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#MedSchool > OS Exam 2 > Flashcards

OS Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How many cervical vertebra do we have

A

7

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2
Q

The atlas lacks what vertebral structure

A

Has no vertebral body

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3
Q

What is the atypical feature of C2

A

Dens (odontoid process)

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4
Q

Articular facets in the cervical spine are oriented in what direction

A

Superior: upward toward eye
Inferior: point toward opposite shoulder

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5
Q

C2-c7 follow what type of mechanics

A

type II

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6
Q

From a lateral view. We can check alignment along what imaginary lines

A

Anterior vertebral line
Posterior vertebral line
Spinolaminar line
Posterior spinous line

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7
Q

What view must you use for x ray of the dens

A

AP (anteroposterior view) with an open mouth

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8
Q

What do we think is the cause of cervical spine somatic dysfunction

A

Compensatory after for dysfunction of lower parts of spine

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9
Q

Rotational testing in the. Cervical spine. Requires us to contact lateral mass (lateral to spinous process) and rotate them in what plane

A

Transverse plane

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10
Q

If you induce a force in the transverse plane on the left lateral mass what motion are we inducing in cervical vertebra

A

Rotate right

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11
Q

Translation of cervical vertebra (lateral segment movement: left to right or right to left) induces motion in which plane

A

Coronal plane

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12
Q

If we move a cervical vertebra in the coronal plane: translation from left to right what do we document this motion as

A

Sidebent left

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13
Q

If there is more restricted motion in the cervical vertebra while the neck is flexed how would we name it

A

Extension dysfunction

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14
Q

Which part of the chart should include documentation of somatic dysfunction

A

Objective portion (of SOAP note)

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15
Q

Normal flexion of the neck

A

45-90

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16
Q

Normal extension of the neck

A

45-90

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17
Q

Normal side bending of the neck

A

45

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18
Q

Where do we palpate while checking cervical ROM actively and passively

A

At the C7-T1 junction

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19
Q

Normal rotation of the neck

A

70-90

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20
Q

What are the major motions of OA joint

A

Flexion and extension (Sagittal plane motion)

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21
Q

What type of mechanics are displayed at the OA joint

A

Flex/extend but SB/Rot to opposite directions ALWAYS making it modified type I

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22
Q

To assess restriction of motion at the OA joint contact posterior occipital with middle finger and lateral aspect with index finger. Assess rotation right by lifting anterior on which side?

A

Left

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23
Q

To assess restriction of motion at the OA joint contact posterior occipital with middle finger and lateral aspect with index finger. Assess side bending left by inducting what motion?

A

Translation

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24
Q

antlantoaxial joint (AA) has what primary motion

A

Rotation (atlas rotates around dens)

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25
Q

To assess restriction of motion at the AA joint contact posterior occiput and place fingers on AA joint. Fully flex the head and neck to take out inferior segments. In this position we can check what motions for restriction?

A

Rotate right and left

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26
Q

We must assess OA and AA joint restriction of motion in what positions?

A

Neutral, flexed, and extended

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27
Q

We can also translate left or right in the sagittal plane at C3-7 by placing our fingertips where before inducing lateral motion

A

Tip of transverse process

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28
Q

Floor of thoracic cavity

A

Diaphragm

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29
Q

3 parts of sternum

A

Manubrium, body, xiphoid

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30
Q

The xiphoid remains cartilaginous until when

A
  1. Years
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31
Q

The head of rib 6 articulates with what structure on vertebra?

A

Inferior costal facet of T5 AND Superior costal facet T6

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32
Q

The transverse costal facets on transverse processes of vertebra articulate with what

A

Rib tubercle of the same numbered rib

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33
Q

Ligament holding head of rib into costal facets of adjacent vertebra

A

Radiate ligament

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34
Q

Rib tubercle held in place by what ligaments

A

Superior, lateral, Intertransverse and costotransverse ligament

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35
Q

Thoracic and lumbar vertebra follow Fryette’s laws of what type

A

Both type I (N, group of vertebra) and type II (F or E, one segment)

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36
Q

Main motion of thoracic spine

A

Rotation (because of ribs we can’t do much else)

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37
Q

Where in the spine can we do the most rotation? Second most?

A

Most- AA joint

Second most- thoracic vertebra

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38
Q

Why can we flex more than extend in thoracic spine

A

Because of the natural kyphotic curve

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39
Q

Where do we find sympathetic ganglion

A

Paravertebral ganglia of sympathetic trunks

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40
Q

Visceral distrubance often causes increased musculoskeletal tension in somatic structures innervated from the same spinal level. How can we reduce somatic afferent input thus reducing somatosympathetic activity to the organ

A

OMT treatment! treat at the transverse process that is tense

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41
Q

Which spinal segments correspond to sympathetics that supply the head and neck

A

T1-4

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42
Q

Which spinal segments correspond to sympathetics that supply the heart

A

T1-5

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43
Q

Which spinal segments correspond to sympathetics that supply the lungs

A

T2-7

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44
Q

Which spinal segments correspond to sympathetics that supply the upper abdominal viscera (stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen, pancreas, duodenum)

A

T5-9

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45
Q

Which spinal segment corresponds to spine of scapula? Inferior angle of scapula?

A

T3 for spine

T7 for inferior angle

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46
Q

Which spinal segments correspond to sympathetics that supply the lower abdominal viscera (Pancreas, duodenum, jejunum, ilium, proximal and 2/3 of transverse colon)

A

T10-11

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47
Q

Which spinal segments correspond to sympathetics that supply the remainder of lower abdomen (distal 1/3 transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum)

A

T12-L2

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48
Q

Which rib articulates posteriorly with cephalon border of scapula

A

Rib 1

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49
Q

Which rib anteriorly articulates with manubriosternal junction

A

Rib 2

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50
Q

Which rib attaches posteriorly at the level of the scapular spine

A

Rib 3

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51
Q

Which rib anteriorly attaches to xiphoid thermal junction and posteriorly at inferior angle of scapula

A

Rib 7

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52
Q

Which rib has cartilage at lowest part of thoracic cage at midclavicular line

A

Rib 10

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53
Q

Which are the true ribs (attach to sternum via own costal cartilage)

A

1-7

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54
Q

Which are false ribs (cartilage connected to those above before connecting to sternum)

A

8-10

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55
Q

Which ribs are floating (no eternal attachment

A

11-12

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56
Q

Which ribs are “typical” (with head neck tubercle and body)

A

3-9

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57
Q

What makes rib 1 atypical?

A

Single facet on head since it articulates with only T1, groove for subclavian artery and vein, scalene tubercle for anterior scalene attachment

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58
Q

What makes rib 2 atypical?

A

Tuberosity for serratus anterior

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59
Q

What makes rib 10-12 atypical?

A

Single facet on head because they articulate with ONLY ONE vertebra

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60
Q

What makes rib 11-12 atypical?

A

No neck or tubercle

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61
Q

What is the motion of ribs that is analogous to flexion / extension (rib 1-6 moves anteriorly)

A

Pump handle motion

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62
Q

What is the motion of ribs that is analogous to abduction/ adduction (rib 1 and 7-10 moves laterally)

A

Bucket handle motion

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63
Q

What is the motion of ribs that is analogous to internal/ external rotation (rib 11-12 pivoting because they have no anterior attachment)

A

Caliper motion

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64
Q

How would you characterize a dysfunction of ribs where the anterior ribs lift during inhalation and then remain there during exhalation

A

Inhalation Pump handle dysfunction (causes narrowing of intercostal space. Above dysfunction)

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65
Q

How would you characterize a dysfunction of ribs where the ribs don’t lift laterally during inhalation

A

Exhalation bucket handle function

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66
Q

If a rib has an inhalation dysfunction, which rib is the key rib to treat in this dysfunction

A

Lowest rib in dysfunction

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67
Q

If a rib has an exhalation dysfunction, which rib is the key rib to treat in this dysfunction

A

Uppermost rib in dysfunction

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68
Q

What is the number 2 reason for patient to go to doctor

A

Lower back pain

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69
Q

Majority of back pain does not require surgical intervention. Most of this pain is due to what?

A

Mechanical dysfunction

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70
Q

What can be some mechanical and non mechanical causes of low back pain

A

Mech: arthritis, spondylosis, spondylolisthesis, degenerative disc disease, somatic dysfunction
Non-mech: renal colic, endometriosis, abdominal aortic aneurysm

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71
Q

What motion do lumbar vertebra most easily do

A

Flexion and extension (because of the orientation of superior and inferior facets)

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72
Q

What is sacralisation of L5

A

Fusion of L5 to sacrum

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73
Q

What is lumbrasation of S1

A

Looseness of S1 from sacrum causes it to act like a lumbar vertebra

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74
Q

Flexion occurs in what plane

A

Sagittal

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75
Q

Rotation occurs in what plane

A

Transverse plane

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76
Q

In what plane does side bending occur

A

Frontal plane

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77
Q

When you flex lumbar spine what happens at sacral spine

A

Extension (they are moving in opposite directions)

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78
Q

How do we remember the directionality of type I mechanics

A

TONGO (type one neutral group opposite) side bending and rotation occur in opposite directions

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79
Q

What is a scotty dog fracture? (We know it occurred because our scotty dog has a collar)

A

Pars interarticularis fracture or separation- spondylolysis (if this is present bilaterally then sponlylolysthesis aka slippage anteriorly is more likely)

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80
Q

Which muscles maintain type II mechanics in lumbar spine

A

Short restrictors (multifidus, rotators, interspinales, intertransversaris)

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81
Q

What happens when you herniate a disc in the vertebra

A

Nucleus pulposus leaks through annulus fibrosus and can compress the spinal cord

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82
Q

Type one mechanics of spine are maintained by what muscles

A

Long restrictors (iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis)

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83
Q

Dermatome covering anteromedial thighs and knee

A

L4

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84
Q

Dermatome converting posterolateral thigh and lateral leg

A

L5

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85
Q

Dermatome covering posterior thigh, leg, and plantar foot

A

S1

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86
Q

Knee jerk tests what spinal segment reflex

A

L4

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87
Q

Ankle jerk (achilles reflex) tests what spinal segment reflex

A

S1

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88
Q

what are the cauda equina symptoms that serve as red flags for lower back pain

A

Saddle anesthesia, new onset of bladder or bowel dysfunction, neurological symptoms that are severe or progressive

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89
Q

Red flags for low back pain

A

Over 50 or under 20, history of cancer, past trauma, cauda equina symptoms, constitutional symptoms

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90
Q

What are constitutional symptoms that serve as red flags in low back pain

A

Fever, chills, unexplained weight loss, recent bacterial infection, IV drug abuse, immunosuppression, nighttime pain severe

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91
Q

Failure of lamina to fuse causes what condition

A

Spina bifida (usually because of neural tube defects)

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92
Q

What do we give moms to prevent spina bifida in their kiddos

A

Folate

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93
Q

Which form of spina bifida causes tuft of hair near l5-s1 and is asymptomatic

A

Occulta

94
Q

What type of spina bifida forces meninges of spinal cord out into vertebral spaces

A

Meningocele

95
Q

What type of spina bifida forces meninges and spinal cord of spinal cord out into vertebral spaces

A

Myelomeningocele

96
Q

Spinal cord terminates where

A

L1-L2

97
Q

What conditions can compromise spinal canal via stenosis

A

Posterior longitudinal ligament hypertrophy, ligamentum flavin thickens, osteoarthritis, osteophytes, tumors, disc rupture

98
Q

What are tender points that act as clues for visceral dysfunction (palpable small smooth, firm nodule)

A

Chapman reflexes

99
Q

Chapman checks what anterior points for the little nodules

A

Periumbilical area (adrenal, kidney, bladder)
5th intercostal (stomach liver)
6th (stomach, liver, gallbladder)
7th (spleen, pancreas)

100
Q

Chapman checks what posterior points for the little nodules

A

Kidney, bladder, urethra, uterus, colon, pelvic organs

101
Q

What is something we need to be careful and aware of with LBP management?

A

Drug addiction is real- Try not to get your patients addicted to the good good (narcotics)

102
Q

According to the rule of 3’s where can you find spinous process for T1-T3

A

At the same level of the corresponding transverse process

103
Q

According to the rule of 3’s where can you find spinous process for T4-T6

A

Located 1/2 segment below corresponding transverse process

104
Q

According to the rule of 3’s where can you find spinous process for T7-T9

A

Located 1 spinal segment below the corresponding transverse processes

105
Q

According to the rule of 3’s where can you find spinous process for T10

A

Located 1 spinal segment below the corresponding transverse processes

106
Q

According to the rule of 3’s where can you find spinous process for T11

A

Located 1/2 spinal segment below the corresponding transverse processes

107
Q

According to the rule of 3’s where can you find spinous process for T12

A

Located at the same level as the corresponding transverse processes

108
Q

T5-9 transverse processes correspond to the sympathetics that innervate what visceral structures

A

Stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen, part of pancreas and duodenum

109
Q

T10-11 transverse processes correspond to the sympathetics that innervate what visceral structures

A

Part of. Pancreas and duodenum, jejunum, Ilium, ascending. Proximal and 2/3 of. Transverse. Colon

110
Q

T12-L2 transverse processes correspond to the sympathetics that innervate what visceral structures

A

Distal 1/3 transverse colon, descending and sigmoid colon, rectum

111
Q

Intercostal spaces are named according to the rib forming which of their borders

A

Superior (so 4th intercostal space is between ribs 4-5)

112
Q

What is the name of the space and nerve running inferior to T12

A

Subcostal

113
Q

Which muscles help during inhalation

A

External intercostals, diaphragm

114
Q

What muscles help us exhale

A

Rectus abdominus, internal and external obliques, transverse abdominis

115
Q

Accessory muscles of inhalation and exhalation

A

Inh: SCM, scalene
Exh: passive recoil

116
Q

Dysfunction of the thoracic wall can increase risk of atelectasis. What is atelectasis?

A

Complete or partial lung collapse

117
Q

Why can rib fractures cause. Increased risk of atelectasis and infection??

A

Rib fracture causes pain with inhalation so patients stop taking deep breaths and this can cause alveoli to collapse

118
Q

Pinpoint tenderness at Costochondral junction can indicate costodhondritis which we treat how?

A

NSAIDS, OMM (rib, thoracic spine, sternum, lymph treatment)

119
Q

Latrogenic affects are those brought on by medical procedures. What procedures can cause rib dysfunction?

A

Thoracotomy
Lobectomy
Sternotomy (done in conjunction with CABG)

120
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the thyroid comes from which spinal segments

A

C6-t1

121
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the bronchus comes from which spinal segments

A

T2-3

122
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the lung comes from which spinal segments

A

T1-6

123
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the pleura comes from which spinal segments

A

T1-11

124
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the heart comes from which spinal segments

A

T1-5

125
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the myocardial septa comes from which spinal segments

A

T2

126
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the myocardial anterior wall comes from which spinal segments

A

T3-4

127
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the myocardial posterior wall comes from which spinal segments

A

T4-5

128
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the myocardial arrhythmia comes from which spinal segments

A

T2

129
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the chronic cardiac disease comes from which spinal segments

A

C5-7

130
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the stomach comes from which spinal segments

A

T5-9 (left)

131
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the duodenum comes from which spinal segments

A

T10 (right)

132
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the gallbladder comes from which spinal segments

A

T9 right

133
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the liver comes from which spinal segments

A

T5-9. Right

134
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the pancreas comes from which spinal segments

A

T6-9

135
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the kidney and ureters comes from which spinal segments

A

T10-l1

136
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the ovaries/ testes comes from which spinal segments

A

T10-l1

137
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the adrenals comes from which spinal segments

A

T10-l1

138
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the appendix comes from which spinal segments

A

T11-l2 right

139
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the uterus comes from which spinal segments

A

T10-L2

140
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the urinary bladder/ prostate comes from which spinal segments

A

L1-2

141
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the colon comes from which spinal segments

A

T8-L2

142
Q

Sympathetic innervation that supplies the rectum/ anus comes from which spinal segments

A

L1-2

143
Q

Parasympathetic innervation that supplies the viscera from pharynx to descending colon comes from where

A

Vagus nerve

144
Q

Parasympathetic innervation that supplies the viscera from descending colon to pelvic organs comes from where

A

Sacral plexus (S2-4)

145
Q

TART indicates somatic dysfunction. what does TART stand for?

A

Tissue texture changes
Asymmetry
Restriction of Motion
Tenderness

146
Q

what are acute vs chronic Tissue Texture findings?

A

acute: warm, moist, red, inflamed, boggy muscle, increased muscle tone/ spasm
chronic: cool, pale, increased sympathetic tone, ropy muscle, faccid muscle

147
Q

whats the term describing: abnormal shortening of muscle due to fibrosis

A

contracture

148
Q

what are acute vs chronic Restriction of Motion findings?

A

acute: sluggish (guarding)
chronic: limited, painless ROM

149
Q

what kind of abnormal end feel is associated with protective spasm after injury

A

early muscle spasm

150
Q

what kind of abnormal end feel is associated with chronic muscle spasm

A

late muscle spasm

151
Q

what kind of abnormal end feel is associated with frozen shoulder

A

hard capsular

152
Q

what kind of abnormal end feel is associated with synovitis (such as knee swelling after injury)

A

soft capsular

153
Q

what are acute vs chronic tenderness findings?

A

acute: sharp, severe
chronic: dull, ache, paresthesias

154
Q

expected PROM for hip flexion

A

90

155
Q

expected PROM for hip extension

A

15-30

156
Q

which portion of the chart would include somatic dysfunction

A

objective portion (note the side of laterality)

157
Q

expected PROM for hip external rotation

A

40-60

158
Q

expected PROM for hip internal rotation

A

30-40

159
Q

expected PROM for hip abduction

A

45-50

160
Q

expected PROM for hip adduction

A

20-30

161
Q

expected PROM for knee internal rotation

A

10

162
Q

expected PROM for knee external rotation

A

10

163
Q

what type of force do you apply when accessing abduction of the knee joint

A

varus

164
Q

what type of force do you apply when accessing adduction of the knee joint

A

valgus

165
Q

what do we do to access proximal fibula at the knee joint

A

with thumb and index finger, apply anterior and posterior force to assess for gliding motion of fibular head

166
Q

what motions do we need to check for glenohumoral stability

A

shoulder flexion (180), extension(60), abduction(180), adduction(40-50), internal and external rotation(both 90)

167
Q

how can one assess the rotational ability of the acromioclavicular joint

A

while the pt is in 60 degree of both coronal and horizontal abduction, internally and externally rotate the glenohumeral joint

168
Q

what motion occurs in the sternoclavicular joint when the patient is lying supine, shoulders flexed to 90 and then they reach toward the ceiling

A

proximal clavicle moves posteriorly (horizontal flexion)

(horizontal extension of sternoclavicular joint occurs when shoulders return to neutral- proximal clavicle moves anterior)

169
Q

most common dysfunction of sternoclavicular joint

A

horizontal extension dysfunction (restriction to horizontal flexion )

170
Q

how can you assess abduction of the clavicle

A

place index fingers on superior aspect of the head of both clavicles and have patients shrug their shoulders– proximal end of clavicle moves inferiorly

171
Q

how can you assess adduction of the clavicle

A

place index fingers on superior aspect of the head of both clavicles and from a shrugged position, have patient relax shoulders to neutral– proximal end of clavicle moves superiorly

172
Q

describe horizontal flexion of the sternoclavicular joint

A

proximal clavicle moves posteriorly (when pt lies supine and reaches toward ceiling)

173
Q

describe horizontal extension of the sternoclavicular joint

A

proximal clavicle moves anteriorly (when pt lies supine and relaxes shoulders from a position of reaching toward the ceiling)

174
Q

when proximal clavicle moves inferiorly

A

abduction

175
Q

when proximal clavicle moves superiorly

A

adduction

176
Q

which muscles are responsible for scapular elevation

A

upper trapezius, levator scapulae

177
Q

which muscles are responsible for scapular depression

A

middle trapezius, rhomboids

178
Q

which muscles are responsible for scapular protraction

A

serratus anterior

179
Q

which muscles are responsible for scapular retraction

A

rhomboids, middle trapezius

180
Q

which muscles are responsible for scapular upward rotation

A

serratus anterior, upper trapezius

181
Q

which muscles are responsible for scapular downward rotation

A

levator scapulae, rhomboids, latissimus dorsi

182
Q

what does TONGO stand for

A

Type One (somatic dysfunction of thoracic spine) Neutral Group Opposite (side bending and rotation)

183
Q

what type of force do we use to evaluate the thoracic spine for PTP (posterior transverse processes)

A

load and spring

184
Q

if there is no change in end feel between flexed and extended positions when evaluating for PTP’s then what can we assume

A

the dysfunction follows Type I Mechanics

185
Q

what can be used to evaluate side bending at each segmental level

A

translatory glide

186
Q

if a segmental level has ease of translation from left to right that would indicate what

A

L SB (left side bending dysfunction)

187
Q

in a seated position how can we evaluate side bending at the thoracic vertebra

A

examiner pushes down on patients shoulder with one hand and monitors side bending of the ipsalateral transverse process with the other hand

188
Q

how can we evaluate rotational motion of thoracic vertebra from a seated position

A

examiner induces rotation by pulling shoulder girdle posterior and pushing anteriorly on ipsilateral transverse process

189
Q

ease of motion relative to side bending and rotation would be palpated as opposite in what type of dysfunction

A

neutral (type I)

190
Q

what are we looking for when we assess thoracic vertebra in flexion or extension

A

type II dysfunction (SB and R to same side)

191
Q

what does it mean if segment improves or rotational end feel becomes more symmetric in flexion

A

flexion Type II dysfunction

192
Q

what kind of dysfunction can live in the lateral malleolus

A

restriction to gliding (anterior or posterior)

193
Q

expected ROM for dorsiflexion

A

15-20

194
Q

expected ROM for plantar flexion

A

50-65

195
Q

dorsiflexion and plantar flexion: motion is occurring between what bones

A

talus and tibia/ fibula

196
Q

how do we check talus dysfunction

A

plantar flexion and dorsi flexion

197
Q

how do we check calcaneus dysfunction

A

inversion and eversion

198
Q

how do we avoid excess laxity in subtalar joint when checking for calcaneal dysfunction

A

place ankle in standing position (dorsiflex to 90 degrees between tibia and foot)

199
Q

expected ROM for inversion

A

35

200
Q

expected ROM for eversion

A

20

201
Q

what do we call motion occurring between talus and calcaneus

A

subtalar motion

202
Q

expected ROM for subtler inversion

A

10

203
Q

expected ROM for subtler eversion

A

10

204
Q

what motions of the navicular bone must we check for dysfunction

A

plantar and dorsal glide

205
Q

what is the more common kind of navicular dysfunction

A

plantar glide dysfunction

206
Q

if the patient has a dorsal navicular dysfunction what is that commonly associated with

A

tight plantar fascia

207
Q

what motions of the cuboid bone must we check for dysfunction

A

plantar and dorsal glide

208
Q

what is the more common kind of cuboid dysfunction

A

plantar glide dysfunction

209
Q

what motions of the cuneiform bone must we check for dysfunction

A

plantar and dorsal glide

210
Q

what is the more common kind of cuboid dysfunction

A

plantar glide dysfunction

211
Q

what motions of the metatarsal bone must we check for dysfunction

A

plantar and dorsal glide

212
Q

what is the more common kind of metatarsal dysfunction

A

plantar glide dysfunction

213
Q

what motions must be checked for dysfunction at the metatarsophalangeal joints

A

plantar/dorsiflexion, adduction/abduction, internal/external rotation

214
Q

how do we check abduction and adduction of the wrist

A

place wrist into supination and radial deviate (abduct) then ulnar deviate (adduct)

215
Q

the thumb can be abducted by moving it anteriorly when the hand is supine and adducted by moving it posteriorly in the same position. where does the thumb like to live?

A

abduction

216
Q

what kind of motion occurs in rib 1

A

50% bucket, 50% pump

217
Q

what kind of motion occurs in rib 2

A

primarily pump handle

218
Q

which rib (in a group dysfunction) is key to address with treatment for INHALATION dysfunction

A

most inferior

219
Q

lets say ribs 1-2 on the left delay moving into inhalation position while right side moves into inhalation easily (both move into exhalation just fine) how do you name the dysfunction?

A

left ribs 1-2 exhalation group, pump handle somatic dysfunction

220
Q

what kind of motion occurs in ribs 3-6

A

mixed pump and bucket handle (more inferior = more bucket handle… rib 6 is 50/50)

221
Q

where do you palpate ribs 3-10 to assess for somatic dysfunction

A

with ulnar aspect of hand contact costochondral junction bilaterally

222
Q

which rib (in a group dysfunction) is key to address with treatment for Exhalation dysfunction

A

most superior

223
Q

what kind of motion occurs in ribs 7-10

A

mainly bucket handle

224
Q

what kind of motion occurs in ribs 11-12

A

caliper motion

225
Q

how do we position patient to assess motion of ribs 11-12

A

patient prone

226
Q

restriction of motion in ribs 11-12 is influenced by what muscle

A

quadratus lumborum

227
Q

what kind of force do we apply to the ulna to test ulnar abduction

A

valgus

228
Q

what kind of force do we apply to the ulna to test ulnar adduction

A

varus

229
Q

a posterior radial head dysfunction will have ease of motion to posterior glide and ___

A

pronation

230
Q

an anterior radial head dysfunction will have ease of motion to anterior glide and ___

A

supination

#MedSchool (17 decks)

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