Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

#MedSchool > OSI > Flashcards

OSI Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 basic body types?

A

endomorph, ectomorph, mesomorph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 3 basic body types?

A

endomorph, ectomorph, mesomorph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

person whose body habitus is comprised of tissues predominantly endoderm (obese, fatty)

A

endomorph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

person whose body habitus is comprised of tissues predominantly from endoderm (tall, lanky)

A

ectomorph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

color can be an important indicator in clinical observation. what are some colors to watch out for in patients and what might they mean?

A 
pale- bad
red- erythema, inflammation
yellow- jaundice (liver disease)
blue- cyanosis
black- necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the proper order for assessing structural diagnosis? (always do structural exam in context of total H&P)

A

observe, auscultate, percuss, palpate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what factors create asymmetry?

A

bone or joint deformity, kyphoscoliosis, dress, occupation, mental attitude, habit, lower extremity defects, somatic dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which of the following is likely to cause postural asymmetry?

a. belt
b. eye color
c. organ transplant
d. anatomical short leg
e. type of muscle tissue

A

d. anatomical short leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which of the following is likely to cause postural asymmetry?

a. belt
b. eye color
c. organ transplant
d. anatomical short leg
e. type of muscle tissue

A

d. anatomical short leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are some landmarks we use to assess symmetry of the patients anterior side?

A 
eye level
nose angle to midline
ear lobe level
shoulder height
clavicle alignment
fingertip level
breast
crest of ilium
angle of patella
medial or lateral malleolus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are some landmarks we use to assess symmetry of the patients posterior side?

A 
shoulder level
inferior angle of scapula
fingertip level
iliac crest height
gluteal line
popliteal space
medial and lateral malleolus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is TART?

A

Tissue texture changes
asymmetry
restriction of motion
tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is active ROM?

A

patient demonstrates the activity (less than passive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is passive ROM?

A

patient is not active, examiner takes the relaxed limb through ROM (no muscles only ligaments stop motion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is an anatomic barrier?

A

limit of motion imposed by anatomic structure (just beyond passive ROM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is an elastic barrier?

A

range between physiologic and anatomic barrier of motion in which passive ligamentous stretching occurs before tissue disruption (between active and passive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is a restrictive barrier?

A

functional limit within anatomic ROM which abnormally diminishes normal range of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the term we use to describe impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system: skeletal, arthrodial, myofascial structures and related vascular lymphatic and neural elements

A

somatic dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is OMT

A

osteopathic manipulative treatment: therapeutic application of manual forces used to improve physiologic function and support homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

term describing the normal feel of muscle in the relaxed state?

A

tone
(hypertonicity when spastic paralysis)
(hypotonicity when flaccid paralysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

term describing abnormal shortening of muscle due to fibrosis often resulting from a chronic condition

A

contracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is abnormal contraction of muscle maintained by physiologic need? (hint it often is accompanied by pain and restriction of motion)

A

spasm (hypertonicity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

state of muscle with increased fluid in hypertonic muscle (like a wet sponge)

A

bogginess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

state of muscle with hard, firm, rope like tone usually indicating a chronic condition

A

ropiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are qualities of vascular textures that indicate acute dysfunction? chronic?

A

actue: inflamed, peptide release VASODILATION
chronic: sympathetic tone increases VASOCONSTRICTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is end feel?

A

palpatory experience or quality of motion when a joint is moved to its limit or barrier is approached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the 4 types of abnormal end feels and an example of each

A

early muscle spasm- protective after injury
late muscle spasm- chronic
hard capsular- frozen shoulder
soft capsular-synovitis (knee swells after injury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the term for: discomfort or pain elicited by physician through palpation (unusual sensitivity to touch or pressure)

A

tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are acute TART affects?

A

Texture: red, swollen, boggy, increased tone

asymmetry: present
restriction: present and painful with motion
tenderness: sharp pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are chronic TART effects?

A

Texture: dry, cool, ropy, pale, decrease tone

asymmetry: present, compensation occurs
restriction: present (maybe not guarded)
tenderness: dull, achy pain or paresthesias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are chronic TART effects?

A

Texture: dry, cool, ropy, pale, decrease tone

asymmetry: present, compensation occurs
restriction: present (maybe not guarded)
tenderness: dull, achy pain or paresthesias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how do we name somatic dysfunction

A

“where they like to live”
position of ease
if it freely rotates left and is restricted right we name it: rotated left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

to decrease the angle between bones of a joint

A

flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is fryettes principle (#1)

A

Type 1 mechanics become Type 1 dysfunction!

FP#1. when thoracic and lumbar spine are in neutral position (no flexion or extension), the coupled motion of side bending and rotation occur in opposite directions for each group of vertebrae (to ration occurs toward convexity)

Remember by TONGO (Type One Neutral Group goes Opposite for rotation and side bending )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what happens when someone gets restriction of motion in the spine?

A

reduce efficiency (as body tries to compensate)
impair fluid flow
alter nerve function
throws off balance

36
Q

where are flexor muscles of the spine located in relation to the spine

A

ventral to the spine (anterior)

37
Q

where are extensor muscles of the spine located?

A

dorsal (posterior) to spine

38
Q

if you are assessing a spinal segment and vertebra will not rotate to the right (hard end feel) how would you name this dysfunction?

A

rotated left somatic dysfunction

39
Q

what is fryettes principle (#2)

A

FP#2. when thoracic and lumbar spine are sufficiently flexed or extended, the coupled motion of side bending and rotation in a vertebral unit occur in the same direction (usually occurs in a single segment) rotation is toward the concavity

this type of mechanics occur in lumbar thoracic AND typical cervical spine segments (excluding OA joint)

40
Q

to chart Type I somatic dysfunction we locate vertebra (or group), indicate position (neutral), indicate side bending and rotation. How would you chart “restriction is to rotation left and side bending right”

A

T1-3 N R(R) S(L)

Thoracic vertebrae 1-3 in a neutral position are rotated right and side bent left

41
Q

to chart Type II somatic dysfunction we locate vertebra, indicate position (flexion or extension), indicate side bending and rotation. How would you chart “restriction is to flexion, rotation left and side bending left”

A

T6 E R(R) S(R)

thoracic vertebra 6 in an extended position is rotated right and side bent left

42
Q

what is freyettes principle (#3)

A

initiating vertebral segment motion in any plane of motion will modify movement of that segment in other planes of motion (motions are coupled)

43
Q

what is PTP on the right a result of ?

A

PTP: posterior transverse process

result of segment rotated to the right

44
Q

what type of mechanics are displayed at the OA joint

A

modified Type I

45
Q

with type I mechanics, rotation and side bending occur to the ___ side

A

opposite

46
Q

with type II mechanics, rotation and side bending occur to the ___ side

A

same

47
Q

correct the following:

OA N R(R) S(R)

A

OA joint follows modified type 1 mechanics so we know R and S occur to opposite sides

48
Q

correct the following:

C5 F R(R) S(R)

A

this is correct because C2-7 follow type II mechanics

49
Q

correct the following:

T6 F R(R) S(L)

A

T6 in flexion is looking at Type II mechanics so R and S must be to the same side

T6 F R(R) S(R)

50
Q

correct the following:

L2-4 N R(L) S(L)

A

think of TONGO

L2-4 N R(L) S(R)

51
Q

lymphatic development begins at week __ of pregnancy but is significantly present by week __ however it remains immature at birth until 6-9 years

A

5, 20

52
Q

what is the largest mass of lymphoid tissue

A

spleen (beneath ribs 9-11 on the left)

53
Q

what does it mean that the spleen and liver are pressure sensitive?

A

movement of diaphragm is important for homeostatic movement of fluid

54
Q

what is the spleens job?

A

destroy damaged RBCs
synthesize Igs
clear bacteria

55
Q

what do we find in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen (palpable)

A

liver

56
Q

who is the gate keeper of the shared hepato-biliary-pancreatic vein and lymph drainage

A

liver

57
Q

this lymphoid organ is found in anterior mediastinum, it is large in infancy and replaced by fatty tissue as we age

A

thymus

58
Q

what is Thymus’s job

A

maturation of T cells

59
Q

what are the 3 types of tonsils located in posterior oropharynx

A

palatine, lingual, pharyngeal

60
Q

what is the job of tonsils

A

provide cells to build immunity (esp in childhood)

61
Q

this little guy is located at the proximal end of the cecum and contains lymphoid pump to help GALT

A

appendix

62
Q

what are important features of GI lymph tissue

A

peyer patches in ileum

lacteals in sm intestine (absorb large chylomicrons into lymph)

63
Q

where do we find superficial lymph nodes? how bout the deep ones?

A

superficial- within subQ tissue along superficial veins

deep- beneath fascia, muscle, organs

64
Q

what is the most highly organized lymph tissue

A

lymph node

65
Q

what lymph node characteristics should cause us to look for cuts/ bites/ rashes/ infection near the node

A

swollen painful node

66
Q

what LN characteristics should cause us to thing malignancy/ disease

A

swollen, indurated, nonpainful

67
Q

what is palpable virchow’s node?

A

L supraclavicular node (indicates abdominal or thoracic cancer)

68
Q

what does palpable supratrochlear node indicate?

A

SYPHILIS

69
Q

do lymph vessels have valves?

A

yep (low pressure needs to prevent back flow somehow)

70
Q

vessels perfuse all body tissues except what??

A

bone marrow
epidermis
cartilage
muscle endomysium

71
Q

what composes lymph fluid?

A

proteins, electrolytes, immune cells, Ags, bacteria, viruses, clotting factors, chylomicrons (after eating)

72
Q

what is the largest lymph vessel between aorta and azygous vein? what does it pierce? which side of the body does it drain?

A

thoracic duct
pierces sibson’s fascia
left side (and both sides below umbilicus)

73
Q

this is a dilation of the distal thoracic duct anterior to L1-2 and posterior to right crura of diaphragm receiving lymph from R and L lumbar lymphatic trunks

A

cisterna chyli

74
Q

what drains into the right lymphatic duct?

A

R arm, head, neck, thorax
heart
lungs (except left upper lobe)

75
Q

valves that prevent back flow of venous blood into the lymphatic system are under what kind of neural control

A

sympathetic (thus increased tone decreases lymph flow into the venous system)

76
Q

how much fluid moves from capillary to interstitial space each day? (10% drains into lymph system)

A

30 L

77
Q

what is the normal interstitial fluid pressure? at what pressure do lymph capillaries collapse causing flow to cease?

A

-6.3 mmHg

flow ceases at 0

78
Q

in large lymph vessel walls what does smooth muscle do?

A

peristalsis

79
Q

what are the two diaphragms in the body that are essential for pushing lymph fluid superiorly and centrally?

A

thoracic and pelvic

80
Q

whats the biggest consequence of poorly functioning lymph system

A

edema (causing HTN, CHF, decreased plasma pressure, increased capillary permeability, compression of neuromuscular structures, decreased filtration of fluid)

81
Q

chronic conditions warrant lymphatic OMM treatments that are what?

A

shorter and more frequent

82
Q

what are indications for lymphatic OMM?

A

CHF, URI, LRI, asthma, COPD, sprains, acute somatic dysfunction, pregnancy

83
Q

what are acute contraindications for lymphatic OMM?

A

anuria (need kidneys to process extra fluid return)

necrotizing fasciitis in treatment area

84
Q

relative contraindications for lymphatic OMM

A

fracture or dislocation in area that will be stressed, splenomegaly due to mono, acute hepatitis, malignancy, bacterial infection, coagulopathy, unstable cardiac condition

85
Q

whats the sequence for whole body lymphatic OMM treatment?

A
  1. thoracic inlet
  2. abdomen
  3. upper extremity
  4. lower extremity
  5. head and heck
  6. thoracic inlet

#MedSchool (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions