B's Flashcards 501-1000
1
Q
What is the most common size of asphalt shingle?
A
12x36 inches
2
Q
Asphalt shingles use heavy sheets of asphalt impregnated felt made from __
A
Rag, paper, or wool fiber
3
Q
Roofing slate can be split as thin as __ although it may be as thick as __
A
1/16 inches; 1-1/2 inches
4
Q
Roofing slate can have a life expectancy of __
A
150 years
5
Q
Roofing slate weighs approx __
A
8 to 36 lbs/sq ft
6
Q
Curved clay tiles are known as __
A
mission tiles
7
Q
What are some other types of tiles used for roof coverings? (3 things)
A
Porcelainized aluminum, mineral-based materials, and composite materials
8
Q
Do wood shingles have the be nailed to a solid deck?
A
No, they can be nailed to an open deck with wood strips which may cause early failure in a fire
9
Q
Wood shingles are installed in an overlapping method so that only about __ of the length of shingle is actually exposed to the weather.
A
One-third
10
Q
These shingles produce a rustic appearance and may be more resistant to wind damage than asphalt shingles.
A
Wood roof shingles and shakes
11
Q
Does the fire retardant treatment of wood shingles and shakes remain effective after exposure to the elements?
A
Experience says yes
12
Q
Asphalt shingles are __
A
Fundamentally combustible
13
Q
Metal roof coverings make use of several materials including __ (6 things)
A
galvanized iron or steel, copper, zinc, aluminum, and lead
14
Q
The spacing between purlins for metal roofs can be from __ to __
A
2 to 6 feet, no roof deck required
15
Q
What type of nails should be used for metal roofs?
A
Nails that are the same metal as the metal sheeting to prevent galvanic action
16
Q
NFPA 256
A
Standard method of fire tests of roof coverings; also designated ASTM E-108
17
Q
What is the sample size for a NFPA 256 test?
A
3 feet 4 inches by 4 feet 4 inches
18
Q
What are the six test procedures in the NFPA 256 test?
A
Intermittent flame exposure test, burning brand test, flying brand test, rain test, weathering test, and spread of flame test
19
Q
For the NFPA 256 test, the individual test procedures may be repeated from __ to __ times on different
A
2 to 15 times
20
Q
How are the fire ratings of roof coverings classified?
A
Class A (severe fire exposure), Class B (moderate), Class C (light)
21
Q
The layer of earth required for a rooftop garden can vary from __
A
a few inches to 1 or 2 feet
22
Q
Dead load for a green roof can vary from __
A
20 to 150 lb per square foot
23
Q
In some parts of the US, a penthouse is referred to as a __
A
Bulkhead
24
Q
Skylights are sometimes provided with __ to facilitate normal building ventilation
A
operable glass panes
25
For safety purposes, building codes require __ or __ in skylights
wired or tempered glass; they can also be plastic domes
26
The combustible nature of a buildings structural system will impact the
Rate of fire growth
27
What five material properties is fire resistance a function of?
Combustibility, Thermal conductivity, chemical composition, density, and dimensions
28
When was a standardized test method for floor construction adopted by ASTM?
1907, Walls in 1909
29
When was NFPA 251 adopted?
1917
30
Does the E-119 test evaluate flame spread?
NO
31
When was ASCE SFPE 29 developed?
1997
32
Type 3 construction may also be called
Exterior protected
33
What designation is type 4 construction?
2 H H
34
At what height does an apartment building go from type 1-B to type 1-A?
12 stories or more
35
IBC building classification H?
High hazard
36
IBC building classification I?
Institutional
37
When can the IRC - residential code govern over the IBC?
One and two family dwellings not more than 3 stories
38
What must the fire resistance be between a daycare and a restaurant in the same building?
2 hours
39
How does the combustibility of interior finishes affect the behavior of fire? (4 ways)
1. Flame spread over the surface, 2. Rate of fire growth, 3. Adds to the intensity, 4. Smoke and toxic gases
40
Is chair railing considered interior finish?
Yes
41
What typre of fire resistant coating forms a thick non-combustible coating?
Mastics
42
How high does a building have to be to require a 2-hour rated stairwell enclosure?
Taller than 3 stories
43
How do fire doors differ from oridinary doors?
Construction, Hardware, and automatic closures
44
What is the highest rating of a fire door?
4 hours
45
Solid lumber rafters can be up to how long?
24 feet
46
Are particle board panals single layer or multiple layer?
Can be both
47
Flame spread rating of fire retardent treated wood?
25 or less
48
Is the mortise or the tenon the hole?
Mortise
49
What materials can be used for draft stops?
1-inch nominal lumber, gypsum, wood panels, or cement fiberboard
50
Who publishes the international wildland urban interface code?
ICC(international code council)
51
What factors are used to evaluate hazard severity in wildland urban interface?
Ground slope, clear space around, water supply, and climate
52
How many types of morter are there?
5
53
What are frequently supported by pilasters?
vertical beams in a masonry wall
54
Firefighters should always assume a masonry wall will fall out a distance at least equal to
1.5 times the height
55
Roof framing dimensions for mill construction
4 by 6 inches
56
Columns supporting roofs in mill construction
6 by 8 inches
57
What increases the strength and toughness of steel?
Vanandium
58
What increases steels resistance to abraison?
Manganese
59
Other ingrediants in spray applied cementious materials.
Magnesium oxychloride, Oxysulfate, Calcium Aluminate, Phosphate, and Ammonium sulfate
60
Are intumescent coatings or SFRMs thicker?
SFRMs
61
Advantages of intumescent and mastic coatings?
Lighter weight, durable surfaces, good adhesion, and most aesthetically pleasing
62
Are gypsum panels used for drop ceilings?
yes
63
Does concrete resist insects and effects of soil contact?
yes
64
Name 7 types of concrete.
Ordinary stone, structural lightweight, insulating lightweight, gypsum concrete, high early strength, expansive, and water permeable
65
When a mansard roof is constructed with a flat deck on top it may be called
a modern mansard or deck roof
66
What type of roof deck might become especially spongy?
Wood plank roof deck
67
According to data compiled by NIOSH, the number of firefighter fatalities occurring while responding to or returning from emergencies is second only to the number of fatalities resulting from ____
suddon cardiac arrest
68
The required levels of physical and mental skills needed by D/O are usually determined by
The AHJ
69
D/O must also meet the requirements of ____
NFPA 1001 Firefighter 1
70
Give a list of physical activities that a D/O may be required to do: (5 things)
1. Connecting heavy appliances to the aerial
2. Deploying ground ladders
3. Placing steel stabilizer pads
4. Performing heavy rescue activities
5. Operating power tools on unstable surfaces
71
NFPA 1582
Comprehensive Occupational Medical program for fire departments; this may be used as the criteria upon which the medical evaluation is based
72
Which NFPA provides very specific requirements about vision?
NFPA 1582
73
NFPA 1582 recommends what if a firefighter cannot hear all the frequencies of a hearing test
Reject the candidate
74
What are the two most important criteria for determining who will become a D/O
Skill and ability
75
What might some volunteer departments do for truck drivers?
Allow lateral transfers to driver, they still must meet NFPA 1001 and 1002
76
What does an effective training program consist of? (3 things)
Appropriate amounts of classroom instruction, practical training in the field, and testing
77
NFPA 1451
Standard for a fire service vehicle operations training program
78
At what level are most laws and statutes concerning motor vehicle operation maintained?
State or provincial level
79
When encountering a bus with red lights, the fire apparatus should only proceed after a ___ signal has been given by the bus driver or a full stop and the safety of the children is ensured.
Safe to pass
80
In the US, who establishes the basic requirements for licensing of drivers?
DOT
81
____ law exempts driver operators of emergency vehicles from having a CDL.
US Federal law
82
What factors affect a fire department's choice of aerial apparatus? (7 things)
1. Maneuverability
2. the number or responders the apparatus will need to carry
3. Most common tasks required of the aerial device
4. Amount of equipment it will carry
5. Budget
6. insurance industry recomendations 7. Planning department recomendations
83
What three categories does NFPA 1901 use to define aerial apparatus?
1. Aerial Ladder
2. Elevating Platform
3. Water towers
84
What is the most common aerial fire apparatus in North America
Aerial ladder apparatus
85
How high should an aerial device be able to reach above grade?
65 ft
86
What is the primary function of the turntable?
To provide continuous rotation of the aerial device on a horizontal plane
87
What is the working height range of North American made aerial ladders?
50 to 135 feet
88
How do you measure the working height for aerial ladders?
From the ground to the highest rung with the ladder at max elevation and extension
89
Overseas some aerial ladders can reach in excess of ___
200 feet
90
Are tractor drawn apparatus or single straight vehicles more maneuverable?
Generally tractor drawn are more maneuverable
91
Manufacturers are building in a minimum jackknife angle of ____. Beyond this angle, the device is blocked out.
30 degrees
92
How tall must the foot plate be around an aerial platform?
4 inches
93
What is the required floor area for a platform?
14 square feet
94
On an aerial platform no opening under the railing can be greater than ___.
24 inches
95
How many operator control stations are required for elevating platforms?
TWO, one at street level and one in the platform
96
Is a backup hydraulic system required for elevated platform apparatus?
YES
97
What happens if the heat reflective shield of an aerial platform is aged, dirty, or damaged?
It can lose its ability to reflect heat, shields that have been damaged must be replaced
98
As required by NFPA 1901, a ____ is also necessary on the bottom of the platform
Protective water fog curtain nozzle (75 gpm)
99
The water fog curtain nozzle should flow at least ___ per NFPA 1901
75 gpm
100
What are the load requirements for elevating platforms when fully extended at any elevation?
750 pounds with no water in the pipe or 500 pounds if there is water in the pipe
101
What must the water delivery system of an elevated platform be capable of discharging?
1000 gpm at 100 psi
102
What are the requirements for setting up an elevating platform less than 110 feet?
Raised from bedded position to max extension and elevation and rotated 90 degrees within 150 seconds
103
Is there a time requirement for setting an elevating platform taller than 110 feet?
NO
104
Is a communication system between the two control stations required?
YES
105
How is the working height of an aerial ladder platform determined?
From the ground to the top surface of the highest platform handrail
106
What are common sizes for aerial ladder platforms?
85 to 110 feet
107
What is the most common aerial ladder platform in service today?
Straight chassis, three-axle vehicle with rear mounted aerial device
108
What is the small ladder attached to the boom of a telescoping aerial platform used for?
Emergency escape for firefighters working in the platform
109
What are common sizes for telescoping aerial platforms?
75 to 100 feet
110
Where can hydraulic lines, air lines, electrical cords, and waterways be kept when a telescoping aerial platform is made of box beam construction?
Within the center or on the outside of the box beam
111
With tubular truss construction of telescoping apparatus, tubular steel is welded to form a box shape using ____ or ___ truss design.
Cantilever or triangle truss design
112
What is an additional benefit of an articulating aerial platform?
Enables the platform to go "Up and over", which may be especially useful during rescue operations
113
Standard articulatingaerial platforms range in height from ___ to ___.
55 to 85 feet
114
When an aerial device both telescopes and articulates where do they extend?
These devices typically consist of two or more telescoping booms on each side of the articulating hinge
115
An aerial device with a large telescoping boom and an articulating end on the last fly section may range in height from ___ to ___.
90 to 174 feet
116
Where is a water tower controlled?
By the D/O at ground level, controls are located either at the rear of the apparatus or on the midship pump panel
117
A water tower fire stream is designed to be deployed at a range of elevations starting from ___ to ___
A few degrees below horizontal to nearly 90 degrees from the ground
118
What are common sizes for water towers?
50 to 130 feet
119
Water tower are capable of flows from ___ to ___.
1000 to 5000 gpm
120
If a water tower is equipped with a ladder and it does not meet NFPA 1901 it is recommended that these devices be used only as ___
Emergency escape routes
121
What are the 5 components of a quint?
1. Fire pump
2. Water tank
3. Supply and attack hose
4. Ground ladders
5. Pre-piped waterway on the aerial apparatus
122
How large might a pump on an aerial apparatus be?
2000 gpm
123
____ establishes the number of sections and minimum reach required of an aerial apparatus
NFPA 1901
124
What are the two most common materials for construction of aerial apparatus?
Heat treated aluminum alloy and steel
125
How can the fabricated structural members of an aerial be fastened? (3 ways)
Rivets, welded (steel), or heliarced (aluminum alloy)
126
NFPA 1901 establishes requirements for the dimensions of ____.
Sections and structural members of the aerial ladder
127
How were some early aerial devices operated?
Manually by any one of several designs including spring operated and gear driven
128
What are the four main components of a hydraulic system?
actuators, Hydraulic fluid, hydraulic pump, and a hydraulic reservoir
129
How is the aerial hydraulic pump powered?
By a PTO arrangement off the vehicle's main engine
130
What type of pump is the aerial hydraulic pump?
load sensing piston pump, rotary vane pump, or rotary gear positive-displacement pump
131
Hydraulic fluid is used because it is practically ___.
Incompressible and it allows force to be transmitted over a relatively large distance with little loss of power
132
The hydraulic fluid may be under pressure up to ___.
3500 psi
133
Pinhole leaks are capable of ___.
Cutting through human tissue and may also cause severe burns
134
How does the hydraulic reservoir condition the hydraulic fluid?
It allows air, heat, and foreign matter to be eliminated from the fluid.
135
What can be used to supplement the hydraulic reservoirs ability to condition the fluid?
A filter and exchange type oil cooler
136
What type of hydraulic hose do most manufacturers use?
Steel tubing and aircraft type, steel braided hose.
137
Hydraulic hose must be rated to withstand pressures at least ___ times greater than normal operating pressure.
FOUR
138
Valves designed to prevent unintentional or undesirable motion of an aerial device from position
Counterbalance valve
139
One of the more important valves in the system is the ____ (also known as the ____ or ____ valve). This is a three way valve that directs fluid to either the stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves
Selector valve (transfer or diverter valve)
140
Which valves are used to direct and control the power in the system AFTER the selector valve has been positioned? (4 valve types)
Actuator valves, monitor valves, stack valves, and proportional directional valves; These valves tend to be 4 or 5 way
141
Does NFPA 1901 require an aux hydraulic pump?
YES; usually 12V DC but can be 110 AC; works at a reduced speed
142
How should an aux hydraulic pump be operated?
A minute on with a minute rest in between operations
143
What are double acting cylinders?
Cylinders that can receive pressure from both ways; can transmit force in only 2 directions
144
How many cylinders does a stabilizer have?
One or Two
145
What are other names for hoisting cylinders?
Elevating or lift cylinders; their function is to elevate the aerial device from its stowed position
146
What is normal hydraulic pressure for hoisting cylinders?
850 to 3000 psi
147
What is a trunnion?
The pivoting end or the piston rod that is connected to the anchor ear by the heel pin
148
In newer apparatus when the hoisting cylinder has an integral safety valve how can the ladder be lowered?
Manually bleeding the pressure with a bleed down valve
149
Describe extension cylinders
Dual acting that work to extend the second fly section
150
What are extension and retraction cables made of and called?
Corrosion and abrasion resistant aircraft quality cables called plow steel
151
On most aerial apparatus, the lower aerial device control pedestal is located on the ____
Turntable
152
Turntables generally operate on ___
Large sheer ball type bearings
153
What is the usual height of the operator's control pedestal?
3.5 feet
154
For apparatus equipped with a platform, NFPA 1901 also requires a control station ___
In the platform; the controls on the turntable should be able to override the platform controls
155
What order should the aerial control levers be in?
Extension, rotation, elevation from left to right
156
What type of apparatus may use a joystick to control the aerial device?
Water towers, telescoping platforms, and articulating platforms
157
What are the two types of pre-piped waterway systems
Bed ladder systems and telescoping waterway systems
158
Controls and instruments that may be located on the control pedestal (13 items)
engine speed switch, light switches, overide switches, breathing air level gauge, hydraulic oil pressure gauge, hydraulic oil temp gauge, aerial deadman foot switch, load chart and load minder, water flow gauge, cradle indicatior light, extension indicators, stop and lock controls, rund alignment indicatior, inclinometer, hour meter for ladder opp time, nozzle stow indicator, engine starter switch, communications equipment, elevated master stream controls, hydraulic lock valve, rescue/waterway switch, auxiliary hydraulic pump or emergency pump switch, switch for the emergency operation pump
159
What size pipe is used for bed ladder waterway systems?
3 or 3.5 inch
160
What is the intake for a bed ladder waterway system
Two or three way siamese
161
What type of nozzle are bed ladder waterway systems usually equipped with?
Solid stream
162
Most bed ladder pipes are equipped with ____ operated nozzles
Manually
163
Ladders that are ___ feet or shorter and equipped with a telescoping water system have the piping that extends directly to the tip of the fly section
110 feet
164
What are telescoping water pipes usually made of?
Aluminum or other metal
165
What is the internal diameter of telescoping water pipes?
Usually 4 inches
166
Most telescoping water systems are capable of flows up to ___
1000 gpm
167
What are the main components of the detachable ladder pipe system?
The ladder pipe itself, fire hose, hose straps, and a clappered siamese
168
A detachable ladder pipe system may be equipped with which type nozzle?
Fog or solid
169
How is a detachable ladder pipe controlled?
Usually at the tip of the ladder by a firefighter, but can be with ropes
170
What are typical flows for detachable ladder pipe systems?
Less than 750 gpm
171
Detachable ladder pipes are usually what size?
3 to 3.5 inch
172
How many locations should the hose of a detachable ladder pipe be attached to the ladder?
two or three
173
What are allowable horizontal range of movement for detachable ladder pipes?
15 degrees either way; 30 degrees total
174
Can ladder pipes be used when the aerial is positioned at 90 degrees?
It should not; Place the ladder between 70 and 80 degrees
175
Platform apparatus may be able to flow up to ____
2000 gpm
176
Some ____ are equipped with video cameras at the tip of the aerial device
Water towers
177
A piercing nozzle attached to a water tower system is capable of flows up to ____
300 gpm
178
The communication device on the tip of the ladder is ___ while the one at the turntable control station does not have to be ___
Hands free
179
NFPA 1901 now REQUIRES a two way communication system on all aerial device apparatus. When possible, IFSTA recommends that all aerial devices without a communication system ___
Be retrofitted to include one
180
T/F In some cases, the facepiece air hose may be long enough to allow the firefighter the ability to leave the aerial device and work remotely from it while still connected to the breathing air system.
TRUE
181
Does NFPA 1901 require aerial devices to be equipped with breathing air systems?
NO
182
What requirements does NFPA 1901 establish for breathing air systems if an aerial is equipped? (5 things)
1. Number of firefighters to be supported by the system
2. Capacity of the compressed air cylinders
3. Pressure requirements of the piping system
4. Low air warning alarms
5. Conformity to government regulations
183
NFPA 1989
Standard on Breathing Air Quality for Emergency Services Respiratory Protection
184
____are the most common power source used for emergency services and can be portable or fixed to the apparatus
Generators
185
The inverter is a step-up transformer that converts the vehicles __ or __ DC current to __ or __ AC current
12 or 24 to 110 or 220
186
Inverters are generally capable of providing up to ___ watts of electric power. They are most commonly used to power ___
5000 watts; vehicle mounted floodlights
187
Most portable generators are designed to be carried by __ or __ people.
One or Two
188
Some portable generators are capable of running for ___ and generating over ___ of power.
10 hours; 10,000 watts
189
Vehicle mounted generators can be powered by __, __, or __ engines or by __ or __ systems.
Gas, or diesel engines or hydraulic or PTO systems
190
Vehicle mounted power plants usually have 110 and 220 volt capabilities with up to ___ watts of power available.
12,000 watts
191
It is common to find up to ___ watt vehicle mounted generators on rescue vehicles.
50,000 watts
192
Portable lights generally range from ___ to ___ watts
300 to 1000 watts
193
With fixed lights, the bank of lights usually will have a capability of __ to __ watts per light
500 to 1500
194
Does NFPA 1901 contain requirements for lights at the tip of the aerial device??
NO
195
What is the most common size electric power cord?
12-gauge, 3 wire type
196
How often should you examine electrical power cords?
Daily
197
Electrical power cords must be ___. (4 things)
Adequately insulated, contain a ground wire, be waterproof, and have no exposed wires
198
How can hydraulic pumps for extrication tools receive power? (4 things)
From compressed air, electric motors, two or four cycle motors, or apparatus mounted power take off units
199
Hydraulic hoses for extrication tools that are ___ feet or greater from the pump may have a diminishing effect on tool operation.
100 feet
200
A ___ allows more than one hydraulic extrication tool to be operated off a system at the same time.
Manifold block
201
Which NFPA contains a list of the minimum equipment with which each aerial apparatus should be equipped?
NFPA 1901
202
A ladder complement must include at least the following:
Attic ladders, Roof ladders, Extension ladders
203
Many fire agencies choose to carry an extension ladder that is ___ feet or longer to reach fourth and fifth story windows. These ladders are called "Pole" ladders.
40 feet
204
Pole ladders are equipped with ___
Stay Poles, also called tormentors
205
What equipment does NFPA 1901 establish as the minimum requirements for forcible entry.
Flathead axes, pick head axes, pike poles, plaster hooks, crowbars, claw tools, sledge hammers, hacksaws and keyhole saws, wrenches, hammers, snipes and pliers, and screwdrivers
206
Hydraulic door openers (also know as ___) are used to force entry through swinging doors.
Rabbet tools (for swinging doors)
207
What are two common pieces of equipment used for ventilation?
Exhaust fans and positive pressure blowers
208
Smoke ejectors are most commonly powered by ___
Built in electric motors
209
How can positive pressure blowers be powered?
Electric motors, gas engines, or water driven motors
210
NFPA 1901 requires aerial apparatus to be equipped with multiple salvage covers and __ scoop shovels to assist with salvage and overhaul efforts.
TWO
211
When does loss control start?
From the minute companies leave the station and continues throughout the entire incident
212
Per NFPA 1901, additional equipment to be carried on the aerial apparatus includes:
portable hand lights, portable fire extinguishers, water extinguisher, multiple scba units, spare scba cylinders, medical kit, spanner wrenches, bolt cutters, ladder belts, light use safety rope, general use life safety rope, utility rope, wheel chocks
213
The process of positioning the apparatus at an actual fire incident will be at the discretion of the ___, ___, or the ___ and influenced by ___
IC, Truck company officer, or the driver operator; and influenced by conditions of the fireground
214
SOPs for positioning generally apply to aerial apparatus that are assigned to the ___
Initial response to an emergency; Later arriving aerials will be positioned according to the IAP or incident management personnel
215
Five stories is equal to about how many feet?
60 feet
216
The inside/outside rule assumes that the department is operating aerial devices with a reach of ___
100 feet
217
The proper distance between the objective and the aerial apparatus is the distance that affords the __, ___, and ___.
Max stability, the best climbing angle, and adequate extension
218
____ at ___ place the maximum amount of stress on an aerial device and, in some cases, reduce the load carrying capacity of that device.
Long extensions at low angles
219
What are the four main tactical uses for any aerial device?
Rescue, access to upper levels, ventilation, and fire suppression
220
The best rescue approach is made from __ and ____
uphill and Upwind
221
What is the preferred procedure to push heat or fire away from the aerial while a rescue operation is in progress?
Use a wide-angle fog stream
222
Where should a platform aerial be positioned if the victim will be brought in over the handrail.
Turntable directly in line with the target so that the platform is squarely in front of the target
223
Where should a platform aerial be positioned if the victim will enter through the hinged gate?
The turntable a little forward or behind the target because the gate is typically on the side of the platform
224
What position often provides a safe position to the fire fighters using the aerial device?
Positioning on the side of the building opposite the fire
225
When aerial devices are used to give firefighters access to upper levels they should not be repositioned unless ___
Acknowledged and approved by the firefighters who were deployed from the aerial device
226
In order to reduce the risk of personnel injury, whenever possible, tether firefighters to the aerial device with ____. The fire department should check its state ___ regulations regarding this procedure.
Rescue quality rope; OSHA
227
The aerial should be placed so that the vent holes will not be cut in the ___
Travel path back to the device.
228
Aerial ladders should be extended at least ___ above the roof level.
6 feet
229
When operating an aerial platform, the driver/operator should extend the platform so that the floor of the platform is at ___
Roof level
230
What is the goal for ladder placement when breaking windows for horizontal ventilation?
Upwind of the window and slightly higher so the firefighter does not have to deal with falling glass
231
When the aerial is to be used as an elevated master stream, the driver should position the apparatus to give the fire stream ___
As much reach into the fire area as possible
232
What are the three techniques for elevated master streams?
Blitz attack, defensive attack, or exposure protection
233
How should the apparatus be positioned if the device is to be used as a master stream close to the ground?
Position so that the turntable is directly in line with the intended target
234
A recommended tactic is to direct the master stream at the ___
Ceiling of the target fire area
235
Elevated streams are most commonly used in ___
Defensive operations
236
Only as a last alternative should apparatus be parked on ___
Soft surfaces
237
Manhole covers are a good indication of ___. These surfaces are unstable for the support of aerial apparatus.
Underground voids
238
The most common spotting consideration that faces driver operators in cold weather conditions is the ___
Presence of ice or snow on the parking surface
239
What is ice shrugging?
A method of removing ice; slowly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove accumulated ice
240
If ice shrugging is not effective for large accumulations of ice, ____ may be necessary
De-icing fluid
241
When operating in high wind the driver should spot the apparatus in a manner that requires the aerial to be raised to the ___ extension needed.
Minimum
242
A good way to operate an aerial in wind is to __
Position the apparatus so that the aerial may be used over the front or rear preferably parallel to the wind
243
What is the goal distance to stay away from overhead electric lines?
10 ft
244
Personnel on the apparatus are generally considered to be susceptible to electric shocks regardless of ___
Whether or not they are in contact with the ground
245
The aerial apparatus is most stable when the aerial device is operated directly over the ___
Front or rear of the vehicle (along the longitudinal axis)
246
An angle ___ to the apparatus is the least stable position.
Perpendicular
247
If a driver has the entire parking lot to use, he or she should ___ rather than park parallel to the objective.
Nose or back the aerial apparatus into position
248
What is the preferred method to position a rear mounted aerial for maximum reach?
Back in
249
With jackknifing, the greatest stability occurs when the tractor angle is approx. ____ from in-line and the aerial device is extended away from this angle
60 degrees
250
With jackknifing. good stability occurs at angles up to ___, beyond this stability decreases rapidly.
90 degrees
251
Modern tillered apparatus may have stabilizer systems that allow them to be adequately stabilized without jackknifing. Even those apparatus become ___
More stable when the apparatus is jackknifed
252
When an apparatus must operate off an incline, the driver can reduce stress by spotting the turntable ___ from the point of operation.
Downhill
253
Ideally, the truck should be operated in the ___ position with the aerial device directly in-line to reduce the stress
Uphill
254
When on a longitudinal grade, generally what type of vehicle can level the truck with the stabilizers?
For the most part, it can only be done with single chassis vehicles that are designed to be lifted completely off the ground.
255
What is another term for an unsupported tip position?
Cantilever position; supported tip rests on the wall/roof of the building
256
If the manufacturer recommends that its device be operated in a supported position, ___
The load or the amount of extension must be reduced for low angles of elevation during unsupported operations
257
The max loading for an unsupported aerial device occurs when operated at angles between ___ from horizontal.
70-80 degrees
258
Even if the apparatus is not struck by falling debris, it may be exposed to ___ following a collapse.
Higher levels of radiant heat and smoke
259
What are signs that an exterior wall collapse may occur? (6 things)
Bulging walls, sagging roofs, large cracks in the exterior, falling bricks blocks or mortar, interior collapse
260
If the fire building is known to be unstable and in poor repair, the aerial device should not be used in a ___ position.
Supported
261
Falling debris from upper levels of a building is of particular concern with ___
High rise fire incidents
262
If a large response is indicated can a dispatcher initiate level 2 staging?
YES
263
Incidents that require ___ or ___ require level 2 staging.
Mutual aid or multiple alarms
264
The staging area manager should communicate available resources and resource needs to the ___
Operations section chief
265
What is the only vehicle in a level 2 staging area that can have its lights on?
The staging area manager vehicle near the entrance to staging; all other apparatus should shut down their engines
266
Once on scene, place headlights in the ___ setting without flashing.
Low beam
267
Which aerial apparatus are of particular concern when operating the aerial device on a roadway?
Articulating apparatus that have the boom and knuckle behind the apparatus
268
The driver should avoid ___ when responding to bomb threats and other potential terrorist incidents.
Staging in the same area
269
Other names for hot zone
Restricted zone, exclusion zone, or red zone
270
Most railroad companies advise that vehicles be kept at least ___ from the tracks when possible.
25 feet
271
Even if a halt confirmation has been received from a railroad, keep the aerial device at least ___ above the level of the rails as an added safety precaution.
25 feet
272
Residential driveways and yards are ___ as stable surfaces for fire apparatus.
Not recommended
273
What are the three basic types of aircraft incidents to which aerial apparatus may respond?
1. Aircraft incidents involving extrication
2. Aircraft incidents involving extrication complicated by fire
3. Non-incident related aircraft fires
274
Aerial apparatus are more likely to be useful at ___ involving large frame aircraft.
Non-accident related fires
275
Where do slides inflate and drop from larger aircraft?
From the rear of the wings near the emergency window exits; smaller aircraft slides may drop from the door opening
276
Jumbo jet size specs
25000 to 105,000 lbs of thrust, 600 ft ground idle blast danger area (250 ft width), 1600 ft takeoff thrust blast danger area (275 ft width)
277
Med sized jet specs
10,000 to 40,000 lbs of thrust, 450 ft ground idle blast danger area (150 ft width), 1200 ft takeoff thrust blast danger area (150 ft width)
278
Executive jet specs
Up to 10,000 lbs of thrust, 200 ft ground idle blast danger area (80 ft width), 500 ft takeoff thrust blast area (80 ft width)
279
Where should you stage when responding to a dispatched aircraft emergency landing?
Near the expected touchdown area not the final position the aircraft is expected to stop
280
When can you position inside of the dike walls of an elevated petroleum storage tank?
When a roadway is built on top of the dike.
281
It is more efficient to discharge foam streams ___.
Downwind
282
What are some challenges presented at petroleum processing facilities in regards to positioning the apparatus? (3 things)
Narrow driveways, Dead end access, and overhead obstructions
283
What should you do if the apparatus is used solely for person power?
Shut down the engine
284
What are some of the many variables which affect the parking distance from a building? (8 things)
Size and specifications of apparatus, obstructions, height of the building or target floor, condition of the road surface, weather considerations, traffic conditions, fire conditions, and rescue concerns
285
IFSTA recommends that stabilizers (also called outriggers) and stabilizer pads (also called jack plates) be fully deployed _____ the aerial device is raised from its bed.
Every time
286
Even if the device is only raised a few feet from the cradle to open a tilt cab, ___.
IFSTA recommends placing the stabilizers in position to minimize stress on the suspension
287
As long as the ___ does not extend outside the base of stability, the apparatus should remain stable.
Gravity circle
288
If the apparatus is parked on a lateral grade, the center of gravity (and the theoretical gravity circle) will be shifted to the ___.
Lower side
289
Excessive loading on the aerial device will result in an ___ of the gravity circle.
Expansion
290
The PTO should not be engaged until ___
The aerial apparatus has been properly positioned in accordance with the conditions on the scene
291
A PTO activation switch may be pneumatic, electric, hydraulic or a combination of the three. Pneumatic systems require anywhere from ___ to ___ psi for the PTO to be operated.
50 to 140 psi
292
Some apparatus manufacturers recommend that apparatus equipped with engine brakes or retarders ___
May need to have that system be shut off prior to engaging the aerial PTO
293
How does a "hot-shift" PTO system work?
These systems can be engaged when the main transmission is in neutral.
294
The wheels should have chocks placed both in front of and behind the tire, on both sides of the apparatus, with approx. ___ of extra space for the apparatus to move without causing a wheel chock to become stuck under a tire.
An inch
295
Where is the selector valve located to provide power to the stabilizing system?
Either on the rear step area or midship on the driver's side of the apparatus
296
On some makes of apparatus, operation of the selector valve automatically ___
Releases the aerial device bed locks
297
Generally there is one control for each of the stabilizers, and ___ control can be operated at a time.
More than one
298
Many of the stabilizer hydraulic controls are ____.
Lever-type that move up to about 90 degrees
299
On some apparatus, the aerial device cannot be raised unless the extension arms are ___
Fully extended
300
What are the usual sizes of stabilizer pads?
24 inch by 24 inch
301
When operating on level ground which side is lowered first?
It makes no difference
302
When are the stabilizers resting on the pads properly?
When the bulge in the tire is removed
303
Some types of apparatus may have ___ that automatically engage once proper stabilization has been achieved
Safety interlocks
304
What is a difference in fulcrum stabilizers opposed to H style
Fulcrum can only be fully extended, cannot be short jacked
305
Fulcrum stabilizers should be lowered to ___ prior to the placement of the stabilizer pads.
Within a few inches of the ground
306
What is easier to correct, lateral or longitudinal uneven terrains?
Lateral
307
Correction of lateral unevenness can be achieved on grades of up to __ or __ percent.
5 to 6 percent
308
With lateral uneven terrain, Most manufacturers recommend that the stabilizers on the __ side of the vehicle be lowered first.
Uphill
309
With uneven lateral terrain, it is preferred that the aerial device be operated over the ___ side of the apparatus.
Uphill
310
Referring to longitudinal uneven terrain, articulating apparatus should generally be operated off the ___ of the vehicle whenever possible.
Off the rear
311
Most apparatus have restricted loads when operating on grades, some as much as ___
One half the normal load
312
On most aerial apparatus, the combination of ___ valves and the ___ provide automatic locking capabilities of the stabilizers.
the interlock feature of the selector, hydraulic system holding
313
The ___ prevents the flow of hydraulic fluid into or out of the stabilization system while the aerial device is in use.
Interlock
314
The ____ prevent the movement of fluid within the stabilization system.
Holding valves
315
It may be necessary to set the holding valves by __.
Operating the stabilizer controls once in each direction after the selector valve has been moved to the aerial position.
316
On midship aerials with manual stabilizers, where is the extension arm stored?
Perpendicular to the ground
317
With manual stabilizers what do you do if the stabilizer lifts off the pad during aerial operations?
Do not adjust it, this is normal load shifting
318
Whenever a tower ladder operation is in progress, the pedestal firefighter ___ be at the pedestal controls to override dangerous basket operation.
MUST
319
A driver is fundamentally a technician who must be well trained in the ___ (5 things)
Location of each control, its function, how it operates, when it should be used, and the appropriate safety precautions
320
IFSTA does not recommend operating the aerial device using more than ___ motion at a time, even though it is technically possible to do so. This practice is taxing on the hydraulic pump and may lead to an accident and adds undue stress on the aerial device.
ONE
321
Describe, in order, the series of motions to position an aerial device for use.
Elevation, rotation, extension, lowering
322
Some newer apparatus are equipped with controls that are particularly well suited for simultaneous control such as with __ type controls.
Joystick
323
____ regardless of the skill of the operator, should be minimized due to the large amount of dynamic stress placed upon the aerial device when the motion is halted.
Full speed operations
324
Step by step procedure to raise the aerial device. (11 steps)
1. Release the hold down locks
2. Move tiller operation station if necessary
3. Attach the ladder pipe and make hose connections as needed
4. Allow personnel to board the elevating platform
5. Check the intended path of the aerial device for obstructions
6. Operate the control to elevate the aerial from the bedded position
7. Rotate the aerial
8. Extend the aerial
9. Lower to the objective
10. Activate all aerial device locks
11. Climb the aerial device/charge waterway
325
Hold down locks release automatically when the following occurs: (4 things)
The power take off is engaged, the stabilizers are fully deployed, the selector valve is switched to aerial, or they may need to be released manually
326
On some units, the whole tiller station is flipped to one side. On others, it is only necessary to ___
Remove the steering column
327
When is the safest time to make ladder pipe and hose connections?
When the aerial is in the bedded position
328
Each occupant in a platform should connect to a ____ with an approved safety harness.
Manufacturer approved portion of the railing
329
The aerial function controls on most aerial devices are directly linked to the ____
vehicle's engine throttle
330
The operator should lift the aerial device to an elevation that is ___ than that required to reach the target area.
Slightly higher
331
Less experienced drivers may find it easier to sight along the ___ of the ladder as it is being extended.
Top rails
332
The aerial device should be positioned approx. ___ above the surface of the target and allowed to settle onto the surface from the weight of the firefighters on board the device.
4 to 6 inches
333
Do electrical interlocks need to be activated?
NO
334
List some types of aerial device locks (3 things)
Hoisting cylinder locks (elevation locks), rotational locks, and extension fly locks
335
Personnel should not be allowed on the ladder until the ___
Locks are engaged
336
Engaging (seating) the extension locks is an important step in making the aerial ladder a ___
Rigid structure
337
In order to properly drain the waterway what should be opened?
Both ends of the system (nozzle and intake valve)
338
At least __ of the waterway system should remain open during the lowering process to avoid air from becoming pressurized in the system.
ONE end
339
It may be necessary to ___ some aerial ladders in order to disengage the extension locks.
Slightly extend
340
In some cases, it may be necessary to use the ___ retraction control when the aerial device is at a low angle or there is ice buildup on the device.
Power assist
341
On some apparatus, the ladder must be ___ in order to remove and attach the ladder pipe.
Extended a few rungs
342
Some manufacturers recommend that once the device is on the rest, the lowering control should be operated with a ___ to ensure that the device is firmly seated on the rest and that the hold down locks are engaged
Quick downward motion
343
On most new apparatus, the hold down locks are automatically activated when ___ or __.
The selector valve is switched from the aerial device to the stabilizer position or when the PTO is disengaged
344
When do most aerial ladder failures or apparatus overturning occur?
It involves a combination of overloading and overextension of the ladder at low angles of elevation
345
Since __, NFPA 1901 has established minimum load requirements for aerial ladders
1991
346
The ___ edition of NFPA 1901 expands these load requirements and stipulates that the ladder must be capable of accommodating the ___.
2009; minimum load from the tip of the ladder when fully extended
347
As long as water is flowing, the ___ from the ladder pipe helps to counteract the force of gravity and assists in supporting the extra weight of the ladder.
Nozzle reaction; this is why failures may occur shortly after the water supply to the ladder pipe was shut off.
348
What are the keys to operating on a grade? (3 things)
Optimum positioning, proper stabilization, and knowing load restrictions for the given grade
349
Most manufacturers allow full aerial operation at winds of up to __ or __ mph
35 or 40 mph
350
Aerial devices should not be operated in winds above ___.
40 mph
351
Older manufacturers (seagrave, pirsch, maxim, american lafrance) recommend the use of guy ropes when?
Winds exceeding 35 mph and when necessary to extend the ladder more than 75 feet
352
Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: small trees in motion; whitecaps visible on ponds and small lakes.
15-24 mph
353
Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: Large tree branches in motion; whistling heard in utility wires
25-31 mph
354
Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: Whole trees in motion; inconvenience felt walking against wind
32-38 mph
355
Estimated wind speed for the following visual conditions: Twigs break off trees walking against the wind is generally impeded minor building damage
39-54 mph
356
If guy ropes are used on an older model aerial, when can the tension be eased off?
When the ladder is in position, supported against the building, unless the wind is of extraordinary velocity
357
Low air temperatures result in increased viscosity of the ___, slowing the overall operation of the equipment
Hydraulic oil
358
What is effective to prevent immediate ice adhesion to the aerial device?
Apply grease to exposed sliding surfaces
359
Is heat damage to the aerial device always visible?
No
360
What are some obvious signs of heat damage to an aerial? (4 things)
Discoloration, disfiguration, deformed weld, or improper mechanical response of any working portion of the aerial device
361
What NFPA refers to recommended out of service OOS criteria?
NFPA 1911
362
An adequate training program requires frequent practice. Drivers should practice ___ when possible or perhaps ___, depending on the arrangement of the fire department shift schedule.
Once a week or perhaps on the first day of a work cycle
363
The ___ mounted in the platform after delivery must be considered when determining the rated capacity of the platform.
Weight of equipment
364
Aerial devices are designed to handle ___ loads.
Perpendicular
365
The gathering of what conditions will greatly aid any professional reviews of the incident to determine the exact cause leading to the failure. (3 things)
Weather, load, or emergency factors
366
Factors such as ___, __ and ___ contribute to aerial device failure.
Maintenance, operator knowledge, and operator awareness
367
What are the two types of articulating aerial platforms?
Water towers (sometimes configured as snozzles) and aerial platforms
368
If other apparatus, particularly ___, position too close to the articulating aerial apparatus, its aerial device operating space may be impeded to the point of making it inoperable.
Telescoping aerial apparatus
369
Some articulating platforms are also equipped with ___ that support the platform during road travel.
Basket stabilizers
370
The most common of the articulating aerial platforms has both ___ and ___.
Upper boom hold down locks and basket stabilizers
371
When the basket stabilizer arms are released, they must be __
Flipped up and stowed on the platform
372
Many articulating elevating platforms have a switch on the ___ that is used to activate or deactivate the platform control panel.
Turntable control station panel
373
When operating the aerial device from the lower control station, the driver should stand on an ___.
Anti-electrocution platform
374
Unlike telescoping aerial devices, there is ___ for elevating, rotating, extending, and lowering articulating aerial devices.
No set procedure
375
Articulating platforms should ___ be operated ___ of the turntable.
Always; forward
376
If the articulating device is to be used for deploying an elevated master stream, ___ first and then operate the stream.
Position the device
377
The ___ should be activated if the aerial device is going to remain stationary for an extended period of time.
Cylinder locks
378
There is ___ of damaging the waterway system while lowering an articulating device, However, a drained waterway reduces the amount of stress placed on the device and its components.
Little chance
379
When you are lowering the articulating device into the boom travel cradle, how should the booms be kept?
As close to each other as practicably possible
380
This step is necessary only for those devices manufactured by the Snorkel company. Both the upper boom hold down locks and the platform stabilizers must be manually attached to the aerial device.
Hook and latch the upper boom hold down locks and the platform stabilizer arms
381
Situations in which the floor of the platform and/or the knuckles between the boom are not parallel to the ground can result in a ___
Twisting force on the entire aerial device system.
382
How much does 1 cubic inch of ice weigh?
0.03 lb
383
What are the less obvious effects of cold weather?
Physical changes in the properties of the steel structural members of the device
384
When subjected to extreme cold (sub zero) the device should be operated in a manner that will minimize or eliminate ___ to its structural members.
Shock loading
385
How are water curtain nozzles operated?
Usually by some type of foot pedal or valve on the floor of the platform
386
All manufacturers of articulating aerial apparatus include ___
Precautionary measures and recommendations for safe operation in their operator's handbook
387
During master stream operations, the maximum load capacity of the personnel platform decreases in direct proportions to the ___
Nozzle reaction force in pounds
388
Caution must be exercised when operating near power lines, even if ___.
The upper boom and personnel platform are insulated
389
To avoid unsafe positioning of the tip of the aerial platform, the operator should always ___.
Rotate that turntable until it faces the working area before the final position
390
Failure of the aerial device can usually be blamed on ___
Improper maintenance or lack of operator knowledge and awareness
391
With a superior training program and strong fire department SOPs aerial device failures may be ___
Eliminated.
392
When a department uses pumper sized apparatus for a quint, how long might the aerial ladders be?
50 or 75 feet
393
How can valves be controlled?
Manually, electrically, hydraulically, mechanically, or a combination of any
394
Which valve acts as a safety feature if there is a leak?
Check valve
395
What converts the hydraulic power to mechanical force?
The actuators (hydraulic cylinders)
396
Where is the ladder pipe designed to be clamped?
The top two rungs on the fly section
397
Where is water most commonly pumped from for a water tower?
The pump on the apparatus
398
Loss control activities include (4 things)
Safe driving skills, water application techniques, salvage, and overhaul
399
Things to consider when spotting an aerial apparatus (5 things)
Surface conditions, weather and wind, electrical hazards, angle and location of operation, and fire building conditions
400
For max reach, a midship mounted aerial should
Nose in
401
When approaching from the uphill side
pull the apparatus past the building and operate the aerial device from the rear
402
When approaching from the downhill side
stop short of the building and operate the aerial over the cab
403
Apparatus placement at the scene of a fire or medical incident is limited by
the order in which responding apparatus arrive
404
What facilitates the orderly positioning of apparatus?
A staging procedure
405
What zone is the hazmat control officer in?
Warm zone
406
With lateral uneven terrain and you must operate on the downhill side, what should you consider?
Less amounts of extension and loading
407
When parked on longitudinal grades you should not
Extend or retract over the side of the apparatus
408
There has never been a recorded failure of an aerial device with properly engaged extension locks at an elevation of at least __ with proper loading
50 degrees
409
To engage extension locks you may need to
slightly retract
410
When lowering the aerial device, when should you check for obstructions?
After retraction before rotation
411
Loads that are steady, motionless, constant, or applied gradually
Static loads
412
The knuckle is of particular concern when
operating at low angles
413
Areas of potential ice damage for articulating aerials
platform, knuckle, or turntable
414
Technical advances and improvements are designed to do what?
For the most part they are designed to supplement the use of water against a fire or to increase its efficiency.
415
NFPA 1410
Standard on Training for initial Emergency Scene Operations, provides an objective method of measuring performance for initial fire suppression and rescue procedures using available personnel and equipment
416
NFPA 1410 specifies...
Specifies basic evolutions that can be adapted to local conditions
417
Three major tactical priorities on the fireground
Life safety, Extinguishment, Property conservation -- Listed in order that they should be carried out, but can be done simultaneously
418
4 ways that heat travels
Convection, radiation, conduction, and direct flame contact
419
What is in plentiful supply in structural fire situations?
Fuel and oxygen
420
Convection cycle
Heat transferred by circulation with a medium such as a gas or liquid
421
Which heat transfer method is responsible for the need for ventilation?
Convection
422
Modern building codes are aimed at limiting fire spread by convection through fire resistant construction, which is intended to confine convection currents to __
One floor or to a small area of a floor
423
Which heat transfer method is the greatest cause for exposure fires after the fire has built to sizable proportions?
Radiation
424
Will ventilation help remove radiant heat?
Not really, radiant heat must be counteracted with water on the seat of the fire
425
Which heat transfer method is usually the least of the problems
Conduction, but it should not be overlooked
426
Conduction can cause steel members to fail. 100' steel expansion at 1000F?
9 inches
427
Rollover
A condition where unburned products of combustion from a fire accumulate at the ceiling level in a sufficient concentration that they ignite momentarily.
428
Does radiation alone generally cause flashover?
No, it is usually a combination of radiation and convection
429
Incomplete combustion causes what gas to be produced more?
Carbon Monoxide
430
How can fire fighter's control backdraft?
By using proper ventilation and fire attack procedures
431
A fire department must operate using what system on the fireground?
Incident Management System (IMS), this is required by law
432
What are the primary responsibilities of an engine company?
Life safety and applying water to the fire
433
9 basic firefighting tasks of an engine company
search and rescue, water supply, use attack lines, use backup lines, protect exposures, use master streams, tactical use of protective systems, property conservation, and overhaul
434
Special attention should be given to which engine company task?
primary search
435
3 additional size up factors
time of day, weather conditions, and life safety considerations
436
The IMS system must have an....
overall strategic plan
437
Who is responsible for the strategic plan?
The incident commander
438
__ will determine how you prolong your actions - along with the location and intensity of the fire.
Proper sizeup
439
Engine company personnel should have a good working knowledge of their __
first alarm district
440
Equipment should be chosen for its...? (two things)
quality and dependability
441
In regards to personnel, equipment should be chosen...
that allows a limited number of fire fighters to carry out fire-ground operation safely and efficiently
442
It is the responsibility of the __ to ensure that the fire apparatus and the equipment carried on such apparatus is compliant, adequate, and functional for the task.
AHJ
443
The engine itself should be equipped with a pump having a rated capacity of no less than __ GPM and a water tank that carries at least __ gallons of water.
750 GPM; 300 gallons
444
The operational objective is to arrive at the scene of the emergency with the necessary equipment for __
immediate life safety operations and emergency control
445
NFPA 1901 requires a minimum hose storage for 2.5 inch or larger hose of __
30 cubic feet
446
NFPA 1901 requires two areas with minimum of __ cubic feet to accomodate 1.5 inch or larger preconnects.
3.5 cubic feet
447
Which size hoses can be used with a divided hose bed?
2.5, 3, 4, 5 inch hoses
448
NFPA 1901 requires a minimum of __ ft of 1.5, 1.75, or 2 inch hose.
400 ft
449
Preconnected hose lines of 1.5 or 1.75 inch should not exceed __ ft in length because of excessive friction loss.
250 ft
450
What are the most common lengths for preconnects?
150 or 200 ft
451
NFPA 1901 requires a minimum of __ ft of 2.5 inch hose.
800 ft
452
Because of the reduced nozzle pressure and lower nozzle reaction, a line with a ___ nozzle will be easier to maneuver and operate inside the fire building.
Solid stream nozzle
453
What is the type of nozzle where the tip is equipped with a screw down tread at the end, usually attached to 2.5 inch.
Leader line type, so that a smaller hose line can be added to the end.
454
A supply hose is an LDH of __ inches or larger.
3.5 inches
455
NFPA 1142
Standard on water supplies for suburban and rural fire fighting
456
NFPA 1142 states that where delivery rates exceed __ gallons per minute and water is moved a long way, an LDH is most efficient
500 gpm
457
A 4 inch LDH flows almost __ times the capacity of a 2.5 inch
3.5 times
458
A nozzles purpose is to convert __ to __
pressure energy to velocity energy
459
What nozzles does NFPA require?
One combination spray nozzle, 200 gpm min
Two combination spray nozzle, 95 gpm min
And one playpipe, with shutoff and 1-, 1-1/8-, and 1-1/4- tips
460
Solid stream handlines may have nozzle tips up to __ in diameter
1-1/4 inch
461
At 50 psi an 1-1/8 inch tip on a 2.5 inch hose will flow __
250 gpm
462
At winds above __ you will need to use a straight tip for penetration.
30 mph
463
In most interior structure operations, the fog pattern of a spray nozzle is no greater than __
30 degrees
464
NFPA 1901 recommends a master stream appliance of __ gpm minimum.
1000 gpm
465
When the master stream appliance is not preconnected, __ short sections ( __ to __ in length) of 2.5 or 3 inch hose or and LDH should be rolled in doughnut rolls and connected to the appliance.
One or two; 15 to 25 feet
466
NFPA 1901 requires a min of __ ft of soft section hose or __ ft of hard suction hose.
15 ft soft or 20 ft hard suction hose
467
Pumpers will carry a min of __ __-foot section of hard sleeves (hard suction)
2 10-foot sections
468
A side or rear intake may be used, but normally the soft suction hose is connected to the __
front intake
469
Which intake location is most efficient when drafting?
Side intake because it is closer to the pump; front intake permits easier maneuvering and better positioning
470
Engine ops book recommends connecting __ valves to the 2.5 inch connections on a hydrant
Ball valves, IFSTA says gate valves
471
Where there are no ladder trucks in service, pumpers should normally be equipped with a __ extension ladder.
35 foot extension ladder
472
Name some special circumstances that ladders can be used. (5 things)
Ice rescues, bridging incidents, shoring, hoisting operations, and damming operations
473
What are the 4 basic hose lays for supply hose?
1. Forward lay using a charged supply line
2. forward lay using an uncharged supply line
3. Direct to fire - no line laid (or split lay)
4. Reverse lay using a charged line
474
Which type of supply lay is useful when narrow driveways or limited access may hamper operations at the fire building?
Forward lay using an uncharged supply line
475
When must the first arriving company officer ensure that the company has laid and charged its own supply line for water supply?
If he notes that the fire is serious or if smoke or fire is showing
476
The direct to fire approach for water supply is quite effective in areas that __
do not have hydrant systems
477
One of the disadvantages of the direct to fire approach for water supply is __
There is little or no margin of safety for attack crews.
478
When performing a reverse lay, __ should dictate what fire fighters should remove from the pumper before it proceeds to the hydrant.
Standard operating guidelines
479
__ should mandate apparatus placement.
SOGs
480
NFPA 1620
Recommended Practice for pre incident planning
481
A preincident plan should not be confused with a __, which monitors code compliance.
Fire inspection
482
The following factors should be evaluated when assessing the potential situations that could affect a facility during emergency conditions: (7 things)
1. Construction (access to buildings),
2. Occupant characteristics (life safety considerations),
3. Protection systems,
4. Capabilities of responding personnel,
5. Availability of mutual aid,
6. Water supply,
7. Exposure factors
483
Companies should not be assigned a task unless there is __
A task for them to perform
484
Consideration should be given to the following factors when developing a schedule for preincident plans: (7 things)
1. Potential life safety hazard,
2. Structural size and complexity,
3. Value,
4. Importance to the community,
5. Location,
6. Presence of chemicals,
7. Susceptibility to natural disasters
485
Proper positioning of a pumper at a fire depends on: (6 items)
1. Physical characteristics of the structure,
2. Location of the structure,
3. Availability or lack of water supply,
4. Normal alarm response pattern with companies in quarters,
5. Size and location of the fire,
6. Need for aerial apparatus
486
When positioning, It should be common practice for the first arriving pumper to __
Pull past the fire building in order to get a view of 3 sides and allow room for aerials
487
Define "coverage" as used in the Engine company ops book
The assignment of companies to particular portions of the fire ground for sizeup and to accomplish any or all of the objectives of a fire operation.
488
What is the first and most basic step in coverage?
Positioning the apparatus
489
In approaching a building with a wide frontage, the pumper should be positioned at the __
Entrance that is most accessible to the fire
490
In standpiped buildings, the intakes are usually near the __
Front entrance
491
When no rear access to a detached building is available, pumpers need to be positioned __ so that hose lines and equipment can be carried to the rear.
In front of the building or at the end of the building row
492
If possible, ladders (aerial and ground ladders) should be placed on __ of a building for access and egress from the building.
All four sides
493
How should set back buildings with limited access be handled?
The first engine should approach as close to the building as fire and wind conditions permit. The second engine should locate to the rear of the first and then proceed on foot to provide rear or side coverage.
494
Where do many fires start in mercantile areas?
In the work/storage sections behind the sales floor
495
In a mercantile area, how should the main body of fire in the rear be attacked?
From the front or unburned side of the building
496
Garden apartments are usually limited in height to __
Three or four stories
497
Do garden apartments have good or poor construction?
Poor
498
For high rise buildings, the first arriving company should be positioned so that crew members have ready access to __ and __
The front entrance and to standpipe inlets and outlets
499
Ordinarily, the first arriving engine covers the __ of the fire building; the second covers the __ and other responding companies should be __
Front; rear; directed by command
500
All members are expected to operate under a __
Risk management profile
