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Hamsters, GPs, other rodents > PBCh3_Hamsters > Flashcards

PBCh3_Hamsters Flashcards

1
Q

How many different hamster species are found worldwide?

A

25

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2
Q

Where are most of the hamster species found geographically (in their natural habitat)?

A
  1. southeastern Europe and Asia
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3
Q
  1. How many digits does the Syrian hamster have on the front feet? On the rear feet?
A
  1. 4 and 5
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4
Q
  1. Adult Syrian hamsters are larger than adult Syrian hamsters.
A
  1. female; male
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5
Q
  1. True or False: The female Syrian hamster’s urethra has a separate opening from the vagina.
A
  1. True
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6
Q
  1. Both sexes possess , which consist of sebaceous glands, pigment cells, and terminal hair.
A
  1. paired flank organs
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7
Q
  1. What role do the structures in #7 play?
A
  1. conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone
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8
Q
  1. Where do hamsters have prominent depots of brown fat? (4 locations)
A
  1. beneath/between scapulae; axilla; neck; between adrenals and kidneys
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9
Q
  1. Which teeth grow continuously?
A
  1. incisors (not molars)
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10
Q
  1. Many genera of hamsters have , which are immunologically privileged sites that allow xenograft transplants to survive.
A
  1. buccal pouches
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11
Q
  1. The hamster’s stomach is divided into 2 portions; name them.
A
  1. nonglandular and glandular segments
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12
Q
  1. are a normal constituent of small intestinal crypts.
A
  1. Paneth cells
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13
Q
  1. True or False: the hamster’s cecum is divided into apical and basal portions separated by a semilunar valve.
A
  1. True
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14
Q
  1. How many lobes does a hamster’s liver have?
A

4

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15
Q
  1. Does the hamster have a gall bladder?
A
  1. Yes
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16
Q
  1. Does the hamster have respiratory bronchioles?
A
  1. No
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17
Q
  1. Name the lung lobes in the hamster: left? Right?
A
  1. Single left lobe; right cranial, middle, caudal, intermediate, and accessory
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18
Q
  1. Describe the female reproductive tract.
A
  1. Duplex uterus with 2 cervical canals that merge into a single external cervical os
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19
Q
  1. How many pairs of mammary glands does the Syrian hamster have?
A
  1. 7 pairs
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20
Q
  1. Adult male hamsters develop large adrenal glands. Why is this so?
A
  1. Zona reticularis enlarges to 3x the size of the female
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21
Q
  1. What kind of placenta does the hamster have?
A
  1. labyrinthine hemochorial
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22
Q
  1. Hamster’s commonly have polychromasia and moderate anisocytosis.
A
  1. erythrocytes
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23
Q
  1. Hamster neutrophils have densely staining eosinophilic granules and may be referred to as .
A
  1. heterophils
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24
Q
  1. True or False: Antibodies to the MAdV-2 (K87) strain of mouse adenovirus are commonly present in hamsters from commercial suppliers in the US.
A
  1. True
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25
Q
  1. True or False: Adenovirus commonly causes clinical signs in hamsters.
A
  1. False; infected hamsters are asymptomatic
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26
Q
  1. Name the pathologic hallmark of adenoviral infection in the hamster.
A
  1. Large, amphophilic intranuclear inclusions in enterocytes lining villi and goblet cells of jejunum & ileum
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27
Q
  1. Malformed or missing incisors in suckling and weanling hamster pups is indicative of what?
A
  1. Toolan H-1 virus (rat parvovirus)
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28
Q
  1. True or False: Hamster parvovirus is over 98% homologous to MPV-3.
A
  1. True. Infection in hamsters occurs through interspecies transmission from mice, which are the natural rodent host for this virus.
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29
Q
  1. Name the cause of transmissible lymphoma in hamsters.
A
  1. Hamster polyoma virus (HaPV); transmissible lymphoma can occur in epizootics among young hamsters
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30
Q
  1. Keratinizing skin tumors of hair follicle origin are caused by what virus?
A
  1. HaPV; not to be called hamster papillomavirus even though the polyoma virus can cause papilloma-like skin lesions
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31
Q
  1. HaPV is spread by environmental contamination with infected .
A
  1. Urine
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32
Q
  1. True or False: HaPV is oncogenic, but tumor formation is a side effect of infection and not critical to the virus life cycle.
A
  1. True
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33
Q
  1. Do lymphomas caused by HaPV have detectable infectious virus?
A
  1. No. This is because HaPV can infect cells lytically with virus replication or transform cells without virus replication.
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34
Q
  1. True or False: HaPV epitheliomas have virus replication in keratinizing epithelium, similar to the behavior of papillomaviruses.
A
  1. True
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35
Q
  1. Explain what may happen when HaPV is introduced into a naïve population of breeding hamsters.
A
  1. Epizootic of lymphoma, with attack rates as high as 80% among young hamsters within 4-30 wk postexposure (this is a diagnostic phenomenon). Infected hamsters may also have epitheliomas, usually around the face and feet. Once enzootic, incidence of lymphoma declines to much lower levels.
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36
Q
  1. Hamsters with lymphoma appear thin and often have palpable masses in their abdomens. Where do lymphomas usually arise?
A
  1. In the mesentery, without involvement of the spleen. Can also occur in axillary and cervical l.n. Infiltration of liver, kidney, thymus, other organs may occur.
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37
Q
  1. Why is epizootic HaPV unmistakable?
A
  1. Lymphoid tumors are otherwise rare in hamsters and when they occur it is in aged hamsters.
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38
Q
  1. True or False: Trichoepitheliomas have been described in hamsters due to causes other than HaPV.
A
  1. False
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39
Q
  1. Describe how to effectively eliminate HaPV.
A
  1. Total depopulation and thorough decontamination of the premises. The virus is resistant to environmental decontamination.
40
Q
  1. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis (LCM) virus is an with a wide host range, including humans, rodents, and NHP. Its principal natural reservoir host is the .
A
  1. Arenavirus; wild mouse
41
Q
  1. is the recognized method for confirming the diagnosis of LCM.
A
  1. Serology
42
Q
  1. LCMV-infected hamsters are recognized to be a source of infection in human patients.
A
  1. Zoonotic
43
Q
  1. True or False: Pneumonia Virus of Mice (PVM) can cause infections in hamsters that normally go unrecognized as a subclinical event.
A
  1. True
44
Q
  1. The significance of PVM infection in hamsters is unknown; however, it could represent a complicating factor in research.
A
  1. Pulmonary
45
Q
  1. True or False: Sendai virus causes clinical disease in hamsters characterized by respiratory dysfunction.
A
  1. False. Hamsters are often serologically positive for Sendai but typically show no clinical signs.
46
Q
  1. Describe the histopathologic changes caused by Sendai virus in the hamster.
A
  1. Focal to segmental rhinitis progressing to necrotizing tracheitis and multifocal bronchoalveolitis; typically resolve by 12 days post-inoculation.
47
Q
  1. True or False: Campylobacter jejuni has been isolated from hamsters with enteritis but not from clinically normal hamsters.
A
  1. False. It has been isolated from both, and subclinically infected hamsters may shed the organism in the faces for up to several months.
48
Q
  1. Name 8 antibiotics that have been associated with enterocolitis in hamsters.
A
  1. Lincomycin, clindamycin, ampicillin, vancomycin, erythromycin, cephalosporins, gentamicin, penicillin
49
Q
  1. The predominant bacterial flora in the hamster intestine are and .
A
  1. Lactobacillus and Bacteroides
50
Q
  1. After therapy with narrow-spectrum antibiotics, there can be overgrowth of , resulting in acute colitis, diarrhea, and death.
A
  1. Clostridium difficile
51
Q
  1. Oral administration of from normal animals following vancomycin treatment provides protection to most hamsters.
A
  1. Cecal contents
52
Q
  1. True or False: Acute enteritis with mortality has been associated with C. difficile infection in hamsters with no previous history of antibiotic therapy.
A
  1. True
53
Q
  1. Microscopically, with mucosal damage is the characteristic finding (C. difficile).
A
  1. Necrotizing typhlitis
54
Q
  1. Name 3 clinical signs associated with cecal hyperplasia?
A
  1. Runting, diarrhea, high mortality
55
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of cecal hyperplasia?
A
  1. None has been identified, it may be the recovery phase of clostridial enteropathy
56
Q
  1. What is the cause of Tyzzer’s disease in hamsters?
A
  1. Clostridium piliforme
57
Q
  1. What age of hamster is most frequently affected with Tyzzer’s?
A
  1. Weanling
58
Q
  1. Name the stain(s) used to demonstrate the Tyzzer’s organism in affected cells.
A
  1. Warthin-Starry or Giemsa
59
Q
  1. Enteropathogenic strains of E. coli may cause enteritis in what age of hamster?
A
  1. Weanling
60
Q
  1. Name some gross necropsy findings in cases of E. coli enteritis.
A
  1. SI – yellow to dark red fluid; colitis, typhlitis +/- colonic intussusceptions
61
Q
  1. Proliferative ileitis (aka regional ileitis, hamster enteritis, terminal enteritis, atypical ileal hyperplasia, enzootic intestinal adenocarcinoma, proliferative bowel disease, wet tail) in the hamster is caused by:
A
  1. Lawsonia intracellularis
62
Q
  1. Hamsters are normally resistant to proliferative ileitis by what age?
A
  1. 10-12 wk of age
63
Q
  1. Describe the typical appearance of hamsters affected with proliferative ileitis.
A
  1. Runted, emaciated, soiling of the perineum with diarrhea
64
Q
  1. Describe the gross appearance of the intestine in a hamster with proliferative ileitis.
A
  1. Ileum is segmentally thickened, often with prominent serosal nodules and fibrinous peritoneal adhesions to adjacent structures. Opened bowel has abrupt transition of craniad, normal ileum, and caudal cecum with the affected hyperplastic mucosa.
65
Q
  1. How does one confirm the diagnosis of proliferative ileitis?
A
  1. Demonstration of typical lesions is usually sufficient to confirm the diagnosis.
66
Q
  1. H. aurati is a urease-positive bacterium that has been associated with in naturally infected hamsters.
A
  1. gastritis
67
Q
  1. In hamsters, Salmonella serotypes and are the most frequent isolates.
A
  1. typhimurium and enteriditis
68
Q
  1. Name typical clinical signs seen during explosive outbreaks of Salmonellosis.
A
  1. depression, ruffled hair coat, anorexia, dyspnea, high mortality
69
Q
  1. Name typical gross necropsy findings in Salmonellosis.
A
  1. Multifocal, pinpoint pale areas in the liver, patchy pulmonary hemorrhage and reddened hilar lymph nodes.
70
Q
  1. Name typical microscopic findings in Salmonellosis.
A
  1. multifocal interstitial pneumonitis; pulmonary venous septic thrombophlebitis; focal splenic necrosis and focal necrotizing hepatitis
71
Q
  1. True or False: Salmonellosis is a common disease in hamsters around the world.
A
  1. False; it is rare but when present can cause severe disease; zoonosis also
72
Q
  1. True or False: The hamster serves as a host for Corynebacterium kutscheri but is relatively resistant to clinical disease.
A
  1. True
73
Q
  1. True or False: In hamsters with demodicosis, denuded areas of skin are typically pruritic, dry, and scaling.
A
  1. False. Denuded areas are usually NON-pruritic.
74
Q
  1. Specimens for diagnosis of mites should be obtained from which sex of hamster?
A
  1. Male – they typically have a larger mite load than females.
75
Q
  1. True or False: Hamsters are host to many enteric protozoa, but very few protozoa have any pathogenic significance.
A
  1. True
76
Q
  1. True or False: Spironucleus muris is commonly found in hamsters but the significance of the infection in Syrian hamsters is yet to be determined.
A
  1. True
77
Q
  1. Describe how to diagnosis Giardiasis in the hamster.
A
  1. Wet mount prep from duodenal region (pear shaped organisms tumbling); banded cyst forms in wet mount prep or Giemsa-stained prep; fecal flotation showing thick-walled ellipsoidal cysts containing 4 nuclei.
78
Q
  1. Liver cysts of , the intermediate stage of Taenia taeniaformis, a tapeworm of dogs and cats, have been found in hamsters.
A
  1. Cysticercus fasciolaris
79
Q
  1. Spontaneous hemorrhagic necrosis (SHN) has been recognized in what age of hamsters?
A
  1. fetal hamsters in the last trimester and newborn hamsters
80
Q
  1. Diabetes mellitus is a genetically recessive disorder in hamsters, occurring with high incidence in some inbred lines.
A
  1. Chinese
81
Q
  1. True or False: Stress may cause females to become pugilistic or cannibalistic.
A
  1. True
82
Q
  1. Name the common diseases associated with aging in hamsters.
A
  1. Hamster Glomerulonephropathy (arteriolar nephrosclerosis); Amyloidosis; Atrial Thrombosis; Polycystic Liver Disease; Bile Ductular Hyperplasia/Hepatic Cirrhosis
83
Q
  1. True or False: Spontaneous lymphomas (not associated with hamster polyoma virus) and cutaneous lymphoma resembling mycosis fungoides have both been identified in adult hamsters.
A
  1. True
84
Q
  1. Name the genus and species of the following hamsters used in research: a. Syrian or golden hamster b. Chinese or gray hamster c. European or black-bellied hamster d. Armenian or migratory hamster e. Dzungarian, Siberian, dwarf, striped, hairy-footed hamster f. South African hamster or white-tailed rat
A
  1. a. Mesocricetus auratus b. Cricetulus griseus c. Cricetus cricetus d. Cricetulus migratorius e. Phodopus sungorus f. Mystromys albicaudatus
85
Q
  1. Hamsters infected with Hamster Parvovirus have which of the following lesions: a. Enamel hypoplasia of the incisor teeth b. Periodontitis c. Multifocal cerebral mineralization d. Testicular atrophy with multifocal necrosis and mineralization of cells lining seminiferous tubules e. All of the above
A

e.

86
Q
  1. Infection with LCMV may occur by exposure to: a. Urine b. Saliva c. Feces d. a and b e. b and c
A

d.

87
Q
  1. The patterns of disease that occur in hamsters post-exposure depend on: a. Age of the animal b. Strain and dose of the virus c. Route of inoculation d. All of the above
A

d.

88
Q
  1. Spontaneous cases of cecal hyperplasia have been observed in: a. Suckling hamsters b. Weanling hamsters c. Adult hamsters d. a and b e. b and c
A

d.

89
Q
  1. Which of the following lesions are seen in hamsters affected with Tyzzer’s disease? a. Multifocal hepatic necrosis b. Edematous and dilated ileum, cecum, colon c. Focal granulomatous myocarditis d. a and b e. all of the above
A

e.

90
Q
  1. Which of the following Helicobacter species have been isolated in hamsters? a. H. mesocricetorum b. H. cinaedi c. H. aurati d. H. cholecystis e. all of the above
A

e.

91
Q
  1. Hamsters may be infested with which of the following mites: a. Notoedres notoedres b. Demodex criceti c. Ornithonyssus bacoti d. Demodex aurati e. All of the above
A

e.

92
Q
  1. Giardia muris causes which of the following in hamsters: a. no clinical signs b. chronic emaciation and diarrhea c. enterotyphlocolitis d. all of the above e. none of the above
A

d.

93
Q
  1. Hamsters may be infected with which of the following pinworms? a. Syphacia criceti b. Syphacia mesocriceti c. Syphacia obvelata d. S. muris e. a and b f. all of the above
A

f.

94
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding SHN? a. SHN-affected hamsters are stillborn or weak at birth and are frequently cannibalized by the dam b. Symmetrical subependymal vascular degeneration with edema and hemorrhage in the adjacent neuropil is seen in the prosencephalon c. There are strain-related variations in susceptibility to disease d. Diets deficient in available Vitamin E cause SHN e. all of the above
A

e.

95
Q
  1. Which of the following environmental/genetic disorders have been identified in hamsters? a. bedding-associated dermatitis b. malocclusion c. hydrocephalus d. periodontal disease e. all of the above
A

e.

96
Q
  1. Match the correct age-related disease with the pathologic description: a. affected kidneys are pale and granular in appearance, with irregular cortical depressions b. severe dyspnea secondary to CHF; thrombus in left auricle/atrium c. pale kidneys with irregular granular subcapsular surface; swollen liver with prominent lobular pattern d. uniform nodularity to hepatic capsular surface e. raised cystic areas of variable size, up to 2 cm diameter, present on the capsule and within the parenchyma of the liver
A
  1. a. Hamster Glomerulonephropathy b. Atrial Thrombosis c. Amyloidosis d. Bile Ductular Hyperplasia e. Polycystic Liver Disease

Hamsters, GPs, other rodents (8 decks)

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