensions.
A
75 ft long
Lane narrowing from 9 ft 6 inches to 8 ft 2 inches
23
Q
Stopping dimensions for diminishing clearance.
A
50 feet after the last stanchion must stop within 6 inches of finish line
24
Q
NFPA 1002 road test minimum elements. (9 things)
A
- Four left and four right turns
- A straight section of urban business or two-lane rural road at least 1 mile long
- One through intersection and two stopping intersections
- Railroad crossing
- One curve
- Limited access highway with on or off ramp and two lane changes
- A downgrade that requires downshifting or braking
- An upgrade that requires gear shift to maintain speed
- An underpass or low-clearance bridge.
25
Is testing a driver candidate subjective or objective?
Very subjective
26
Speed not to exceed when leaving the station.
10 mph
27
Determining the proper position for the attack pumper begins with what?
Sizing up the incident
28
How are later arriving units directed to location?
Based on SOPs or orders from the IC
29
Where to park during investigation mode?
Generally advisable to stop near the best access point into the occupancy, often the main entrance.
30
During "investigation" mode, where should the driver be?
Remain with the apparatus to make standpipe connections or pull attack lines and operate the pump
31
Considerations for apparatus positioning if fire is evident? (9 things)
1. SOPs
2. Method of Attack
3. Exposures
4. Rescue situations
5. Water supply
6. Wind direction
7. Terrain
8. Relocation potential
9. Potential for building collapse (separate from the other 8)
32
What do you need to do if you position contrary to SOPs?
Let the incoming units know of the change
33
Whenever possible, attempt to position the apparatus _____ of the incident.
Upwind
34
Being upwind negates the need for what?
Drivers to wear SCBA
35
What is the one exception to positioning the apparatus uphill from the incident?
Wildland fires since the fire will spread uphill
36
What is the collapse zone equal to?
1.5 times the height of the building
37
When possible, position the apparatus at the _____ of the building.
Corners
38
What is the optimum position for aerial apparatus?
Corners
39
How far away can debris land when falling from a building?
Up to a block away from the base of the building
40
What should you do if debris is falling and you are unable to relocate the apparatus?
Cover with salvage covers
41
"Inside/Outside" method of positioning
If the building is less than five stories tall, engine companies are positioned on the side of the street closest to the building and aerial are positioned outboard of the engine.
42
Where should pumpers that are providing water for an elevated stream be positioned?
As close to the aerial apparatus as possible.
43
Pumpers will generally position _____ to the sprinkler or standpipe FDC.
As close as possible
44
Many departments have SOCs that require the ____ pumper to proceed directly to the FDC, others do not.
First-due
45
Should a pumper pumping an FDC give position priority to other apparatus?
Yes, aerials.
46
Which drafting sites should receive preference?
Ones accessible from a paved surface and require a minimum length of hose. Also ones that minimize the required lift.
47
In no case should the maximum lifts given in table 5.1 be exceeded if _____ is to be used.
Full pump capacity
48
At what amount of feet of lift will the pump meet its rated capacity?
10 ft
49
When drafting, an intake hose may be laid on a _____ to keep it off the bottom.
Ground ladder
50
When should an intake hose be attached to the engine when drafting?
Before the engine is in final position. After attached the engine is driven to final position.
51
How high should a dry hydrant used for drafting be off the ground?
15 inches
52
What should be the clearance around strainer used with a dry hydrant?
2 ft
53
Only hard intake hose that has been designed to withstand _____ should be connected to a fire hydrant
Positive pressure
54
Intake hose sections are commonly what length?
10-50 ft
55
When hooking to a hydrant do you judge the distance from the curb or hydrant?
Hydrant
56
If the wheels of the apparatus are turned a ___ degree angle the driver can easily adjust the distance to or from the hydrant by moving forward or backward.
45 degree
57
How many twists should you put in the hose if sexless couplings are not used?
2, no twists for sexless couplings
58
When using front or rear intake connections the vehicle should be aimed or angled in the direction of the hydrant, this angle should be...
45 degrees or less
59
What is one of the easiest ways to ensure the maximum possible flow through a hose?
Remove kinks
60
T/F The gated 2.5 inch intake connections to the fire pump can drastically limit total flow depending upon how the piping is arranged.
TRUE, a better way is to bring the lines into an LDH intake
61
Other names for a large diameter intake
Steamer or intake header
62
Define dual pumping.
When one hydrant supplies two pumpers (rarely used), position pumpers intake-to-intake
63
NFPA 1962
Standard for the Inspection, Care, and Use of Fire Hose, Couplings, and Nozzles and the Service Testing of Fire Hose
64
3 Reasons for Tandem Pumping operations (like relay pumping for a shorter distance)
1. Supply high rise
2. Very long hose lays
3. Attack pumper is a short distance from the hydrant, but long distance from the fire
65
How far apart can the engines be for tandem pumping?
Up to 300 ft
66
How are pumpers connected when tandem pumping?
Discharge of water supply engine to intake of attack engine
67
T/F Wildland fire apparatus are seldom positioned in the same location for the duration of an incident
TRUE
68
What are the two most common functions of wildland apparatus?
1. Providing structure protection
| 2. Making a direct attack on the fire
69
What is the highest priority for wildland firefighting after life safety?
Protection of structures
70
To facilitate a rapid exit, what should wildland apparatus do for driveways?
Back in from the last known turn around
71
In regards to wind, which side of a structure should a wildland apparatus be placed?
The lee side
72
Where should a wildland fire attack always begin?
From an anchor point that is a natural or man made barrier to protect from fire
73
Name some typical anchor points.
Roads, Lakes, ponds, streams, and previously burned areas
74
When a wildland apparatus is being operated from a stationary position, what should be deployed?
A charged 1.5 inch or 1.75 inch hose line
75
What is a concern when driving on the shoulders of railroad roadbeds?
Tire damage can result from the angular rock, the rock is prone to sliding, rollover, could be hit by train
76
When apparatus is used in a mobile attack, hose lines should be kept as _____ as possible.
Short
77
When a wildland fire is spreading rapidly upslope, where should the firefighters draw back to?
The flanks
78
Apparatus should not be driven into unburned fuels higher than the _____ without a spotter.
The bumper or running board
79
You should not drive the apparatus into smoke where crews are operating. If you must drive through smoke what should you do?
Sound the horn and siren intermittently, use warning and headlights, and drive slowly
80
What are personnel assigned to squad/rescue apparatus commonly assigned?
Extra manpower or truck company functions in the absence of an aerial apparatus
81
Positioning of rescue apparatus.
As close to scene as possible without blocking access to other apparatus, leave a clear exit path in case needed at a second incident
82
Volunteer fire officers may use their ____ as command vehicles.
Personal vehicles
83
Ideally, the command vehicle should be positioned near a _____ of a building so the IC is afforded ____.
Corners; a view of two sides of the building
84
How many cylinders do cascade systems typically have? (A range)
4 to 12 large cylinders
85
Where do smaller jurisdictions carry cascade systems or breathing air compressors?
Rescue apparatus or in some cases Aerial apparatus
86
The position of mobile air supply apparatus is much the same as ______.
Rescue vehicles
87
Breathing air compressors have _____ that prevent their use if the incoming air is contaminated.
Filter sensors (interlocks)
88
Which NFPA lists having an EMS unit on fire and hazmat incidents as a requirement.
NFPA 1500
89
On incidents where there are victims requiring medical intervention, the IC should establish a _______ .
Triage and treatment area
90
When there are no immediate medical problems to handle EMS should...
Be in standby mode and locate where firefighter rehab is being conducted
91
Who initiates level 2 staging?
The IC or Operations section chief when requesting additional resources
92
How many units needed where level 1 staging may be initiated?
2 companies or more
93
How far away should units stage with level 1 staging?
At least one block away
94
Who generally becomes the Staging Area manager?
The company officer of the first company to arrive at the staging area
95
The staging manager communicates the resource availability and resource needs to the ______ or the ____.
Planning section or IC
96
How quickly should companies be ready to respond when in Level 2 staging?
Within 3 minutes
97
According to the Manual of Uniform Traffic Control Devices, emergency vehicle lighting should be....
used as needed to reach the scene, but once on scene its use should be reduced as much as possible.
98
At least ______ lane next to the incident should be closed when operating on the highway.
ONE
99
Consider positioning additional apparatus ______ feet behind the shielding apparatus to act as an additional barrier.
150 to 200 feet
100
Departments that commonly respond to highway incidents tend to prefer...
top-mounted pump panels
101
Control zones are not necessarily ____ and can be ____ as the incident changes.
Static; adjusted
102
Decon is usually located...
Within the warm zone in the decon corridor
103
It may require ______ for a fully loaded train to come to a complete stop.
hundreds of yards
104
More than ____ percent of the calls to which most fire departments respond are emergency medical incidents.
60 percent
105
Apparatus positioning on EMS incidents is important from a ____ and _____ standpoint.
Tactical and safety
106
How much does water weigh when it is near is freezing point?
62.4 lb/cf
107
How much does water weigh when it is near is boiling point?
60 lb/cf
108
For fire protection purposes water is assumed to weigh
62.4 lb/cf or 8.3 lb/gal
109
As an extinguishing agent, water depends on the following: (4 things)
1. Specific heat
2. Latent heat of vaporizations
3. Exposed surface area
4. Specific gravity
110
How much more heat does it take to raise water one degree compared to CO2?
5 times the amount of heat
111
Each pound of water requires an additional _____ of additional heat to completely convert to steam.
970 BTU
112
How many BTUs will one gallon of water absorb to convert to steam?
9,346 Btu
113
How much does water expand when converted to steam?
1700 times
114
Adequate ventilation must be provided when making a direct or combination attack with a fog stream because...
Without ventilation there is a high possibility of steam or even fire rolling back on hose teams
115
3 signs of adequate application of a water fire stream into a room:
1. Fire is extinguished or reduced in size
2. Visibility may be maintained
3. Room temperature is reduced
116
Water has _____ surface tension that makes it difficult to penetrate dense items.
High
117
First principle of pressure
Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface to which it acts
118
Second principle of pressure
Fluid pressure at a point in a fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions
119
Third principle of pressure
Pressure applied to a confined fluid from without is transmitted equally in all directions
120
Fourth principle of pressure
The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth
121
Fifth principle of pressure
The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the density of the liquid
122
Sixth principle of pressure
The pressure of a liquid on the bottom of a vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel
123
What is a common method of measuring atmospheric pressure?
Compare the weight of the atmosphere with the weight of mercury
124
Absolute zero pressure is called a ______.
Perfect Vacuum
125
______ is stored potential energy available to force water through pipes, fittings, fire hose, and adapters.
Static pressure
126
Is residual pressure measured at the flowing hydrant?
No, a different hydrant than the one flowing
127
_____ refers to the centerline of the pump or the bottom of a static water supply source above or below ground level
Elevation
128
Pressure drop is of little consequence to about _____.
2,000 ft
129
Above sea level, atmospheric pressure decreases approximately _____.
0.5 psi for every 1,000 ft
130
In fire hose, the following cause friction loss: (6 things)
1. Movement of water molecules against each other
2. Linings in the fire hose
3. Couplings
4. Sharp bends
5. Change in hose size or orifice by adapters
6. Improper gasket size
131
The friction loss in old hose can be as much as ____ greater than the friction loss of new hose.
50 percent
132
First principle of friction loss
Friction loss varies directly with the length of pipe.
133
Second principle of friction loss
When hoses are the same size, friction loss varies approximately with the square of the increase in velocity of flow.
134
Third principle of friction loss
Friction loss varies inversely as the fifth power of the diameter of the hose
135
Fourth principle of friction loss
For a given flow velocity, friction loss is approximately the same, regardless of the pressure on the water.
136
A pressure of _____ is required to reduce a given volume of water by _____.
30,000 psi; one percent (this is why water is considered incompressible)
137
When the diameter of a hose _____ the area of the hose opening increases approximately ____ times.
Doubles; Four
138
The velocity where water velocity is so great that the agitation from friction causes a degree of turbulence.
Critical velocity
139
Typically hose larger than ____ cannot be used for handlines.
3 inches
140
When referring to water hammer, high-volume systems should be equipped with _____.
Dump valves
141
Who are considered experts in water supply issues?
Water department officials
142
T/F In cities the domestic/industrial water demand exceed that required for fire protection.
True. The opposite is true for small or rural towns.
143
List of ways water can be treated. (6 things)
1. Coagulation
2. Sedimentation
3. Filtration
4. Chemicals
5. Bacteria
6. Other organisms
144
To ensure sufficient water, _____ or more primary feeders should run from the source of the supply to the high risk or industrial areas of the community by 2 separate routes.
TWO
145
Residential water main sizes for fire hydrants and cross mains
6 inches to hydrant; 8 inches for cross mains spread not more than 600 ft apart
146
Business and industrial water main size recommendation
8 inches
147
Valves in the water system should be operated _____ to keep them in good condition.
Once a year
148
Valves in private fire protection systems are usually the _____ type.
Indicating
149
Public water distribution systems usually are equipped with ____ type valves.
Non-indicating
150
Common materials for underground pipes (6 things)
1. Cast Iron
2. Ductile iron
3. Asbestos cement
4. Steel
5. Plastic
6. Concrete
151
Unstable or corrosive soils usually get which type of pipe?
Steel or reinforced concrete
152
How is maximum daily consumption (MDC) calculated when designing a water system?
Max total water used during any 24 hour interval within a 3 year period
153
Max daily consumption is usually how many times the average daily consumption?
1.5 times
154
Peak hourly rate is normally how many times the normal hourly rate?
Two to Four times
155
Most commonly, private water supply systems receive their water from?
Municipal systems
156
4 things that a fire stream is influenced by after it leaves the nozzle and is passing through space.
Velocity, gravity, wind, and friction with air
157
4 things that influence the condition of the stream when it leaves the nozzle.
Operating pressure, nozzle design, nozzle adjustment, and nozzle orifice condition
158
T/F No nozzle is capable of delivering any other stream than for which it was designed.
TRUE, a fog nozzle can deliver a straight stream, but not a solid stream
159
How long is the cylinder shape at the end of a smooth bore nozzle?
one to one and one-half the diameter
160
Pressure for solid stream handlines.
50 psi
161
Pressure for solid stream master streams.
80 psi
162
Solid stream nozzle discharge formula in GPM.
GPM = 29.7 * d^2 * sqrt(NP) for L/min change the coefficient to 0.067
163
Flow from a 1-inch smooth tip at 50 psi
210 gpm
164
The line bounding an outward surface; the outward boundary of an object distinguished from its internal regions
Periphery
165
A turning or state of being turned; a turning from a straight line or given course; a bending; a deviation.
Deflection
166
To strike or dash about or against; clashing with a sharp collision; to come together with force
Impinge
167
Most constant flow nozzles use a _____.
Periphery deflected stream
168
Most constant flow nozzles are designed to operate at ____ psi, but some special designed nozzles can operate at ____ or ____ psi.
100 psi; 50 or 75 psi for things like high rise firefighting
169
Adjustable flow nozzles are usually designed to discharge the selected flow at ____ psi.
100 psi
170
The minimum flow setting for interior firefighting operations is _____ gpm.
95-100 gpm
171
Automatic nozzles are also referred to as ____. (2 things)
Constant pressure nozzles or multi purpose nozzles
172
The automatic nozzle serves as a ______ for the pumper as lines are opened or shut down.
Pressure regulator
173
High pressure fog nozzles operate at pressures up to ____.
800 psi
174
High pressure nozzles are best suited for fighting _____ fires.
Wildland
175
High pressure nozzles generally only discharge ____ gpm.
8-15 gpm
176
What is generally the max gpm that can be flowed through a handline?
350 gpm
177
What psi is a fog master stream generally operated at?
100 psi
178
4 basic categories for master streams
1. Monitor
2. Turret pipe
3. Deluge set
4. Elevated master stream
179
Difference between monitor and deluge set
With a monitor the stream direction and angle can be changed while water is being discharged
180
If a ladder pipe is used on an aerial up the rungs, how do you adjust horizontally?
The entire ladder must be redirected as to not put extra stress on the ladder
181
The power system to operate the master stream may be ____.
Electric, hydraulic, or pneumatic
182
Are any special nozzles, such as a cellar nozzle required to be carried per NFPA 1901?
NO
183
What has better reach and penetration, broken stream or fog stream nozzles?
Broken stream because they typically have bigger droplets
184
What is another term for a cellar nozzle?
Distributor
185
If a cellar nozzle is not equipped with a shutoff, an _____ should be placed at a convenient location back from the nozzle.
In-line shutoff
186
Can a cellar nozzle be used for an attic fire?
YES
187
General dimensions of a piercing nozzle.
3-6 ft long of 1.5 inch diameter pipe
188
The chimney nozzle is designed to be placed on the end of a _____.
Booster hose
189
At a nozzle pressure of 100 psi, the chimney nozzle only produces ______ gpm.
1.5 - 3 gpm
190
Nozzle reaction clearly illustrates ____.
Newton's Third Law of Motion
191
Practical working limits for velocity of fire streams are within _____. These limiting velocities are produced by nozzle pressures that range from ____.
60-120 feet per second; 25-100 psi
192
In most cases, ____ psi is used as the nozzle pressure for solid stream handlines equipped with up to ____ inch nozzles.
50 psi; 1.5 inches
193
Nozzle pressure for handlines can be raised to ____ without becoming unmanageable.
65 psi
194
Fixed master streams can be operated at higher pressures up to ____ psi, if needed. But aerial master streams should only be at ____ psi for solid stream and ___ psi for fog stream so as not to damage the ladder.
100 psi max; 80 psi for solid and 100 psi for fog
195
Calculation for solid stream nozzle reaction. (NR in pounds)
NR = 1.57 * d^2 * NP (coeff of 0.0015 for newtons)
196
Rule of thumb to calculate solid stream nozzle reaction.
NR = Q/3
197
Calculation for fog stream nozzle reaction.
NR = 0.0505 * Q * sqrt(NP)
198
Rule of thumb to calculate fog stream nozzle reaction
NR = Q/2
199
Name the 6 ways that a driver can determine pressure loss and pump discharge pressure while on the fireground.
1. Flowmeters
2. Hydraulic calculators
3. Pump charts
4. Hand method
5. Condensed Q formula
6. GPM flowing
200
Flowmeters are particularly advantageous when supplying which type of nozzles?
Automatic nozzles
201
NFPA 1901 allows flowmeters to be used instead of pressure gauges for which discharge sizes?
1.5 to 3 inches
202
Discharges that are larger than ____ inches may have flowmeters, but must also have pressure gauges
3.5 inches
203
A flowmeter must provide a readout in increments no larger than _____ gpm.
10 gpm
204
What are the two types of flowmeters commonly used in the fire service?
Paddlewheel and spring probe
205
What accuracy/tolerance should flowmeters be calibrated to?
Plus or minus 3 percent
206
How close does the flowmeter digital readout need to be to the valve control for the discharge?
Within 6 inches
207
3 Applications for flowmeters
1. Diagnosing waterflow problems
2. Relay Pumping
3. Standpipe Operations
208
What can be assumed if a firefighter has no water volume at the end of the hose, but there is no reduction in the flowmeter reading?
The hose has burst
209
When relay pumping how can you use a flowmeter to your advantage?
Increase the engine speed until the flowmeter reading no longer increases.
210
Can you solely rely on the flowmeter when supporting a standpipe FDC.
No, some nozzles may not be operating
211
What are the types of hydraulic calculators?
Manual (mechanical) and electronic
212
Who usually supplies the FD with mechanical hydraulic calculators?
By hose and nozzle manufacturers
213
What are the inputs into an electronic hydraulic calculator? (4 things)
water flow, size of hose, length of hose lay, and elevation changes
214
What should you round pump discharge pressures to?
The nearest 5 psi
215
Describe the hand method for finding friction loss in 2.5 inch hose.
Left hand thumb to pinky is 100 to 500 GPM. Left thumb to pinky is 2-10 in intervals of 2. Flowing 500 gpm is 5*10 = 50 psi per 100 ft. Flowing 200 gpm is 2*4 = 8 psi per 100 ft.
216
Can the condensed Q formula be used with metric measurements?
NO, only customary
217
Which hose sizes can the condensed Q formula be used with?
2.5, 3, 4, and 5 inch hose
218
Condensed Q 3-inch formula
FL per 100 ft = Q^2 Divide Q by 100
219
Condensed Q 4-inch formula
FL per 100 ft = (Q^2)/5 Divide Q by 100
220
Condensed Q 5-inch formula
FL per 100 ft = (Q^2)/15 Divide Q by 100
221
The GPM flowing method of calculating friction loss is applicable to which hose streams?
Both solid and fog
222
What is an advantage of the GPM flowing method of calculating friction loss?
It can be used for hose sizes smaller than 2.5-inch
223
Does the GPM flowing method of calculating friction losses work in metric system
NO
224
How does the GPM flowing method work?
Subtract 10 from the first 2 numbers of the GPM flowing to give the FL per 100 ft
225
On some newer apparatus the pump will not ____ if the parking brake is not set.
Throttle up
226
Tests have indicated that the apparatus may override the parking brake system at engine speeds as low as ____.
1300 rpm
227
What do you do if you are trying to place a PTO pump into gear and the light does not illuminate?
Repeat the procedure of putting the pump into gear
228
What is the last step for putting a midship pumper with an automatic transmission into pump gear?
Depress the accelerator to ensure the shift has been completed and the apparatus will not drive away
229
In most cases, the pump should be in a _____ position if the operation is from the tank because maximum flow is limited by the size of the pump piping.
Series (Pressure)
230
If the pump has been drained and is full of air, how do you allow the air to escape?
Open a discharge or the tank fill valve so that air can escape and water can fill the pump
231
Operating at a negative pressure (pulling a vacuum) from a fire hydrant is dangerous because it increases the possibility of damage to the fire pump due to ____.
Cavitation
232
Pulling a vacuum may also damage ______ on a municipal water supply system.
Water heaters or other domestic appliances
233
To avoid possible damage to the water system, do not allow the incoming pressure for a hydrant to drop below ____.
20 psi; In rare instances this may happen, but intake pressure should NEVER be allowed to drop to zero
234
The hydrant closest to the fire is _____ the best choice.
NOT always
235
NFPA 291
Recommended practice for fire flow testing and marking of hydrants
236
Many departments that prefer forward lays us a _____ to aid this process.
four-way hydrant valve
237
On dry barrel hydrants it is recommended that ____ be attached to the unused hydrant discharges
gate valves
238
When using 2.5 or 3 inch line to supply a pumper directly off hydrant pressure it is recommended that the lines be no longer than _____.
300 ft; the distance may be longer if the hydrant is on a special high pressure main
239
In a reverse lay, if threaded couplings are used, hose beds should be loaded so that the first coupling to come off is ____.
Male
240
The _____ lay is the most direct way to supplement hydrant pressure and perform drafting operations.
Reverse lay
241
When reverse laying a supply hose, it is ____ to use a four-way hydrant valve.
NOT necessary
242
After fully opened, how far should the valve stem of a hydrant be closed to prevent strain on the stem and internal components?
One-quarter turn
243
If it appears that water will be introduced into the pump within ____ the pump may be engaged before exiting the cab.
A few minutes
244
What are the three methods for determining how much more water a hydrant can supply?
1. Percentage method
2. First-digit method
3. Squaring the lines method
245
Formula to calculate drop in pressure as a percentage
Percent drop = (Static-Residual)*100 / Static
246
Percent decrease in pumper intake pressure vs how many additional lines can be added
0-10% - 3 times that amount being delivered
11-15% - 2 times
16-25% - Same amount being delivered
25+% - More water might be available, but not as much as is being delivered
247
Can the first-digit method be used with metrics?
NO
248
Explain the first digit method
Multiply the first digit of the static pressure by 1, 2, or 3. Compare this result to the pressure drop. If the 1 times the first digit is greater than the pressure drop than 3 lines can be added. 2 times than 2 lines can be added. 3 times than 1 line can be added.
249
Explain the Squared method for determining how many additional lines can be added.
Static pressure must be known. Find the difference in static and residual pressures. Square the number of lines that would be flowing and multiply this by the pressure difference. Subtract this new difference from the original static pressure and if it is about 20 psi, it will work.
250
Steps for shutting down the pump (4 things)
1. slow engine to idle
2. take pressure control device out of service
3. slowly close discharge valves
4. place transmission into neutral
251
The maximum amount of vacuum that most pumps develop is approximately ____ of mercury.
22 inches
252
Are compound gauges accurate on the negative side?
NO
253
Describe the movement of air bubbles as the pump cavitates.
They move from the point of highest vacuum into the pressurized section where they collapse or fill with fluid.
254
Describe 3 things that affect the point at which cavitation begins.
1. Temperature of the water
2. Height of the lift
3. Amount of water being discharged
255
The best indication of cavitation is ____.
The lack of reaction on the pressure gauge to changes in the setting of the throttle
256
When does cavitation often result?
With inadequate piping from the water tank
257
What is the maximum theoretical lift when drafting?
33.8 ft
258
What is the required vacuum for primer?
22 inches of mercury
259
Drafting site choice is dictated by the following 3 factors.
1. Amount of water
2. Type of water
3. Accessibility of water
260
What is the most important factor in the choice of the draft site?
The amount of water available
261
What is a limitation of a floating strainer?
It can only take in water on one side
262
Where does a low-level strainer sit and how low can water be drafted down to?
It sits on the bottom of a tank or pool; 2 inches
263
When drafting, Water that is below ____ or above ____ may adversely impact the pump's ability to reach capacity.
32 degrees F and 90 degrees F
264
When using cold water to draft, if you get water several feet below the surface, it may be _____ warmer.
5-10 degrees warmer
265
When drafting, What is the most common type of contamination and possible the most damaging water?
Dirty or sandy water
266
When drafting, As the amount of lift increases what 3 things occur?
1. Elevation pressure increases
2. Less friction loss can be overcome
3. Capacity of the pump decreases
267
What is the maximum lift considered reasonable for most pumpers?
20 ft
268
At 20 feet of lift, that amount of water that can be supplied is only about ____ of the rated capacity of the pump.
60 percent
269
When priming the pump for drafting, the transfer valve should be set to the _____ setting.
Parallel (Volume)
270
Most priming pumps are intended to work best when the engine is set between _____.
1000-1200 rpm
271
When drafting and after the pump has primed, what should you increase the pressure to?
Between 50-100 psi
272
When drafting, any deviation from _____ is a signal that another pumper should be used for drafting.
Normal engine temperature
273
What is the most common problem when drafting?
Air leaks on the intake side of the pump
274
What other type of strainer can be used in shallow water where whirlpooling is a problem?
A floating dock strainer
275
It is a general rule of thumb that one 1000 gpm rated pumper should supply the fdc for every ___ sprinklers.
50 Sprinklers
276
In most cases it is desirable to _____ before pumping into and FDC system.
Confirm the presence of fire
277
Multistage pumps should be in _____ position when pumping to an FDC.
Parallel (Volume)
278
If specific pump pressures are not available, the general rule of thumb is to discharge ____ psi into the FDC.
150 psi
279
Fire departments should not use house lines unless ____.
A hose testing program similar to the one used to test all fire department hose is implemented.
280
Pump discharge pressures in excess of ____ are not encouraged unless the standpipe system has been designed to withstand higher pressures.
200 psi
281
If a standpipe is equipped with pressure reducing valves, the discharge pressure should be based on the ____
Total height of the standpipe
282
As a last resort, ____ can be laid up the interior stairwell to take the place of a standpipe.
supply hose
283
For every 100m of altitude, atmospheric pressure decreases by about ____.
1 kPa
284
In most circumstances the maximum lift is no more than ____.
25 ft
285
Equation for max lift in terms of inches mercury
L = 1.13Hg
286
_____ is the height a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable fire flow.
Dependable lift, drivers are more concerned with dependable lift than theoretical lift
287
Every fire pump in good repair should have a dependable lift of at least ___.
14.7 ft
288
Equation for pressure correction
Pressure correction = (lift + total intake hose friction loss) / 2.3
289
What are the two types of static water supplies to draw from?
Natural and man made
290
What two primary factors should be considered when evaluating a natural static water supply source?
Adequacy and accessibility
291
Formula for determining the adequacy of a small stream as a static water supply
Q = A * V * 7.5 where A is width times depth and V is velocity
292
How to evaluate a small lake or pond as a static water supply.
Every 1 ft depth for an acre area provides 1000 gpm for 5 hours
293
What is a solution if an inaccessible water supply source is the only possible source?
Use portable pumps to get the water to a pumper
294
When using a ladder and salvage cover to make a dam, how long should you leave the cover to form a flap?
About 4 feet
295
Cisterns vary in capacity; sizes from _____ are common.
10,000 to 100,000 gallons
296
Pool capacity equation
Capacity in gallons = L * W * D * 7.5
297
Agricultural irrigation systems may flow in excess of _____.
1000 gpm
298
With irrigation watering system which is more popular, canals or portable pipes?
portable pipes
299
Which type of apparatus can be used for relay pumping?
Any type of apparatus equipped with a sufficiently large fire pump
300
The source pumper should be the pumper with ____.
The largest pumping capacity
301
Hose tenders usually carry ____.
A mile or more of large diameter (4 inches or greater) hose
302
Large diameter hose ranges in size from ____ to ____ with the most common sizes being ____.
3.5 inch to 12 inch; 4 and 5 inch hose
303
In relay pumping, what should intake pressure relief valves be set to?
10 psi above the discharge pressure of the previous pumper in the relay
304
In the most basic sense, a relay operation is based on two things.
1. The amount of water required at an emergency scene
| 2. The distance from the emergency scene to the water source
305
If it is desirable to increase the amount of flow through a relay, one of three things must happen.
1. Increase the size of the hose or the number of hoses in the relay
2. Increase the pump discharge pressure
3. Increase the number of pumpers in the relay
306
All fire department pumpers are rated to pump their max capacity at ____ psi from a draft.
150 psi
307
If a fire department has hoses that are designed for higher than standard pressures, the hoses should be pumped at pressures that do not exceed ____ of the annual service test pressure.
90 percent
308
What are the two basic methods for relay pumping?
1. The maximum distance method
| 2. The constant pressure method
309
The constant pressure relay depends on a _____.
Consistent flow being provided on the fireground
310
Always leave at least ___ sections of hose in the hosebed in the event that there is a hose failure during relay operations.
TWO
311
When performing a constant pressure relay, what does the pumper at the water source pump at?
175 psi
312
When decreasing the pressure in a relay, which unit throttles down first?
The attack pumper
313
The maximum capacity of a relay is determined by _____ and _____.
The smallest capacity pumper and the smallest hoseline used in the relay.
314
If equipped with the newest and most sensitive pressure governors, the attack pumper should be set in ____ mode and all the others in the relay should be in ____ mode.
Pressure; RPM
315
In a relay, the intake relief valve of the attack pumper should be set between ___
50 and 75 psi
316
In relay pumping, as long as intake pressures do not drop below ___ or increase above ____ no action should be required.
10 and 100 psi
317
Relay operations should be shut down from ___ first.
The fire scene first
318
What is an advantage of using shuttle operations over relay pumping?
No labor intensive hose loading
319
What are the three major components of a shuttle operation?
The fill site, the shuttle route, and the dump site
320
NFPA 1901 requires that tenders have a filling rate of ____.
1000 gpm, because of this the fill site pumper should be at least 1000 gpm
321
Some jurisdictions may have special fill site pumpers that have the specs of ____.
Up to 1600 gpm at a maximum of 80 psi
322
Water tenders are apparatus that carry at least ____ gallons.
1000 gallons
323
A majority of water tenders today carry between ____ and ____ gallons.
1500 and 3000 gallons; Engine company book says 1000 to 3500
324
At what gallonage are water tender type apparatus usually switched to tandem axle?
2000 gallons
325
Tenders that have water tanks less than ____ and rapid unloading capabilities are the most effective for water shuttle operations.
2500 gallons
326
Water tenders that are used strictly for shuttle operations DO NOT require a fire pump if ___.
They are equipped with a suitable gravity dump system
327
Tenders with ____ pumps or larger are usually called pumper-tenders.
750 gpm
328
What are the pumping specs of a vacuum tanker?
Filling rate - 2000 gpm
Lift capability - 22 ft
Dump rate - 1750 gpm
329
According to NFPA 1901, water tenders must have a tank-to-pump line at least ___ inches and capable of producing ___ gpm at ____ percent tank volume emptied.
2 inches; 500 gpm at 80 percent tank volume emptied
330
A tenders external fill connection should be equipped with ___ (3 things)
A valve, strainer, and 30 degree elbow
331
Water tenders must have one large tank discharge capable of discharging ____ gpm at ___ percent emptied.
1000 gpm at 90 percent emptied
332
If a tender uses smaller lines to fill there should be ___.
At least two external direct tank fill connections
333
While NFPA only requires one dump valve, it is highly recommended that each tender is equipped with ___.
At least three; one at the rear and one on each side
334
Gravity dumps usually employ an ____ or larger round or square valve that extends to the exterior of the apparatus.
8 inches
335
_____ valves increase the safety of the operation by eliminating the need for someone to exit the cab of the tender.
Remote controlled dump valves
336
The ____ gives extra rating credit to jurisdictions that have automatic aid for shuttle operations.
Insurance Services Office (ISO)
337
When possible, select a fill site that is capable of providing ____ gpm.
1000 gpm
338
If you must maneuver an apparatus at a fill site, it is better to maneuver ____ the tank is filled.
Before
339
____ are ideal locations for dump sites.
Parking lots
340
The ____ route of travel is considered to the be the optimum arrangement when conducting shuttle operations.
Circular route of travel
341
____ can result in the D/O being unable to slow or stop the vehicle at the bottom of a hill.
Brake fade
342
IFSTA recommends that a ____ be used to fill tenders at all fill site operations.
Pumper
343
The fill site pumper does ____ have to be located directly next to where the tenders are filled.
Not necessarily
344
If a static water supply is inaccessible, high volume portable pumps can be used to get the water to the fill pumper if it is less than ___ between the source and the pumper.
100 ft
345
An in-line water siphon should be pumped at ____ psi and provide ___ to ___ gpm through ___ inch pipe.
150 psi for 700-800 gpm through 4 inch pipe
346
What are the firefighters that handle the tender fill lines referred to?
Make and break personnel
347
Unless the fill site pumper is connected to a ____ it is generally not recommended to fill more than one tender at a time.
High flow hydrant
348
What are the three methods of operating a dump site?
1. Direct pumping operations
2. Nurse tender operations
3. Portable water tank operations
349
Tractor trailer tenders are often used as nurse tenders because ___.
They have a high capacity
350
_____ are most suitable for continuous water supply operations.
Portable dump tank sites
351
What affects the actual volume of flow through a dump valve? (3 things)
1. Design and size of the dump valve
2. Baffling in the tank
3. Venting capability of the tank
352
Does pumping and dumping at the same time really save that much time?
Not really, it generally better just to use the dump valve
353
A single portable tank works on fires that require relatively low overall flow rates (less than ____)
300 gpm
354
What is the simplest form of dump site operation?
One where only one portable tank is used
355
What is the recommended capacity of a portable water tank
500 gallons more than the apparatus carrying it has
356
The most common number of portable tanks used for most jurisdictions is ___ to ___.
2 to 5 tanks
357
What method of connecting portable tanks is generally discouraged by most authorities on water shuttles?
Drain to Drain connection
358
The most efficient method of connecting portable water tanks uses ___.
Jet siphons
359
If four or more portable tanks are to be used, it is advantageous to ___.
Have a second pumper at the dump site to support the jet siphons
360
What is the preferred method for arranging multiple portable tanks?
Tip to tip diamond method
361
Most tenders only dump ____ of their load before heading to be refilled.
90 percent
362
ISO travel time equation for shuttle operations
Travel time in minutes = 0.65 + 1.7 * (Distance in miles)
363
What speed is the ISO travel time equation based on?
35 mph
364
ISO handling time equation for shuttle operations
Handling time = Fill site time + Dump site time
365
Through testing, many departments have found that their tender is only actually dumping ___ percent of its load.
80 percent
366
ISO tender flow rate equation
Tender flow rate = (Tender water tank size - 10%) / (Travel time + handling time)
367
To receive ISO's full rating what must water shuttle operations accomplish?
First tender dumps 5 minutes after the arrival of first pumper and the pumper must continued to be supplied a minimum of 250 gpm for 2 hours
368
A majority of the foams used today are the _____ type.
Mechanical type, which must be mixed and aerated before they can be used
369
Define foam solution.
The mixture of foam concentrate and water before the air has been introduced
370
List several polar solvent fuels (5 things)
Alcohol, ether, acetone, lacquer thinner, and ketones
371
T/F Many polar solvent foams will work with hydrocarbon fuels
TRUE, but hydrocarbon foams will not work for polar solvent fires
372
Many modern fuel blends, which include gasoline with ____ or more solvent additives, should be considered as ____.
10 percent; Polar solvents
373
Early alcohol resistant foams were proportioned at a rate as high as _____, but they are no longer in common usage.
10 percent
374
Usual limits of class A foams
0.1 to 1 %
375
In the induction mode, the venturi device is known as the ____.
Eductor
376
The injection method of mixing foam is usually used by ____.
Apparatus mounted or fixed fire protection system applications
377
What is the simplest method of mixing foam.
Batch mixing
378
Batch mixing should only be used as a last resort for which foams?
Class B
379
The time requirement for batch mixing is dependent on ___ and ___ of the foam concentrate.
Viscosity and solubility
380
Give an example of a premixed foam system.
Water can
381
Which type of foam is it especially important to have a tight seal on the container so that a skin does not form?
Alcohol resistant foams
382
55 gallon barrels of foam are more commonly used with ____.
Industrial applications
383
Is a standard atmospheric vented foam storage tank acceptable for use?
No, the tank should be airtight
384
Foam tanks on municipal pumper range from ___ to ___.
20 to 200 gallons
385
Foam pumpers and tenders may carry up to ____ of foam concentrate.
8000 gallons
386
Class A foam has been used since the ____.
1940s
387
The shelf life of class A foam can be as much as ___ if stored properly
20 years
388
With class A foams, most nozzles produce a more stable foam at ___ concentration, than they will at 0.4 or 0.5% concentrations.
1.00%
389
With class A foams, using percentages greater than ___ with standard fog nozzles does not appear to increase fire fighting performance.
0.50%
390
Class A foam proportioning for fire attack and overhaul with fog nozzle
0.2 to 0.5% concentrate
391
Class A foam proportioning for exposure protection with fog nozzle
0.5 to 1.0% foam concentrate
392
Class A foam proportioning anytime a air aspirating nozzle is used
0.3 to 0.7% foam concentrate
393
Class A foam proportioning when using CAFS
0.2 to 0.5% foam concentrate
394
Which class B foam types work with fog nozzles?
FFFP and AFFF
395
Protein based foams have a normal shelf life of ___ years.
10 years
396
Synthetic foams have a shelf life of about ___ to ___ years.
20-25 years
397
When can different brands of foams be mixed together?
When they meet mil-specs
398
Class B foams are mixed in proportions ___ to ___ percent.
1 to 6%
399
Concentration proportion normally used for polar solvent fires
3 to 6 percent
400
NFPA 11
Standard for Low-, Medium- and High-expansion foams
401
Expansion ratio for low expansion foams
Up to 20:1
402
Expansion ratio for medium expansion foams
20:1 to 200:1
403
Expansion ratio for high expansion foams
200:1 to 1000:1
404
Regular protein foam (made from animal products) is ____ used in the fire service today.
Rarely
405
Is a fluoroprotein foam synthetic?
Yes, this is a combination of protein and synthetic foam
406
Fluoroprotein foam can be formulated to be alcohol resistant by adding ___.
Ammonia salts
407
Fluoroprotein foam will maintain its alcohol resistive properties for ___ minutes.
15 minutes
408
What is the most commonly used foam today?
AFFF
409
Which type of foam can "heal" over?
AFFF
410
When alcohol resistant AFFFs are applied to polar solvent fires, they create a ___ rather than a film over the fuel
Membrane
411
How should alcohol resistant AFFF be applied?
Sprayed over the top of the fuel rather than plunged into it
412
What is the base of high expansion foams?
Detergent
413
_____ introduce compressed air into the foam solution before it is discharged into the hoseline.
High energy foam systems
414
The pressure at the outlet of an eductor (back pressure) must not exceed ___.
70 percent of the eductor inlet pressure
415
Using an eductor inlet pressure lower than the rated pressure results in ____ foam concentrates.
Rich
416
Foam concentrate inlet to the eductor should not be more than ___.
6 ft
417
What are the flow capabilities of a self educting master stream?
350 to 14000 gpm
418
What is a JRC?
Jet ratio controller, used for providing foam concentrate to self educting master streams
419
How far away and what elevation change are acceptable when a JRC is used?
3000 ft away and up to 50 ft elevation change
420
The flow of water to the JRC represents about ___ percent of the total flow in the system.
2.5 percent
421
What does a JRC proportion the concentrate at?
A 66.5 percent solution
422
Installed in-line eductors are most commonly used to proportion ____.
Class B foams
423
Why are in-line eductors not effective for proportioning class A foams?
Because class A foams have such low proportions (0.1 to 1.0%)
424
In around-the-pump proportioners, how much water is sent to the bypass line that educts the foam?
10-40 gpm
425
What intake pressures can newer units handle and still operate around the pump proportioners?
Up to 40 psi
426
What is one of the most accurate proportioners used?
Bypass type balanced pressure proportioner
427
Can a apparatus with a bypass type balanced pressure proportioner discharge water and foam at the same time from different discharges?
YES
428
How is a variable flow variable rate direct injection proportioner powered?
From the apparatus electrical system (Large volume systems may use electric and hydraulic)
429
What proportions can variable flow variable rate proportioners provide?
0.1 to 3.0%
430
Can variable flow variable rate proportioners be used with alcohol resistant foams?
NO, due to the high viscosity of the concentrate
431
In general, batch mixing is only used with regular ____ (not AR) at Class A proportions.
AFFF
432
Class A foam solutions do not retain their foam properties if mixed for longer than ____.
24 hours
433
How much airflow is used for 1 gallon of foam solution flow to produce a very dry solution up to 100 gpm?
2 cfm
434
Most structural and wildland fire attacks with CAFS are done with an airflow rate of ___ to ___.
0.5 to 1.0 cfm per gallon of foam solution
435
Tests indicate that the reach of a CAFS stream can be ____ that of a low energy foam stream.
Twice
436
What are expansion ratios using fog nozzles?
2:1 to 4:1
437
What is the only type of nozzle that can be used with protein or fluoroprotein foams?
Air aspirating nozzle
438
When is the rain down method used for foam application?
The the roll on or bank down method are not feasible
439
What is the primary technique for foam application on elevated storage tanks?
Rain down method
440
Where AFFF concentrate is concerned, environmental issue revolve around ____.
glycol ethers and perfluorooctyl sulfonates (PFOS).
441
NFPA 1150
Standard for foam chemicals for fire in class A fuels
442
What are other terms for durable agents?
gelling agents, fire blocking gels, and aqueous fire fighting gels
443
Durable agents are ____.
water-absorbent polymers
444
Durable agents consist primarily of ___.
water
445
Are durable agents non-toxic and biodegradable?
YES
446
Durable agent proportion percentages
1. Fire extinguishment - 1 percent
2. Fire line construction - 1.5 to 2 percent
3. Structure protection - 3 percent
447
How long will durable agents adhere to vertical surfaces?
Up to 24 hours
448
Durable agents can be ____ with a fine water mist to extend their protection for several days.
rehydrated
449
At speeds above __ an emergency vehicle may out run the effective range of its audible warning device
50 mph
450
The mouth is primarily designed to be _____.
The entrance to the digestive system.
451
What are two names for the point that divides the upper and lower airway? It is also designed to provide structure to, and protect, the opening to the trachea.
Laryngopharynx and hypopharynx
452
What is the entry point to the larynx called?
The glottic opening
453
The glottic opening is protected by the epiglottis and the ____.
Vocal cords
454
What forms the adam's apple?
The thyroid cartilage
455
How many rings protect the trachea?
16 rings of cartilage
456
A patent airway requires control of ___.
The muscles that form the airway. This is referred to as intact muscle tone.
457
In reality does the tongue or the epiglottis block the airway?
Epiglottis
458
Stridor is an ominous sign of poor air movement. Is stridor present on inhalation or exhalation?
Stridor can be present on both
459
When swelling obstructs air flow through the upper airway, patients may present in the ____.
Sniffing position
460
When an airway problem is detected, when should it be dealt with?
Immediately
461
How will you probably stabilize c-spine if the person has an airway problem?
Manual c-spine, you won't have time for c-collar or head immobilization
462
3 signs that an unconscious person may have head, neck, or spinal injury.
1. Mechanism of injury.
2. Injury at or above the level of the shoulders.
3. Family or bystanders tell you the injury was to the head, neck, or spine.
463
The head-tilt chin-lift maneuver uses ____ to align the structures of the airway and provide for the free passage of air.
head position
464
What is the most effective way to clear the patient's airway?
With a wide-bore, rigid-tip Yankauer suction device.
465
It is crucial that a suction unit be ready for _____ use when opening and maintaining the airway.
Immediate
466
The most common impediment to an open airway is a lack of ____.
Airway muscle tone
467
When an airway is in place, you must maintain ____.
the head-tilt, chin-lift or jaw thrust maneuver and monitor the airway
468
Ways to measure an OPA.
1. Corner of the mouth to tip of earlobe
| 2. Center of mouth to the angle of the lower jaw bone
469
If an OPA airway is too big, its distal tip will ____.
rest close to the esophagus and direct air into the stomach
470
What is the preferred method of inserting an OPA for a child or infant?
Insert the OPA pointing down and depress the tongue down and forward to avoid obstructing the airway.
471
Do you need to rotate an OPA when you remove it?
NO
472
Other than not stimulating the gag reflex, what other benefits does placing an NPA have?
It can be used when the teeth are clenched and when there are oral injuries
473
What are typical sizes for NPAs?
34,32, 30, and 28 French
474
Most NPAs are designed to be placed in which nostril?
Right
475
When do you not use an NPA?
If CSF is coming from the ears or nose
476
Mounted suction units are often called _____ create a suctioning vacuum produced by the ____ or ____.
On-board units; the engine's manifold or an electrical power source
477
What is the requirement for the amount of suction for all units (portable or fixed)?
30 liters per minute which is a vacuum of 300 mmHg
478
The tubing attached to a suction unit must be ____. (3 things)
Thick walled, nonkinking, wide-bore tubing
479
What is the most popular type of suction tip?
The rigid pharyngeal tip
480
What are other names for the rigid pharyngeal tip?
Yankauer, tonsil sucker, or tonsil tip
481
What type of patient is rigid tip suction most successful?
Unconscious; Use with caution if the patient is not completely unconscious or may be regaining consciousness
482
Suction catheters are ___?
Flexible plastic tubes
483
A 14 french catheter is ____ than an 8 french catheter.
Larger
484
Suction units also must have ____ nearby.
Container of clean (preferably sterile) water
485
In the event of copious, thick secretions or vomiting, consider removing the rigid tip or catheter and using the ___.
Large bore, rigid suction tubing
486
The first rule of suctioning is to ____.
Always use appropriate infection control practices
487
The second rule of suctioning is to try limiting suctioning to ____.
No longer than 10 seconds at a time; however if the patient continues to vomit longer than 10 seconds, you must continue to suction
488
At what point do you apply the suction?
After the rigid tip is in place in the mouth
489
The third rule of suctioning is ____?
Place the tip or catheter where you want to begin the suctioning and suction on the way out.
490
Is it necessary to measure a rigid suctioning tip?
NO, but you should not lose sight of the tip when inserting it
491
How do you measure a suction catheter?
The same as an OPA, from corner of mouth to earlobe
492
Suctioning is best delivered with the patient ____.
Turned on his side
493
What do you do if spinal injuries are suspected but you need to suction?
Suction the best you can without turning the patient. If all other methods have failed, as a last resort you may turn the patient's body as a unit, attempting to keep the neck and spine in line
494
A _____ will often help remove particles not able to be suctioned through the lumen of the suction device.
Shallow sweep
495
What do you do if you advance a suction device and the patient begins to gag?
Withdraw the tip to a position that does not cause gagging and begin suctioning.
496
Because the blood supply to the face is so ____, blunt and penetrating injuries to the face frequently result in sever swelling or bleeding.
Rich
497
Dentures should _____ during airway procedures.
ordinarily be left in place.
498
How do you handle partial dentures?
Leave partial dentures in place if possible, but be prepared to remove it if it endangers the airway.
499
The chest wall is softer, and infants and children tend to depend _____ on their _____ for breathing.
More; diaphragm
500
Open the airway gently. Infants can be placed in a _____ position and children only require _____.
Neutral position; slight extension of the neck
