PCM Flashcards

1
Q

gait cycle: average step length

A

14-16 inch

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2
Q

gait cycle: average cadence

A

90-120 steps/ min (higher by 6 in women)

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3
Q

gait cycle: average speed

A

3 mph

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4
Q

gait cycle: definition

A

from heel strike to heel strike of the same foot

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5
Q

gait cycle: 2 phases

A

stance and swing

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6
Q

gait cycle: positions

A

heel strike –> foot flat –> heel off –> toe off –>heel strike

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7
Q

gait cycle: “swing” phase occurs in between which foot positions

A

toe off to heel strike

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8
Q

gait cycle: “propulsion” is made of which 2 foot positions

A

heel off and toe off

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9
Q

whats the name for the foot joint connecting the 5 metatarsals to the distal most tarsal bones

A

lisfranc joint

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10
Q

whats the name for the foot joint connecting hind foot (calcareous and talus) to mid foot structures (cuneiforms, cuboid, and navicular)

A

midtarsal (chopart) joint

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11
Q

mm responsible for lowering foot to ground for “contact” phase of gait cycle

A

extensor digitorum longus, tibialis anterior

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12
Q

what must the tibia do after heel strike in order for calcaneus to evert and talus to drop (which unlocks mid tarsal joints for shock absorption)

A

internally rotate

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13
Q

during mid stance, the body’s center of gravity shifts where

A

from behind to over the foot

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14
Q

as the body passes over mid-foot, it places ankle in maximal dorsiflexion. this puts maximal preload on what mm

A

gastroc-soleus complex

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15
Q

whats the term for the effect that occurs when 1st metatarsophalangeal joint extends resulting in plantar fascia that elevates the arch and further assists in foot supination

A

windlass effect

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16
Q

most problems with gait cycle occur during which phase

A

stance phase

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17
Q

which part of gait cycle is also called initial contact

A

heel strike

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18
Q

which part of gait cycle is also called loading response

A

foot flat

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19
Q

which part of gait cycle is also called terminal stance

A

heel off

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20
Q

which part of gait cycle is also called pre swing

A

toe off (50-60% of the stance cycle is spent here)

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21
Q

when the left foot is in mid stance where is the right foot

A

mid swing

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22
Q

when the left foot is in initial contact where is the right foot

A

terminal stance

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23
Q

which gait cycle phase provides limb and trunk stability

A

mid stance

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24
Q

which gait cycle phase provides weight release from stationary foot

A

pre swing

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25
Q

we have single limb support for how much of our gait cycle

A

80%

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26
Q

how much does your center of gravity move in a superior/ inferior motion during gait cycle

A

less than 2 in

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27
Q

how does our center of gravity shift superior/ inferior during gait cycle

A

early stance: weight transferred to foot. the hip on the non weight bearing side drops 2 in

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28
Q

how do we “lengthen” the femur during gait cycle

A

innominate (pelvis) rotates anterior 4 ish degrees

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29
Q

which gait disturbance: adopted limp to avoid pain on weight bearing structures, short stance phase on affected side

A

antalgic gait

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30
Q

which gait disturbance: stiffness in affected joints, plantar flex opposite to affected side to increase clearance, affected leg is circumducted, step is shorter

A

arthrogenic gait

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31
Q

which gait disturbance: unsteady, uncoordinated walk, broad base of support needed, loss of sensation/ control, staggering, watches feet when walking

A

ataxic gait

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32
Q

which gait disturbance: leg stiff, no flexion of knee and ankle, form a semicircle with rotation on each step

A

hemiplegic gait

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33
Q

which gait disturbance: full foot drop, hip raised high to clear toe, quiet gait usually

A

steppage (foot drop, high step, neuropathic) gait

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34
Q

which gait disturbance: small shuffling steps, hypokinesia (slowness of movement), reduced stride length and walking speed while cadence rate is increased

A

parkinsonian (festinating) gait

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35
Q

What are some causes of antalgic gait

A

Trauma, osteoarthritis, pelvic girdle pain, coxalgia, tarsal tunnel syndrome

36
Q

What are some causes of arthrogenic gait

A

Osteoarthritis of hip/ knee, Post orthopedic surgery

37
Q

What are some causes of ataxic gait

A

Vestibular, cerebellar hemmorrhage, friedreich’s ataxia, pontine cerebellar atrophy, chronic mercury poisoning, posterior fossa tumor, alcoholism, drugs

38
Q

What are some causes of stoppage gait

A

Peroneal nerve injury (lumbar disc herneation, MS, Giuliani barre, parkinsons)

39
Q

Abnormal depression of the chest

A

Pectus excavatum

40
Q

Abnormal expansion of the chest (pigeon chest)

A

Pectus carinatum

41
Q

Curvature of cervical spine

A

Lordosis

42
Q

Curvature of thoracic spine

A

Kyphosis

43
Q

Curvature of lumbar spine

A

Lordosis

44
Q

Curvature of sacral spine

A

Kyphosis

45
Q

What does the acronym NURSE stand for

A

Name, understand, respect, support, explore

46
Q

What does. CAGE stand for and when do we use it

A

Men. >14 drinks per week. Or 4 per day

Women&raquo_space;>7. Drinks per week or 3 per day

47
Q

What are the 5. Ps of sexual questioning

A
Partners
Prevention
Protection
Practices
Past history of STDs
48
Q

What does SAFE stand for

A

Safety, abused, friends/ family, emergency plan

For domestic violence

49
Q

Another name for fibrous joint

A

Synarthrosis

50
Q

Another name for cartilagenous joints

A

Amphiarthrosis

51
Q

Another name for synovial joints

A

Diarthrosis

52
Q

3 fibrous joints

A

Cranial sutures, syndesmosis (tibiofibular), gomphosis

53
Q

2 kinds of cartilaginous joints

A

Hyaline- synchondrosis (costochondral/ epiphyseal plate)

Fibrocartilage- symphyses (intervertebral disc)

54
Q

What covers the ends. Of bones that are involved in synovial. Joints to reduce friction

A

Hyaline cartilage

55
Q

Articular (hyaline) cartilage at synovial joints does not have blood or nerve supply so how does it get nourishment?

A

Synovial fluid

56
Q

Whats hiltons law

A

Nerves supplying a joint also supply the muscles moving the joint and skin covering it

57
Q

What is wolfs law

A

Bone is increased or reabsorbed wherever needed

58
Q

Complete loss of articular cartilage, thickening of subchondral bone

A

Eburnation

59
Q

Fragments of cartilage or bone floating free in synovial fluid (often in degenerative joint disease)

A

Joint mice (osteochondromatosis)

60
Q

What type of arthritis is not inflammatory

A

Osteoarthritis is erosion of cartilage that buffers the bones

61
Q

Whats in the central compartment of the hip

A

Labrum, ligamentum teres, articular surface

62
Q

What tests. Can be performed to assess central compartment. Of hip

A

Log roll, c sign, Labral load, labral distract, Scour, apprehension, faber

63
Q

What is in the peripheral compartment of the hip

A

Femoral neck, synovial lining

64
Q

What tests can assess the peripheral compartment of hip

A

Log roll, Ely’s, rectus femoris

65
Q

What is in the lateral compartment of hip

A

Glut min, piriformis, IT band, trochanteric bursae

66
Q

What is in the anterior compartment fo hip

A

Iliopsoas insertion, iliopsoas bursae

67
Q

Name the test: you ask a patient to stand with all weight on the affected leg and watch for the opposite hip to drop

A

Trendelenburg sign

68
Q

DTR for. The knee tests what spinal nerve segment

A

L4

69
Q

What gets injured in the unhappy triad fo the knee

A

ACL, MCL, medial meniscus

70
Q

DTR of achilles tendon is checking nerve function at what spinal segment

A

S1

71
Q

What spinal nerve segments are tested by biceps. Brachii DTR

A

C5

72
Q

What spinal nerve segments are tested by brachii radialis DTR

A

C6

73
Q

What spinal nerve segments are tested by triceps DTR

A

C7

74
Q

Shoulder. Muscles that do flexion

A

Anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis

75
Q

Shoulder muscles that do extension

A

Latissimus dorsi, teres major

76
Q

When carrying angle is reduced

A

Cubitus varus

77
Q

When carrying angle is increased

A

Cubitus valgus

78
Q

Varus stress test of elbow looking at what joint structure

A

LCL: radial collateral ligament

79
Q

Valgus stress test of elbow looking at what joint structure

A

MCL: ulnar collateral ligament

80
Q

Radial head subluxation due to tear of the ___ is nursemaids elbow

A

Annular ligament

81
Q

What elbow motion is coupled with pronation

A

Ulnar abduction and posterior radial head glide

82
Q

What elbow motion is coupled with supination

A

Ulnar adduction, radial head anterior glide

83
Q

How does colles fracture present

A

(Distal radius fracture)

Dorsal and radial displacement of wrist/ hand

84
Q

Dequervain syndrome will give what positive test

A

Finkelstein

85
Q

How can you test for carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Phalens, tinnel, ok sign