Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Promo Stuff > B's Flashcards 501-1000 > Flashcards

B's Flashcards 501-1000

1
Q

What is the most common size of asphalt shingle?

A

12x36 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Asphalt shingles use heavy sheets of asphalt impregnated felt made from __

A

Rag, paper, or wool fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Roofing slate can be split as thin as __ although it may be as thick as __

A

1/16 inches; 1-1/2 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Roofing slate can have a life expectancy of __

A

150 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Roofing slate weighs approx __

A

8 to 36 lbs/sq ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Curved clay tiles are known as __

A

mission tiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some other types of tiles used for roof coverings? (3 things)

A

Porcelainized aluminum, mineral-based materials, and composite materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Do wood shingles have the be nailed to a solid deck?

A

No, they can be nailed to an open deck with wood strips which may cause early failure in a fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Wood shingles are installed in an overlapping method so that only about __ of the length of shingle is actually exposed to the weather.

A

One-third

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

These shingles produce a rustic appearance and may be more resistant to wind damage than asphalt shingles.

A

Wood roof shingles and shakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Does the fire retardant treatment of wood shingles and shakes remain effective after exposure to the elements?

A

Experience says yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Asphalt shingles are __

A

Fundamentally combustible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Metal roof coverings make use of several materials including __ (6 things)

A

galvanized iron or steel, copper, zinc, aluminum, and lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The spacing between purlins for metal roofs can be from __ to __

A

2 to 6 feet, no roof deck required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of nails should be used for metal roofs?

A

Nails that are the same metal as the metal sheeting to prevent galvanic action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

NFPA 256

A

Standard method of fire tests of roof coverings; also designated ASTM E-108

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the sample size for a NFPA 256 test?

A

3 feet 4 inches by 4 feet 4 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the six test procedures in the NFPA 256 test?

A

Intermittent flame exposure test, burning brand test, flying brand test, rain test, weathering test, and spread of flame test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For the NFPA 256 test, the individual test procedures may be repeated from __ to __ times on different

A

2 to 15 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How are the fire ratings of roof coverings classified?

A

Class A (severe fire exposure), Class B (moderate), Class C (light)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The layer of earth required for a rooftop garden can vary from __

A

a few inches to 1 or 2 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dead load for a green roof can vary from __

A

20 to 150 lb per square foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In some parts of the US, a penthouse is referred to as a __

A

Bulkhead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Skylights are sometimes provided with __ to facilitate normal building ventilation

A

operable glass panes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

For safety purposes, building codes require __ or __ in skylights

A

wired or tempered glass; they can also be plastic domes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The combustible nature of a buildings structural system will impact the

A

Rate of fire growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What five material properties is fire resistance a function of?

A

Combustibility, Thermal conductivity, chemical composition, density, and dimensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When was a standardized test method for floor construction adopted by ASTM?

A

1907, Walls in 1909

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When was NFPA 251 adopted?

A

1917

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Does the E-119 test evaluate flame spread?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When was ASCE SFPE 29 developed?

A

1997

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Type 3 construction may also be called

A

Exterior protected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What designation is type 4 construction?

A

2 H H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

At what height does an apartment building go from type 1-B to type 1-A?

A

12 stories or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

IBC building classification H?

A

High hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

IBC building classification I?

A

Institutional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When can the IRC - residential code govern over the IBC?

A

One and two family dwellings not more than 3 stories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What must the fire resistance be between a daycare and a restaurant in the same building?

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does the combustibility of interior finishes affect the behavior of fire? (4 ways)

A
  1. Flame spread over the surface, 2. Rate of fire growth, 3. Adds to the intensity, 4. Smoke and toxic gases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Is chair railing considered interior finish?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What typre of fire resistant coating forms a thick non-combustible coating?

A

Mastics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How high does a building have to be to require a 2-hour rated stairwell enclosure?

A

Taller than 3 stories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do fire doors differ from oridinary doors?

A

Construction, Hardware, and automatic closures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the highest rating of a fire door?

A

4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Solid lumber rafters can be up to how long?

A

24 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Are particle board panals single layer or multiple layer?

A

Can be both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Flame spread rating of fire retardent treated wood?

A

25 or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Is the mortise or the tenon the hole?

A

Mortise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What materials can be used for draft stops?

A

1-inch nominal lumber, gypsum, wood panels, or cement fiberboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Who publishes the international wildland urban interface code?

A

ICC(international code council)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What factors are used to evaluate hazard severity in wildland urban interface?

A

Ground slope, clear space around, water supply, and climate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How many types of morter are there?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are frequently supported by pilasters?

A

vertical beams in a masonry wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Firefighters should always assume a masonry wall will fall out a distance at least equal to

A

1.5 times the height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Roof framing dimensions for mill construction

A

4 by 6 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Columns supporting roofs in mill construction

A

6 by 8 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What increases the strength and toughness of steel?

A

Vanandium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What increases steels resistance to abraison?

A

Manganese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Other ingrediants in spray applied cementious materials.

A

Magnesium oxychloride, Oxysulfate, Calcium Aluminate, Phosphate, and Ammonium sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Are intumescent coatings or SFRMs thicker?

A

SFRMs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Advantages of intumescent and mastic coatings?

A

Lighter weight, durable surfaces, good adhesion, and most aesthetically pleasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Are gypsum panels used for drop ceilings?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Does concrete resist insects and effects of soil contact?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Name 7 types of concrete.

A

Ordinary stone, structural lightweight, insulating lightweight, gypsum concrete, high early strength, expansive, and water permeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

When a mansard roof is constructed with a flat deck on top it may be called

A

a modern mansard or deck roof

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What type of roof deck might become especially spongy?

A

Wood plank roof deck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

According to data compiled by NIOSH, the number of firefighter fatalities occurring while responding to or returning from emergencies is second only to the number of fatalities resulting from ____

A

suddon cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The required levels of physical and mental skills needed by D/O are usually determined by

A

The AHJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

D/O must also meet the requirements of ____

A

NFPA 1001 Firefighter 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Give a list of physical activities that a D/O may be required to do: (5 things)

A
  1. Connecting heavy appliances to the aerial
  2. Deploying ground ladders
  3. Placing steel stabilizer pads
  4. Performing heavy rescue activities
  5. Operating power tools on unstable surfaces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

NFPA 1582

A

Comprehensive Occupational Medical program for fire departments; this may be used as the criteria upon which the medical evaluation is based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which NFPA provides very specific requirements about vision?

A

NFPA 1582

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

NFPA 1582 recommends what if a firefighter cannot hear all the frequencies of a hearing test

A

Reject the candidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the two most important criteria for determining who will become a D/O

A

Skill and ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What might some volunteer departments do for truck drivers?

A

Allow lateral transfers to driver, they still must meet NFPA 1001 and 1002

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does an effective training program consist of? (3 things)

A

Appropriate amounts of classroom instruction, practical training in the field, and testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

NFPA 1451

A

Standard for a fire service vehicle operations training program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

At what level are most laws and statutes concerning motor vehicle operation maintained?

A

State or provincial level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When encountering a bus with red lights, the fire apparatus should only proceed after a ___ signal has been given by the bus driver or a full stop and the safety of the children is ensured.

A

Safe to pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

In the US, who establishes the basic requirements for licensing of drivers?

A

DOT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

____ law exempts driver operators of emergency vehicles from having a CDL.

A

US Federal law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What factors affect a fire department’s choice of aerial apparatus? (7 things)

A
  1. Maneuverability
  2. the number or responders the apparatus will need to carry
  3. Most common tasks required of the aerial device
  4. Amount of equipment it will carry
  5. Budget
  6. insurance industry recomendations 7. Planning department recomendations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What three categories does NFPA 1901 use to define aerial apparatus?

A
  1. Aerial Ladder
  2. Elevating Platform
  3. Water towers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the most common aerial fire apparatus in North America

A

Aerial ladder apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

How high should an aerial device be able to reach above grade?

A

65 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the primary function of the turntable?

A

To provide continuous rotation of the aerial device on a horizontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the working height range of North American made aerial ladders?

A

50 to 135 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How do you measure the working height for aerial ladders?

A

From the ground to the highest rung with the ladder at max elevation and extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Overseas some aerial ladders can reach in excess of ___

A

200 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Are tractor drawn apparatus or single straight vehicles more maneuverable?

A

Generally tractor drawn are more maneuverable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Manufacturers are building in a minimum jackknife angle of ____. Beyond this angle, the device is blocked out.

A

30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How tall must the foot plate be around an aerial platform?

A

4 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the required floor area for a platform?

A

14 square feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

On an aerial platform no opening under the railing can be greater than ___.

A

24 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How many operator control stations are required for elevating platforms?

A

TWO, one at street level and one in the platform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Is a backup hydraulic system required for elevated platform apparatus?

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What happens if the heat reflective shield of an aerial platform is aged, dirty, or damaged?

A

It can lose its ability to reflect heat, shields that have been damaged must be replaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

As required by NFPA 1901, a ____ is also necessary on the bottom of the platform

A

Protective water fog curtain nozzle (75 gpm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The water fog curtain nozzle should flow at least ___ per NFPA 1901

A

75 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the load requirements for elevating platforms when fully extended at any elevation?

A

750 pounds with no water in the pipe or 500 pounds if there is water in the pipe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What must the water delivery system of an elevated platform be capable of discharging?

A

1000 gpm at 100 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the requirements for setting up an elevating platform less than 110 feet?

A

Raised from bedded position to max extension and elevation and rotated 90 degrees within 150 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Is there a time requirement for setting an elevating platform taller than 110 feet?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Is a communication system between the two control stations required?

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

How is the working height of an aerial ladder platform determined?

A

From the ground to the top surface of the highest platform handrail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are common sizes for aerial ladder platforms?

A

85 to 110 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the most common aerial ladder platform in service today?

A

Straight chassis, three-axle vehicle with rear mounted aerial device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the small ladder attached to the boom of a telescoping aerial platform used for?

A

Emergency escape for firefighters working in the platform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are common sizes for telescoping aerial platforms?

A

75 to 100 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Where can hydraulic lines, air lines, electrical cords, and waterways be kept when a telescoping aerial platform is made of box beam construction?

A

Within the center or on the outside of the box beam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

With tubular truss construction of telescoping apparatus, tubular steel is welded to form a box shape using ____ or ___ truss design.

A

Cantilever or triangle truss design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is an additional benefit of an articulating aerial platform?

A

Enables the platform to go “Up and over”, which may be especially useful during rescue operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Standard articulatingaerial platforms range in height from ___ to ___.

A

55 to 85 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

When an aerial device both telescopes and articulates where do they extend?

A

These devices typically consist of two or more telescoping booms on each side of the articulating hinge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

An aerial device with a large telescoping boom and an articulating end on the last fly section may range in height from ___ to ___.

A

90 to 174 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Where is a water tower controlled?

A

By the D/O at ground level, controls are located either at the rear of the apparatus or on the midship pump panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

A water tower fire stream is designed to be deployed at a range of elevations starting from ___ to ___

A

A few degrees below horizontal to nearly 90 degrees from the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are common sizes for water towers?

A

50 to 130 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Water tower are capable of flows from ___ to ___.

A

1000 to 5000 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

If a water tower is equipped with a ladder and it does not meet NFPA 1901 it is recommended that these devices be used only as ___

A

Emergency escape routes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the 5 components of a quint?

A
  1. Fire pump
  2. Water tank
  3. Supply and attack hose
  4. Ground ladders
  5. Pre-piped waterway on the aerial apparatus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

How large might a pump on an aerial apparatus be?

A

2000 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

____ establishes the number of sections and minimum reach required of an aerial apparatus

A

NFPA 1901

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are the two most common materials for construction of aerial apparatus?

A

Heat treated aluminum alloy and steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How can the fabricated structural members of an aerial be fastened? (3 ways)

A

Rivets, welded (steel), or heliarced (aluminum alloy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

NFPA 1901 establishes requirements for the dimensions of ____.

A

Sections and structural members of the aerial ladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

How were some early aerial devices operated?

A

Manually by any one of several designs including spring operated and gear driven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are the four main components of a hydraulic system?

A

actuators, Hydraulic fluid, hydraulic pump, and a hydraulic reservoir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How is the aerial hydraulic pump powered?

A

By a PTO arrangement off the vehicle’s main engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What type of pump is the aerial hydraulic pump?

A

load sensing piston pump, rotary vane pump, or rotary gear positive-displacement pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Hydraulic fluid is used because it is practically ___.

A

Incompressible and it allows force to be transmitted over a relatively large distance with little loss of power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

The hydraulic fluid may be under pressure up to ___.

A

3500 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Pinhole leaks are capable of ___.

A

Cutting through human tissue and may also cause severe burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

How does the hydraulic reservoir condition the hydraulic fluid?

A

It allows air, heat, and foreign matter to be eliminated from the fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What can be used to supplement the hydraulic reservoirs ability to condition the fluid?

A

A filter and exchange type oil cooler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What type of hydraulic hose do most manufacturers use?

A

Steel tubing and aircraft type, steel braided hose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Hydraulic hose must be rated to withstand pressures at least ___ times greater than normal operating pressure.

A

FOUR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Valves designed to prevent unintentional or undesirable motion of an aerial device from position

A

Counterbalance valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

One of the more important valves in the system is the ____ (also known as the ____ or ____ valve). This is a three way valve that directs fluid to either the stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves

A

Selector valve (transfer or diverter valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Which valves are used to direct and control the power in the system AFTER the selector valve has been positioned? (4 valve types)

A

Actuator valves, monitor valves, stack valves, and proportional directional valves; These valves tend to be 4 or 5 way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Does NFPA 1901 require an aux hydraulic pump?

A

YES; usually 12V DC but can be 110 AC; works at a reduced speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

How should an aux hydraulic pump be operated?

A

A minute on with a minute rest in between operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are double acting cylinders?

A

Cylinders that can receive pressure from both ways; can transmit force in only 2 directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

How many cylinders does a stabilizer have?

A

One or Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What are other names for hoisting cylinders?

A

Elevating or lift cylinders; their function is to elevate the aerial device from its stowed position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is normal hydraulic pressure for hoisting cylinders?

A

850 to 3000 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is a trunnion?

A

The pivoting end or the piston rod that is connected to the anchor ear by the heel pin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

In newer apparatus when the hoisting cylinder has an integral safety valve how can the ladder be lowered?

A

Manually bleeding the pressure with a bleed down valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Describe extension cylinders

A

Dual acting that work to extend the second fly section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What are extension and retraction cables made of and called?

A

Corrosion and abrasion resistant aircraft quality cables called plow steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

On most aerial apparatus, the lower aerial device control pedestal is located on the ____

A

Turntable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Turntables generally operate on ___

A

Large sheer ball type bearings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is the usual height of the operator’s control pedestal?

A

3.5 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

For apparatus equipped with a platform, NFPA 1901 also requires a control station ___

A

In the platform; the controls on the turntable should be able to override the platform controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What order should the aerial control levers be in?

A

Extension, rotation, elevation from left to right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What type of apparatus may use a joystick to control the aerial device?

A

Water towers, telescoping platforms, and articulating platforms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are the two types of pre-piped waterway systems

A

Bed ladder systems and telescoping waterway systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Controls and instruments that may be located on the control pedestal (13 items)

A

engine speed switch, light switches, overide switches, breathing air level gauge, hydraulic oil pressure gauge, hydraulic oil temp gauge, aerial deadman foot switch, load chart and load minder, water flow gauge, cradle indicatior light, extension indicators, stop and lock controls, rund alignment indicatior, inclinometer, hour meter for ladder opp time, nozzle stow indicator, engine starter switch, communications equipment, elevated master stream controls, hydraulic lock valve, rescue/waterway switch, auxiliary hydraulic pump or emergency pump switch, switch for the emergency operation pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What size pipe is used for bed ladder waterway systems?

A

3 or 3.5 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is the intake for a bed ladder waterway system

A

Two or three way siamese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What type of nozzle are bed ladder waterway systems usually equipped with?

A

Solid stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Most bed ladder pipes are equipped with ____ operated nozzles

A

Manually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Ladders that are ___ feet or shorter and equipped with a telescoping water system have the piping that extends directly to the tip of the fly section

A

110 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What are telescoping water pipes usually made of?

A

Aluminum or other metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is the internal diameter of telescoping water pipes?

A

Usually 4 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Most telescoping water systems are capable of flows up to ___

A

1000 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What are the main components of the detachable ladder pipe system?

A

The ladder pipe itself, fire hose, hose straps, and a clappered siamese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

A detachable ladder pipe system may be equipped with which type nozzle?

A

Fog or solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

How is a detachable ladder pipe controlled?

A

Usually at the tip of the ladder by a firefighter, but can be with ropes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What are typical flows for detachable ladder pipe systems?

A

Less than 750 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Detachable ladder pipes are usually what size?

A

3 to 3.5 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

How many locations should the hose of a detachable ladder pipe be attached to the ladder?

A

two or three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What are allowable horizontal range of movement for detachable ladder pipes?

A

15 degrees either way; 30 degrees total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Can ladder pipes be used when the aerial is positioned at 90 degrees?

A

It should not; Place the ladder between 70 and 80 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Platform apparatus may be able to flow up to ____

A

2000 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Some ____ are equipped with video cameras at the tip of the aerial device

A

Water towers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

A piercing nozzle attached to a water tower system is capable of flows up to ____

A

300 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

The communication device on the tip of the ladder is ___ while the one at the turntable control station does not have to be ___

A

Hands free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

NFPA 1901 now REQUIRES a two way communication system on all aerial device apparatus. When possible, IFSTA recommends that all aerial devices without a communication system ___

A

Be retrofitted to include one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

T/F In some cases, the facepiece air hose may be long enough to allow the firefighter the ability to leave the aerial device and work remotely from it while still connected to the breathing air system.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Does NFPA 1901 require aerial devices to be equipped with breathing air systems?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What requirements does NFPA 1901 establish for breathing air systems if an aerial is equipped? (5 things)

A
  1. Number of firefighters to be supported by the system
  2. Capacity of the compressed air cylinders
  3. Pressure requirements of the piping system
  4. Low air warning alarms
  5. Conformity to government regulations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

NFPA 1989

A

Standard on Breathing Air Quality for Emergency Services Respiratory Protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

____are the most common power source used for emergency services and can be portable or fixed to the apparatus

A

Generators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

The inverter is a step-up transformer that converts the vehicles __ or __ DC current to __ or __ AC current

A

12 or 24 to 110 or 220

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Inverters are generally capable of providing up to ___ watts of electric power. They are most commonly used to power ___

A

5000 watts; vehicle mounted floodlights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Most portable generators are designed to be carried by __ or __ people.

A

One or Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Some portable generators are capable of running for ___ and generating over ___ of power.

A

10 hours; 10,000 watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Vehicle mounted generators can be powered by __, __, or __ engines or by __ or __ systems.

A

Gas, or diesel engines or hydraulic or PTO systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Vehicle mounted power plants usually have 110 and 220 volt capabilities with up to ___ watts of power available.

A

12,000 watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

It is common to find up to ___ watt vehicle mounted generators on rescue vehicles.

A

50,000 watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Portable lights generally range from ___ to ___ watts

A

300 to 1000 watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

With fixed lights, the bank of lights usually will have a capability of __ to __ watts per light

A

500 to 1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Does NFPA 1901 contain requirements for lights at the tip of the aerial device??

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What is the most common size electric power cord?

A

12-gauge, 3 wire type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

How often should you examine electrical power cords?

A

Daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Electrical power cords must be ___. (4 things)

A

Adequately insulated, contain a ground wire, be waterproof, and have no exposed wires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

How can hydraulic pumps for extrication tools receive power? (4 things)

A

From compressed air, electric motors, two or four cycle motors, or apparatus mounted power take off units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Hydraulic hoses for extrication tools that are ___ feet or greater from the pump may have a diminishing effect on tool operation.

A

100 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

A ___ allows more than one hydraulic extrication tool to be operated off a system at the same time.

A

Manifold block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Which NFPA contains a list of the minimum equipment with which each aerial apparatus should be equipped?

A

NFPA 1901

202
Q

A ladder complement must include at least the following:

A

Attic ladders, Roof ladders, Extension ladders

203
Q

Many fire agencies choose to carry an extension ladder that is ___ feet or longer to reach fourth and fifth story windows. These ladders are called “Pole” ladders.

A

40 feet

204
Q

Pole ladders are equipped with ___

A

Stay Poles, also called tormentors

205
Q

What equipment does NFPA 1901 establish as the minimum requirements for forcible entry.

A

Flathead axes, pick head axes, pike poles, plaster hooks, crowbars, claw tools, sledge hammers, hacksaws and keyhole saws, wrenches, hammers, snipes and pliers, and screwdrivers

206
Q

Hydraulic door openers (also know as ___) are used to force entry through swinging doors.

A

Rabbet tools (for swinging doors)

207
Q

What are two common pieces of equipment used for ventilation?

A

Exhaust fans and positive pressure blowers

208
Q

Smoke ejectors are most commonly powered by ___

A

Built in electric motors

209
Q

How can positive pressure blowers be powered?

A

Electric motors, gas engines, or water driven motors

210
Q

NFPA 1901 requires aerial apparatus to be equipped with multiple salvage covers and __ scoop shovels to assist with salvage and overhaul efforts.

A

TWO

211
Q

When does loss control start?

A

From the minute companies leave the station and continues throughout the entire incident

212
Q

Per NFPA 1901, additional equipment to be carried on the aerial apparatus includes:

A

portable hand lights, portable fire extinguishers, water extinguisher, multiple scba units, spare scba cylinders, medical kit, spanner wrenches, bolt cutters, ladder belts, light use safety rope, general use life safety rope, utility rope, wheel chocks

213
Q

The process of positioning the apparatus at an actual fire incident will be at the discretion of the ___, ___, or the ___ and influenced by ___

A

IC, Truck company officer, or the driver operator; and influenced by conditions of the fireground

214
Q

SOPs for positioning generally apply to aerial apparatus that are assigned to the ___

A

Initial response to an emergency; Later arriving aerials will be positioned according to the IAP or incident management personnel

215
Q

Five stories is equal to about how many feet?

A

60 feet

216
Q

The inside/outside rule assumes that the department is operating aerial devices with a reach of ___

A

100 feet

217
Q

The proper distance between the objective and the aerial apparatus is the distance that affords the __, ___, and ___.

A

Max stability, the best climbing angle, and adequate extension

218
Q

____ at ___ place the maximum amount of stress on an aerial device and, in some cases, reduce the load carrying capacity of that device.

A

Long extensions at low angles

219
Q

What are the four main tactical uses for any aerial device?

A

Rescue, access to upper levels, ventilation, and fire suppression

220
Q

The best rescue approach is made from __ and ____

A

uphill and Upwind

221
Q

What is the preferred procedure to push heat or fire away from the aerial while a rescue operation is in progress?

A

Use a wide-angle fog stream

222
Q

Where should a platform aerial be positioned if the victim will be brought in over the handrail.

A

Turntable directly in line with the target so that the platform is squarely in front of the target

223
Q

Where should a platform aerial be positioned if the victim will enter through the hinged gate?

A

The turntable a little forward or behind the target because the gate is typically on the side of the platform

224
Q

What position often provides a safe position to the fire fighters using the aerial device?

A

Positioning on the side of the building opposite the fire

225
Q

When aerial devices are used to give firefighters access to upper levels they should not be repositioned unless ___

A

Acknowledged and approved by the firefighters who were deployed from the aerial device

226
Q

In order to reduce the risk of personnel injury, whenever possible, tether firefighters to the aerial device with ____. The fire department should check its state ___ regulations regarding this procedure.

A

Rescue quality rope; OSHA

227
Q

The aerial should be placed so that the vent holes will not be cut in the ___

A

Travel path back to the device.

228
Q

Aerial ladders should be extended at least ___ above the roof level.

A

6 feet

229
Q

When operating an aerial platform, the driver/operator should extend the platform so that the floor of the platform is at ___

A

Roof level

230
Q

What is the goal for ladder placement when breaking windows for horizontal ventilation?

A

Upwind of the window and slightly higher so the firefighter does not have to deal with falling glass

231
Q

When the aerial is to be used as an elevated master stream, the driver should position the apparatus to give the fire stream ___

A

As much reach into the fire area as possible

232
Q

What are the three techniques for elevated master streams?

A

Blitz attack, defensive attack, or exposure protection

233
Q

How should the apparatus be positioned if the device is to be used as a master stream close to the ground?

A

Position so that the turntable is directly in line with the intended target

234
Q

A recommended tactic is to direct the master stream at the ___

A

Ceiling of the target fire area

235
Q

Elevated streams are most commonly used in ___

A

Defensive operations

236
Q

Only as a last alternative should apparatus be parked on ___

A

Soft surfaces

237
Q

Manhole covers are a good indication of ___. These surfaces are unstable for the support of aerial apparatus.

A

Underground voids

238
Q

The most common spotting consideration that faces driver operators in cold weather conditions is the ___

A

Presence of ice or snow on the parking surface

239
Q

What is ice shrugging?

A

A method of removing ice; slowly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove accumulated ice

240
Q

If ice shrugging is not effective for large accumulations of ice, ____ may be necessary

A

De-icing fluid

241
Q

When operating in high wind the driver should spot the apparatus in a manner that requires the aerial to be raised to the ___ extension needed.

A

Minimum

242
Q

A good way to operate an aerial in wind is to __

A

Position the apparatus so that the aerial may be used over the front or rear preferably parallel to the wind

243
Q

What is the goal distance to stay away from overhead electric lines?

A

10 ft

244
Q

Personnel on the apparatus are generally considered to be susceptible to electric shocks regardless of ___

A

Whether or not they are in contact with the ground

245
Q

The aerial apparatus is most stable when the aerial device is operated directly over the ___

A

Front or rear of the vehicle (along the longitudinal axis)

246
Q

An angle ___ to the apparatus is the least stable position.

A

Perpendicular

247
Q

If a driver has the entire parking lot to use, he or she should ___ rather than park parallel to the objective.

A

Nose or back the aerial apparatus into position

248
Q

What is the preferred method to position a rear mounted aerial for maximum reach?

A

Back in

249
Q

With jackknifing, the greatest stability occurs when the tractor angle is approx. ____ from in-line and the aerial device is extended away from this angle

A

60 degrees

250
Q

With jackknifing. good stability occurs at angles up to ___, beyond this stability decreases rapidly.

A

90 degrees

251
Q

Modern tillered apparatus may have stabilizer systems that allow them to be adequately stabilized without jackknifing. Even those apparatus become ___

A

More stable when the apparatus is jackknifed

252
Q

When an apparatus must operate off an incline, the driver can reduce stress by spotting the turntable ___ from the point of operation.

A

Downhill

253
Q

Ideally, the truck should be operated in the ___ position with the aerial device directly in-line to reduce the stress

A

Uphill

254
Q

When on a longitudinal grade, generally what type of vehicle can level the truck with the stabilizers?

A

For the most part, it can only be done with single chassis vehicles that are designed to be lifted completely off the ground.

255
Q

What is another term for an unsupported tip position?

A

Cantilever position; supported tip rests on the wall/roof of the building

256
Q

If the manufacturer recommends that its device be operated in a supported position, ___

A

The load or the amount of extension must be reduced for low angles of elevation during unsupported operations

257
Q

The max loading for an unsupported aerial device occurs when operated at angles between ___ from horizontal.

A

70-80 degrees

258
Q

Even if the apparatus is not struck by falling debris, it may be exposed to ___ following a collapse.

A

Higher levels of radiant heat and smoke

259
Q

What are signs that an exterior wall collapse may occur? (6 things)

A

Bulging walls, sagging roofs, large cracks in the exterior, falling bricks blocks or mortar, interior collapse

260
Q

If the fire building is known to be unstable and in poor repair, the aerial device should not be used in a ___ position.

A

Supported

261
Q

Falling debris from upper levels of a building is of particular concern with ___

A

High rise fire incidents

262
Q

If a large response is indicated can a dispatcher initiate level 2 staging?

A

YES

263
Q

Incidents that require ___ or ___ require level 2 staging.

A

Mutual aid or multiple alarms

264
Q

The staging area manager should communicate available resources and resource needs to the ___

A

Operations section chief

265
Q

What is the only vehicle in a level 2 staging area that can have its lights on?

A

The staging area manager vehicle near the entrance to staging; all other apparatus should shut down their engines

266
Q

Once on scene, place headlights in the ___ setting without flashing.

A

Low beam

267
Q

Which aerial apparatus are of particular concern when operating the aerial device on a roadway?

A

Articulating apparatus that have the boom and knuckle behind the apparatus

268
Q

The driver should avoid ___ when responding to bomb threats and other potential terrorist incidents.

A

Staging in the same area

269
Q

Other names for hot zone

A

Restricted zone, exclusion zone, or red zone

270
Q

Most railroad companies advise that vehicles be kept at least ___ from the tracks when possible.

A

25 feet

271
Q

Even if a halt confirmation has been received from a railroad, keep the aerial device at least ___ above the level of the rails as an added safety precaution.

A

25 feet

272
Q

Residential driveways and yards are ___ as stable surfaces for fire apparatus.

A

Not recommended

273
Q

What are the three basic types of aircraft incidents to which aerial apparatus may respond?

A
  1. Aircraft incidents involving extrication
  2. Aircraft incidents involving extrication complicated by fire
  3. Non-incident related aircraft fires
274
Q

Aerial apparatus are more likely to be useful at ___ involving large frame aircraft.

A

Non-accident related fires

275
Q

Where do slides inflate and drop from larger aircraft?

A

From the rear of the wings near the emergency window exits; smaller aircraft slides may drop from the door opening

276
Q

Jumbo jet size specs

A

25000 to 105,000 lbs of thrust, 600 ft ground idle blast danger area (250 ft width), 1600 ft takeoff thrust blast danger area (275 ft width)

277
Q

Med sized jet specs

A

10,000 to 40,000 lbs of thrust, 450 ft ground idle blast danger area (150 ft width), 1200 ft takeoff thrust blast danger area (150 ft width)

278
Q

Executive jet specs

A

Up to 10,000 lbs of thrust, 200 ft ground idle blast danger area (80 ft width), 500 ft takeoff thrust blast area (80 ft width)

279
Q

Where should you stage when responding to a dispatched aircraft emergency landing?

A

Near the expected touchdown area not the final position the aircraft is expected to stop

280
Q

When can you position inside of the dike walls of an elevated petroleum storage tank?

A

When a roadway is built on top of the dike.

281
Q

It is more efficient to discharge foam streams ___.

A

Downwind

282
Q

What are some challenges presented at petroleum processing facilities in regards to positioning the apparatus? (3 things)

A

Narrow driveways, Dead end access, and overhead obstructions

283
Q

What should you do if the apparatus is used solely for person power?

A

Shut down the engine

284
Q

What are some of the many variables which affect the parking distance from a building? (8 things)

A

Size and specifications of apparatus, obstructions, height of the building or target floor, condition of the road surface, weather considerations, traffic conditions, fire conditions, and rescue concerns

285
Q

IFSTA recommends that stabilizers (also called outriggers) and stabilizer pads (also called jack plates) be fully deployed _____ the aerial device is raised from its bed.

A

Every time

286
Q

Even if the device is only raised a few feet from the cradle to open a tilt cab, ___.

A

IFSTA recommends placing the stabilizers in position to minimize stress on the suspension

287
Q

As long as the ___ does not extend outside the base of stability, the apparatus should remain stable.

A

Gravity circle

288
Q

If the apparatus is parked on a lateral grade, the center of gravity (and the theoretical gravity circle) will be shifted to the ___.

A

Lower side

289
Q

Excessive loading on the aerial device will result in an ___ of the gravity circle.

A

Expansion

290
Q

The PTO should not be engaged until ___

A

The aerial apparatus has been properly positioned in accordance with the conditions on the scene

291
Q

A PTO activation switch may be pneumatic, electric, hydraulic or a combination of the three. Pneumatic systems require anywhere from ___ to ___ psi for the PTO to be operated.

A

50 to 140 psi

292
Q

Some apparatus manufacturers recommend that apparatus equipped with engine brakes or retarders ___

A

May need to have that system be shut off prior to engaging the aerial PTO

293
Q

How does a “hot-shift” PTO system work?

A

These systems can be engaged when the main transmission is in neutral.

294
Q

The wheels should have chocks placed both in front of and behind the tire, on both sides of the apparatus, with approx. ___ of extra space for the apparatus to move without causing a wheel chock to become stuck under a tire.

A

An inch

295
Q

Where is the selector valve located to provide power to the stabilizing system?

A

Either on the rear step area or midship on the driver’s side of the apparatus

296
Q

On some makes of apparatus, operation of the selector valve automatically ___

A

Releases the aerial device bed locks

297
Q

Generally there is one control for each of the stabilizers, and ___ control can be operated at a time.

A

More than one

298
Q

Many of the stabilizer hydraulic controls are ____.

A

Lever-type that move up to about 90 degrees

299
Q

On some apparatus, the aerial device cannot be raised unless the extension arms are ___

A

Fully extended

300
Q

What are the usual sizes of stabilizer pads?

A

24 inch by 24 inch

301
Q

When operating on level ground which side is lowered first?

A

It makes no difference

302
Q

When are the stabilizers resting on the pads properly?

A

When the bulge in the tire is removed

303
Q

Some types of apparatus may have ___ that automatically engage once proper stabilization has been achieved

A

Safety interlocks

304
Q

What is a difference in fulcrum stabilizers opposed to H style

A

Fulcrum can only be fully extended, cannot be short jacked

305
Q

Fulcrum stabilizers should be lowered to ___ prior to the placement of the stabilizer pads.

A

Within a few inches of the ground

306
Q

What is easier to correct, lateral or longitudinal uneven terrains?

A

Lateral

307
Q

Correction of lateral unevenness can be achieved on grades of up to __ or __ percent.

A

5 to 6 percent

308
Q

With lateral uneven terrain, Most manufacturers recommend that the stabilizers on the __ side of the vehicle be lowered first.

A

Uphill

309
Q

With uneven lateral terrain, it is preferred that the aerial device be operated over the ___ side of the apparatus.

A

Uphill

310
Q

Referring to longitudinal uneven terrain, articulating apparatus should generally be operated off the ___ of the vehicle whenever possible.

A

Off the rear

311
Q

Most apparatus have restricted loads when operating on grades, some as much as ___

A

One half the normal load

312
Q

On most aerial apparatus, the combination of ___ valves and the ___ provide automatic locking capabilities of the stabilizers.

A

the interlock feature of the selector, hydraulic system holding

313
Q

The ___ prevents the flow of hydraulic fluid into or out of the stabilization system while the aerial device is in use.

A

Interlock

314
Q

The ____ prevent the movement of fluid within the stabilization system.

A

Holding valves

315
Q

It may be necessary to set the holding valves by __.

A

Operating the stabilizer controls once in each direction after the selector valve has been moved to the aerial position.

316
Q

On midship aerials with manual stabilizers, where is the extension arm stored?

A

Perpendicular to the ground

317
Q

With manual stabilizers what do you do if the stabilizer lifts off the pad during aerial operations?

A

Do not adjust it, this is normal load shifting

318
Q

Whenever a tower ladder operation is in progress, the pedestal firefighter ___ be at the pedestal controls to override dangerous basket operation.

A

MUST

319
Q

A driver is fundamentally a technician who must be well trained in the ___ (5 things)

A

Location of each control, its function, how it operates, when it should be used, and the appropriate safety precautions

320
Q

IFSTA does not recommend operating the aerial device using more than ___ motion at a time, even though it is technically possible to do so. This practice is taxing on the hydraulic pump and may lead to an accident and adds undue stress on the aerial device.

A

ONE

321
Q

Describe, in order, the series of motions to position an aerial device for use.

A

Elevation, rotation, extension, lowering

322
Q

Some newer apparatus are equipped with controls that are particularly well suited for simultaneous control such as with __ type controls.

A

Joystick

323
Q

____ regardless of the skill of the operator, should be minimized due to the large amount of dynamic stress placed upon the aerial device when the motion is halted.

A

Full speed operations

324
Q

Step by step procedure to raise the aerial device. (11 steps)

A
  1. Release the hold down locks
  2. Move tiller operation station if necessary
  3. Attach the ladder pipe and make hose connections as needed
  4. Allow personnel to board the elevating platform
  5. Check the intended path of the aerial device for obstructions
  6. Operate the control to elevate the aerial from the bedded position
  7. Rotate the aerial
  8. Extend the aerial
  9. Lower to the objective
  10. Activate all aerial device locks
  11. Climb the aerial device/charge waterway
325
Q

Hold down locks release automatically when the following occurs: (4 things)

A

The power take off is engaged, the stabilizers are fully deployed, the selector valve is switched to aerial, or they may need to be released manually

326
Q

On some units, the whole tiller station is flipped to one side. On others, it is only necessary to ___

A

Remove the steering column

327
Q

When is the safest time to make ladder pipe and hose connections?

A

When the aerial is in the bedded position

328
Q

Each occupant in a platform should connect to a ____ with an approved safety harness.

A

Manufacturer approved portion of the railing

329
Q

The aerial function controls on most aerial devices are directly linked to the ____

A

vehicle’s engine throttle

330
Q

The operator should lift the aerial device to an elevation that is ___ than that required to reach the target area.

A

Slightly higher

331
Q

Less experienced drivers may find it easier to sight along the ___ of the ladder as it is being extended.

A

Top rails

332
Q

The aerial device should be positioned approx. ___ above the surface of the target and allowed to settle onto the surface from the weight of the firefighters on board the device.

A

4 to 6 inches

333
Q

Do electrical interlocks need to be activated?

A

NO

334
Q

List some types of aerial device locks (3 things)

A

Hoisting cylinder locks (elevation locks), rotational locks, and extension fly locks

335
Q

Personnel should not be allowed on the ladder until the ___

A

Locks are engaged

336
Q

Engaging (seating) the extension locks is an important step in making the aerial ladder a ___

A

Rigid structure

337
Q

In order to properly drain the waterway what should be opened?

A

Both ends of the system (nozzle and intake valve)

338
Q

At least __ of the waterway system should remain open during the lowering process to avoid air from becoming pressurized in the system.

A

ONE end

339
Q

It may be necessary to ___ some aerial ladders in order to disengage the extension locks.

A

Slightly extend

340
Q

In some cases, it may be necessary to use the ___ retraction control when the aerial device is at a low angle or there is ice buildup on the device.

A

Power assist

341
Q

On some apparatus, the ladder must be ___ in order to remove and attach the ladder pipe.

A

Extended a few rungs

342
Q

Some manufacturers recommend that once the device is on the rest, the lowering control should be operated with a ___ to ensure that the device is firmly seated on the rest and that the hold down locks are engaged

A

Quick downward motion

343
Q

On most new apparatus, the hold down locks are automatically activated when ___ or __.

A

The selector valve is switched from the aerial device to the stabilizer position or when the PTO is disengaged

344
Q

When do most aerial ladder failures or apparatus overturning occur?

A

It involves a combination of overloading and overextension of the ladder at low angles of elevation

345
Q

Since __, NFPA 1901 has established minimum load requirements for aerial ladders

A

1991

346
Q

The ___ edition of NFPA 1901 expands these load requirements and stipulates that the ladder must be capable of accommodating the ___.

A

2009; minimum load from the tip of the ladder when fully extended

347
Q

As long as water is flowing, the ___ from the ladder pipe helps to counteract the force of gravity and assists in supporting the extra weight of the ladder.

A

Nozzle reaction; this is why failures may occur shortly after the water supply to the ladder pipe was shut off.

348
Q

What are the keys to operating on a grade? (3 things)

A

Optimum positioning, proper stabilization, and knowing load restrictions for the given grade

349
Q

Most manufacturers allow full aerial operation at winds of up to __ or __ mph

A

35 or 40 mph

350
Q

Aerial devices should not be operated in winds above ___.

A

40 mph

351
Q

Older manufacturers (seagrave, pirsch, maxim, american lafrance) recommend the use of guy ropes when?

A

Winds exceeding 35 mph and when necessary to extend the ladder more than 75 feet

352
Q

Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: small trees in motion; whitecaps visible on ponds and small lakes.

A

15-24 mph

353
Q

Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: Large tree branches in motion; whistling heard in utility wires

A

25-31 mph

354
Q

Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: Whole trees in motion; inconvenience felt walking against wind

A

32-38 mph

355
Q

Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: Twigs break off trees walking against the wind is generally impeded minor building damage

A

39-54 mph

356
Q

If guy ropes are used on an older model aerial, when can the tension be eased off?

A

When the ladder is in position, supported against the building, unless the wind is of extraordinary velocity

357
Q

Low air temperatures result in increased viscosity of the ___, slowing the overall operation of the equipment

A

Hydraulic oil

358
Q

What is effective to prevent immediate ice adhesion to the aerial device?

A

Apply grease to exposed sliding surfaces

359
Q

Is heat damage to the aerial device always visible?

A

No

360
Q

What are some obvious signs of heat damage to an aerial? (4 things)

A

Discoloration, disfiguration, deformed weld, or improper mechanical response of any working portion of the aerial device

361
Q

What NFPA refers to recommended out of service OOS criteria?

A

NFPA 1911

362
Q

An adequate training program requires frequent practice. Drivers should practice ___ when possible or perhaps ___, depending on the arrangement of the fire department shift schedule.

A

Once a week or perhaps on the first day of a work cycle

363
Q

The ___ mounted in the platform after delivery must be considered when determining the rated capacity of the platform.

A

Weight of equipment

364
Q

Aerial devices are designed to handle ___ loads.

A

Perpendicular

365
Q

The gathering of what conditions will greatly aid any professional reviews of the incident to determine the exact cause leading to the failure. (3 things)

A

Weather, load, or emergency factors

366
Q

Factors such as ___, __ and ___ contribute to aerial device failure.

A

Maintenance, operator knowledge, and operator awareness

367
Q

What are the two types of articulating aerial platforms?

A

Water towers (sometimes configured as snozzles) and aerial platforms

368
Q

If other apparatus, particularly ___, position too close to the articulating aerial apparatus, its aerial device operating space may be impeded to the point of making it inoperable.

A

Telescoping aerial apparatus

369
Q

Some articulating platforms are also equipped with ___ that support the platform during road travel.

A

Basket stabilizers

370
Q

The most common of the articulating aerial platforms has both ___ and ___.

A

Upper boom hold down locks and basket stabilizers

371
Q

When the basket stabilizer arms are released, they must be __

A

Flipped up and stowed on the platform

372
Q

Many articulating elevating platforms have a switch on the ___ that is used to activate or deactivate the platform control panel.

A

Turntable control station panel

373
Q

When operating the aerial device from the lower control station, the driver should stand on an ___.

A

Anti-electrocution platform

374
Q

Unlike telescoping aerial devices, there is ___ for elevating, rotating, extending, and lowering articulating aerial devices.

A

No set procedure

375
Q

Articulating platforms should ___ be operated ___ of the turntable.

A

Always; forward

376
Q

If the articulating device is to be used for deploying an elevated master stream, ___ first and then operate the stream.

A

Position the device

377
Q

The ___ should be activated if the aerial device is going to remain stationary for an extended period of time.

A

Cylinder locks

378
Q

There is ___ of damaging the waterway system while lowering an articulating device, However, a drained waterway reduces the amount of stress placed on the device and its components.

A

Little chance

379
Q

When you are lowering the articulating device into the boom travel cradle, how should the booms be kept?

A

As close to each other as practicably possible

380
Q

This step is necessary only for those devices manufactured by the Snorkel company. Both the upper boom hold down locks and the platform stabilizers must be manually attached to the aerial device.

A

Hook and latch the upper boom hold down locks and the platform stabilizer arms

381
Q

Situations in which the floor of the platform and/or the knuckles between the boom are not parallel to the ground can result in a ___

A

Twisting force on the entire aerial device system.

382
Q

How much does 1 cubic inch of ice weigh?

A

0.03 lb

383
Q

What are the less obvious effects of cold weather?

A

Physical changes in the properties of the steel structural members of the device

384
Q

When subjected to extreme cold (sub zero) the device should be operated in a manner that will minimize or eliminate ___ to its structural members.

A

Shock loading

385
Q

How are water curtain nozzles operated?

A

Usually by some type of foot pedal or valve on the floor of the platform

386
Q

All manufacturers of articulating aerial apparatus include ___

A

Precautionary measures and recommendations for safe operation in their operator’s handbook

387
Q

During master stream operations, the maximum load capacity of the personnel platform decreases in direct proportions to the ___

A

Nozzle reaction force in pounds

388
Q

Caution must be exercised when operating near power lines, even if ___.

A

The upper boom and personnel platform are insulated

389
Q

To avoid unsafe positioning of the tip of the aerial platform, the operator should always ___.

A

Rotate that turntable until it faces the working area before the final position

390
Q

Failure of the aerial device can usually be blamed on ___

A

Improper maintenance or lack of operator knowledge and awareness

391
Q

With a superior training program and strong fire department SOPs aerial device failures may be ___

A

Eliminated.

392
Q

When a department uses pumper sized apparatus for a quint, how long might the aerial ladders be?

A

50 or 75 feet

393
Q

How can valves be controlled?

A

Manually, electrically, hydraulically, mechanically, or a combination of any

394
Q

Which valve acts as a safety feature if there is a leak?

A

Check valve

395
Q

What converts the hydraulic power to mechanical force?

A

The actuators (hydraulic cylinders)

396
Q

Where is the ladder pipe designed to be clamped?

A

The top two rungs on the fly section

397
Q

Where is water most commonly pumped from for a water tower?

A

The pump on the apparatus

398
Q

Loss control activities include (4 things)

A

Safe driving skills, water application techniques, salvage, and overhaul

399
Q

Things to consider when spotting an aerial apparatus (5 things)

A

Surface conditions, weather and wind, electrical hazards, angle and location of operation, and fire building conditions

400
Q

For max reach, a midship mounted aerial should

A

Nose in

401
Q

When approaching from the uphill side

A

pull the apparatus past the building and operate the aerial device from the rear

402
Q

When approaching from the downhill side

A

stop short of the building and operate the aerial over the cab

403
Q

Apparatus placement at the scene of a fire or medical incident is limited by

A

the order in which responding apparatus arrive

404
Q

What facilitates the orderly positioning of apparatus?

A

A staging procedure

405
Q

What zone is the hazmat control officer in?

A

Warm zone

406
Q

With lateral uneven terrain and you must operate on the downhill side, what should you consider?

A

Less amounts of extension and loading

407
Q

When parked on longitudinal grades you should not

A

Extend or retract over the side of the apparatus

408
Q

There has never been a recorded failure of an aerial device with properly engaged extension locks at an elevation of at least __ with proper loading

A

50 degrees

409
Q

To engage extension locks you may need to

A

slightly retract

410
Q

When lowering the aerial device, when should you check for obstructions?

A

After retraction before rotation

411
Q

Loads that are steady, motionless, constant, or applied gradually

A

Static loads

412
Q

The knuckle is of particular concern when

A

operating at low angles

413
Q

Areas of potential ice damage for articulating aerials

A

platform, knuckle, or turntable

414
Q

Technical advances and improvements are designed to do what?

A

For the most part they are designed to supplement the use of water against a fire or to increase its efficiency.

415
Q

NFPA 1410

A

Standard on Training for initial Emergency Scene Operations, provides an objective method of measuring performance for initial fire suppression and rescue procedures using available personnel and equipment

416
Q

NFPA 1410 specifies…

A

Specifies basic evolutions that can be adapted to local conditions

417
Q

Three major tactical priorities on the fireground

A

Life safety, Extinguishment, Property conservation – Listed in order that they should be carried out, but can be done simultaneously

418
Q

4 ways that heat travels

A

Convection, radiation, conduction, and direct flame contact

419
Q

What is in plentiful supply in structural fire situations?

A

Fuel and oxygen

420
Q

Convection cycle

A

Heat transferred by circulation with a medium such as a gas or liquid

421
Q

Which heat transfer method is responsible for the need for ventilation?

A

Convection

422
Q

Modern building codes are aimed at limiting fire spread by convection through fire resistant construction, which is intended to confine convection currents to __

A

One floor or to a small area of a floor

423
Q

Which heat transfer method is the greatest cause for exposure fires after the fire has built to sizable proportions?

A

Radiation

424
Q

Will ventilation help remove radiant heat?

A

Not really, radiant heat must be counteracted with water on the seat of the fire

425
Q

Which heat transfer method is usually the least of the problems

A

Conduction, but it should not be overlooked

426
Q

Conduction can cause steel members to fail. 100’ steel expansion at 1000F?

A

9 inches

427
Q

Rollover

A

A condition where unburned products of combustion from a fire accumulate at the ceiling level in a sufficient concentration that they ignite momentarily.

428
Q

Does radiation alone generally cause flashover?

A

No, it is usually a combination of radiation and convection

429
Q

Incomplete combustion causes what gas to be produced more?

A

Carbon Monoxide

430
Q

How can fire fighter’s control backdraft?

A

By using proper ventilation and fire attack procedures

431
Q

A fire department must operate using what system on the fireground?

A

Incident Management System (IMS), this is required by law

432
Q

What are the primary responsibilities of an engine company?

A

Life safety and applying water to the fire

433
Q

9 basic firefighting tasks of an engine company

A

search and rescue, water supply, use attack lines, use backup lines, protect exposures, use master streams, tactical use of protective systems, property conservation, and overhaul

434
Q

Special attention should be given to which engine company task?

A

primary search

435
Q

3 additional size up factors

A

time of day, weather conditions, and life safety considerations

436
Q

The IMS system must have an….

A

overall strategic plan

437
Q

Who is responsible for the strategic plan?

A

The incident commander

438
Q

__ will determine how you prolong your actions - along with the location and intensity of the fire.

A

Proper sizeup

439
Q

Engine company personnel should have a good working knowledge of their __

A

first alarm district

440
Q

Equipment should be chosen for its…? (two things)

A

quality and dependability

441
Q

In regards to personnel, equipment should be chosen…

A

that allows a limited number of fire fighters to carry out fire-ground operation safely and efficiently

442
Q

It is the responsibility of the __ to ensure that the fire apparatus and the equipment carried on such apparatus is compliant, adequate, and functional for the task.

A

AHJ

443
Q

The engine itself should be equipped with a pump having a rated capacity of no less than __ GPM and a water tank that carries at least __ gallons of water.

A

750 GPM; 300 gallons

444
Q

The operational objective is to arrive at the scene of the emergency with the necessary equipment for __

A

immediate life safety operations and emergency control

445
Q

NFPA 1901 requires a minimum hose storage for 2.5 inch or larger hose of __

A

30 cubic feet

446
Q

NFPA 1901 requires two areas with minimum of __ cubic feet to accomodate 1.5 inch or larger preconnects.

A

3.5 cubic feet

447
Q

Which size hoses can be used with a divided hose bed?

A

2.5, 3, 4, 5 inch hoses

448
Q

NFPA 1901 requires a minimum of __ ft of 1.5, 1.75, or 2 inch hose.

A

400 ft

449
Q

Preconnected hose lines of 1.5 or 1.75 inch should not exceed __ ft in length because of excessive friction loss.

A

250 ft

450
Q

What are the most common lengths for preconnects?

A

150 or 200 ft

451
Q

NFPA 1901 requires a minimum of __ ft of 2.5 inch hose.

A

800 ft

452
Q

Because of the reduced nozzle pressure and lower nozzle reaction, a line with a ___ nozzle will be easier to maneuver and operate inside the fire building.

A

Solid stream nozzle

453
Q

What is the type of nozzle where the tip is equipped with a screw down tread at the end, usually attached to 2.5 inch.

A

Leader line type, so that a smaller hose line can be added to the end.

454
Q

A supply hose is an LDH of __ inches or larger.

A

3.5 inches

455
Q

NFPA 1142

A

Standard on water supplies for suburban and rural fire fighting

456
Q

NFPA 1142 states that where delivery rates exceed __ gallons per minute and water is moved a long way, an LDH is most efficient

A

500 gpm

457
Q

A 4 inch LDH flows almost __ times the capacity of a 2.5 inch

A

3.5 times

458
Q

A nozzles purpose is to convert __ to __

A

pressure energy to velocity energy

459
Q

What nozzles does NFPA require?

A

One combination spray nozzle, 200 gpm min
Two combination spray nozzle, 95 gpm min
And one playpipe, with shutoff and 1-, 1-1/8-, and 1-1/4- tips

460
Q

Solid stream handlines may have nozzle tips up to __ in diameter

A

1-1/4 inch

461
Q

At 50 psi an 1-1/8 inch tip on a 2.5 inch hose will flow __

A

250 gpm

462
Q

At winds above __ you will need to use a straight tip for penetration.

A

30 mph

463
Q

In most interior structure operations, the fog pattern of a spray nozzle is no greater than __

A

30 degrees

464
Q

NFPA 1901 recommends a master stream appliance of __ gpm minimum.

A

1000 gpm

465
Q

When the master stream appliance is not preconnected, __ short sections ( __ to __ in length) of 2.5 or 3 inch hose or and LDH should be rolled in doughnut rolls and connected to the appliance.

A

One or two; 15 to 25 feet

466
Q

NFPA 1901 requires a min of __ ft of soft section hose or __ ft of hard suction hose.

A

15 ft soft or 20 ft hard suction hose

467
Q

Pumpers will carry a min of __ __-foot section of hard sleeves (hard suction)

A

2 10-foot sections

468
Q

A side or rear intake may be used, but normally the soft suction hose is connected to the __

A

front intake

469
Q

Which intake location is most efficient when drafting?

A

Side intake because it is closer to the pump; front intake permits easier maneuvering and better positioning

470
Q

Engine ops book recommends connecting __ valves to the 2.5 inch connections on a hydrant

A

Ball valves, IFSTA says gate valves

471
Q

Where there are no ladder trucks in service, pumpers should normally be equipped with a __ extension ladder.

A

35 foot extension ladder

472
Q

Name some special circumstances that ladders can be used. (5 things)

A

Ice rescues, bridging incidents, shoring, hoisting operations, and damming operations

473
Q

What are the 4 basic hose lays for supply hose?

A
  1. Forward lay using a charged supply line
  2. forward lay using an uncharged supply line
  3. Direct to fire - no line laid (or split lay)
  4. Reverse lay using a charged line
474
Q

Which type of supply lay is useful when narrow driveways or limited access may hamper operations at the fire building?

A

Forward lay using an uncharged supply line

475
Q

When must the first arriving company officer ensure that the company has laid and charged its own supply line for water supply?

A

If he notes that the fire is serious or if smoke or fire is showing

476
Q

The direct to fire approach for water supply is quite effective in areas that __

A

do not have hydrant systems

477
Q

One of the disadvantages of the direct to fire approach for water supply is __

A

There is little or no margin of safety for attack crews.

478
Q

When performing a reverse lay, __ should dictate what fire fighters should remove from the pumper before it proceeds to the hydrant.

A

Standard operating guidelines

479
Q

__ should mandate apparatus placement.

A

SOGs

480
Q

NFPA 1620

A

Recommended Practice for pre incident planning

481
Q

A preincident plan should not be confused with a __, which monitors code compliance.

A

Fire inspection

482
Q

The following factors should be evaluated when assessing the potential situations that could affect a facility during emergency conditions: (7 things)

A
  1. Construction (access to buildings),
  2. Occupant characteristics (life safety considerations),
  3. Protection systems,
  4. Capabilities of responding personnel,
  5. Availability of mutual aid,
  6. Water supply,
  7. Exposure factors
483
Q

Companies should not be assigned a task unless there is __

A

A task for them to perform

484
Q

Consideration should be given to the following factors when developing a schedule for preincident plans: (7 things)

A
  1. Potential life safety hazard,
  2. Structural size and complexity,
  3. Value,
  4. Importance to the community,
  5. Location,
  6. Presence of chemicals,
  7. Susceptibility to natural disasters
485
Q

Proper positioning of a pumper at a fire depends on: (6 items)

A
  1. Physical characteristics of the structure,
  2. Location of the structure,
  3. Availability or lack of water supply,
  4. Normal alarm response pattern with companies in quarters,
  5. Size and location of the fire,
  6. Need for aerial apparatus
486
Q

When positioning, It should be common practice for the first arriving pumper to __

A

Pull past the fire building in order to get a view of 3 sides and allow room for aerials

487
Q

Define “coverage” as used in the Engine company ops book

A

The assignment of companies to particular portions of the fire ground for sizeup and to accomplish any or all of the objectives of a fire operation.

488
Q

What is the first and most basic step in coverage?

A

Positioning the apparatus

489
Q

In approaching a building with a wide frontage, the pumper should be positioned at the __

A

Entrance that is most accessible to the fire

490
Q

In standpiped buildings, the intakes are usually near the __

A

Front entrance

491
Q

When no rear access to a detached building is available, pumpers need to be positioned __ so that hose lines and equipment can be carried to the rear.

A

In front of the building or at the end of the building row

492
Q

If possible, ladders (aerial and ground ladders) should be placed on __ of a building for access and egress from the building.

A

All four sides

493
Q

How should set back buildings with limited access be handled?

A

The first engine should approach as close to the building as fire and wind conditions permit. The second engine should locate to the rear of the first and then proceed on foot to provide rear or side coverage.

494
Q

Where do many fires start in mercantile areas?

A

In the work/storage sections behind the sales floor

495
Q

In a mercantile area, how should the main body of fire in the rear be attacked?

A

From the front or unburned side of the building

496
Q

Garden apartments are usually limited in height to __

A

Three or four stories

497
Q

Do garden apartments have good or poor construction?

A

Poor

498
Q

For high rise buildings, the first arriving company should be positioned so that crew members have ready access to __ and __

A

The front entrance and to standpipe inlets and outlets

499
Q

Ordinarily, the first arriving engine covers the __ of the fire building; the second covers the __ and other responding companies should be __

A

Front; rear; directed by command

500
Q

All members are expected to operate under a __

A

Risk management profile

Promo Stuff (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions