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Hamsters, GPs, other rodents > Other Rodents_BBCh7 > Flashcards

Other Rodents_BBCh7 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The one characteristic shared by all rodents is:
    a. Hypsodontic teeth
    b. Harderian glands
    c. Vesicular glands
    d. Specialized dentition for gnawing
A

d.

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2
Q
  1. The term “rodent” is derived from the Latin “rodens” meaning eating. (TorF)
A

False. It means gnawing

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3
Q
  1. The toothless interval between rodent incisors and the first cheek tooth is called the_____________________.
A

diastema

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4
Q
  1. Describe the “self-sharpening” system of gnawing in rodents.
A

Enamel is deposited on the anterior and lateral incisor surfaces while dentin is deposited on the posterior surface. As the rodents chew and gnaw. the softer dentin is worn away, leaving a chisel-like enamel edge.

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5
Q
  1. Mammologists divide rodents into three groups based on:

a. Whether or not they have a tail
b. Number of teeth
c. How the masseter muscle attachments evolved
d. Type and number of accessory sex glands

A

c.

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6
Q
  1. In hystricomorpha rodents, the __________ foramen has become very large.
A

infraorbital

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7
Q
  1. The two rodent suborders are ________________ and ________________.
A

Sciurognathi and Hystricognathi

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8
Q
  1. The genus for ground squirrels is:

a. Spermophilus
b. Cynomys
c. Geomys
d. Microtus

A

a.

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9
Q
  1. The main use of squirrels in research is to study ____________________.
A

hibernation

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10
Q
  1. By feeding a high cholesterol diet to the Richardson’s ground squirrel, what type of stones are formed?
A

gallstones

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11
Q
  1. Ground squirrels have a gestation period of approximately:

a. 10-20 days
b. 23-31 days
c. 30-40 days
d. 42-47 days

A

b.

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12
Q
  1. How many litters a year does the normal female ground squirrel have?
A

1

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13
Q
  1. A ________ (type of rodent) diet may be used to feed ground squirrels.
A

rat

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14
Q
  1. Name two conditions that are needed to induce hibernation in ground squirrel in a laboratory situation.
A

non-lighted room and ambient temperature 5-10 C.

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15
Q
  1. In Alaska and Southern California, ground squirrels commonly become infected with plague, which is:

a. Corynebacterium ulcerans
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Yersinia pestis
d. Hoplopsyllus anomalus

A

c.

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16
Q
  1. The type of hepatitis associated with ground squirrel hepatitis virus (GSHV) is:
    a. Fulminate and acute
    b. Zoonotic
    c. Severe and chronic
    d. Mild to moderate and chronic
A

d.

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17
Q
  1. The most prevalent intestinal parasite in ground squirrels is:
    a. Capillaria hepatica
    b. Eimeria
    c. Sarcocystis
A

b.

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18
Q
  1. Hepatocellular carcinoma has developed in California ground squirrels infected with:
    a. GSHV
    b. Hepatitis B
    c. Woodchuck Hepatitis Virus (WHV)
A

a.

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19
Q
  1. What is the genus and species of the black-tailed prairie dog?
A

Cynomys ludovicianus

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20
Q
  1. The black-tailed prairie dog is commonly used to study which conditions?

a. Hepatitis
b. Hepatocellular carcinoma
c. Hepatitis lymphoma
d. Biliary physiology and gallstones

A

d.

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21
Q
  1. Female prairie dogs do not start breeding until they are how old?
A

2 years of age

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22
Q
  1. Prairie dogs have high concentrations of what blood component?

a. Eosinophils
b. Basophils
c. Small Platelets
d. Reticulocytes

A

c.

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23
Q
  1. Along with hepatocellular carcinomas, what is the other highly occurring neoplastic disease in prairie dogs?
    a. Elodontomas
    b. Squamous cell carcinomas
    c. Melanomas
    d. Astrocytomas
A

a.

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24
Q

Briefly describe the mechanism used by pocket gophers that allows them to gnaw dirt while burrowing and not get any dirt in their mouths.

A

Their lips close behind their incisors, allowing them to gnaw without getting dirt in their mouth.

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25
Q

Pocket gophers are ____________ and spend most of their life underground.

A

fossorial

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26
Q
  1. Pocket gophers have been important models for what type of research:
    a. Cancer
    b. Hepatic function
    c. Molecular Evolution
    d. Hepatitis
A

c.

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27
Q
  1. The gestational period for pocket gophers is:
    a. 18-19 days
    b. 29-30 days
    c. 24-25 days
    d. 40-42 days
A

a.

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28
Q
  1. The main ingredients in a pocket gopher diet are ____________________ and ______________.
A

roots and tubers

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29
Q
  1. The two genera making up pocket gophers are ___________________ and _________________.
A

Geomys and Thomomys

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30
Q
  1. Approximately 90% of wild pocket gophers have coccidian oocysts in their intestines. The genus of coccidian found is ______________.
A

Eimeria

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31
Q
  1. ________ species of biting lice have been found in pocket gophers. This is helpful because it allows researchers to further study speciation among pocket gophers.

a. 100
b. 30
c. 44
d. 122

A

d.

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32
Q

The genus and species for the bannertail kangaroo rat is _________ _________.

A

Dipodomys spectabilis

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33
Q

All species of kangaroo rats are found on what continent:

a. Africa
b. North America
c. South America
d. Europe

A

b.

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34
Q

The two related areas of research that kangaroo rats are used for are _______

A

renal physiology and water conservation.

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35
Q

The __________ gland is a prominent androgen-independent, oil-secreting gland that is present on the back of kangaroo rats, between the shoulders of both males and females.

A

dorsal

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36
Q
  1. Ad libitum water is recommended for kangaroo rats. (T or F)
A

False. Ad lib water can to diabetes insipidus.

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37
Q
  1. What animals require dust baths as a regular component of their husbandry?
A

Chinchillas, kangaroo rats, and degus

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38
Q
  1. What is the genus name for wood or pack rats?
A

Neotoma

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39
Q
  1. Wood rats have been used in what type of research:

a. Behavioral
b. Neurological
c. Zoonoses
d. All of the above

A

d.

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40
Q
  1. Name four zoonotic agents that are known to infect wood rats.
A
  1. Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas’ Disease), Leishmania mexicana (cutaneous leishmaniasis), Yersinia pestis, Borrelia burgdorferi, Sin Nombre Virus (hantavirus), Whitewater Arroyo virus (arenavirus)
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41
Q
  1. Name the two species (genus and species names) for two commonly studied grasshopper mice.
A

Onychomys torridus and O. leucogaster

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42
Q
  1. What zoonotic disease has been studied in grasshopper mice:

a. Rabies
b. Plague
c. Chagas’
d. Lyme

A

d.

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43
Q
  1. Grasshopper mice are largely carnivorous. (T or F).
A

True

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44
Q
  1. The ______________ ________________ gland is probably used for territorial marking.
A

midventral sebaceous

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45
Q
  1. When infected with the Lyme disease causative agent, grasshopper mice develop:

a. Hepatitis
b. Heart failure
c. Cystitis
d. Orchitis

A

c.

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46
Q
  1. The two most commonly used species of the genus Peromyscus are ______________ and _______________.
A

P. maniculatus and P. leucopus

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47
Q
  1. The main zoonotic agent of interest studied in deer mice is:

a. Borrelia
b. Yersinia
c. Rabies
d. Hantavirus

A

d.

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48
Q

Ectoparasites have been effectively treated with 5% ___________ ___________ dust prior to entry into laboratory animal facilities.

A

methyl carbamate

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49
Q
  1. Deer mice will seroconvert and show clinical disease from mouse hepatitis virus. (T or F)
A

False. When they seroconvert, they do not show clinical disease.

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50
Q
  1. What is the genus and species of the most commonly studied rice rat?
A

Oryzomys palustris

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51
Q
  1. The main area of studies in rice rats is on ______________ _____________, which they spontaneously develop.

a. Periodontal disease
b. Heart failure
c. Liver failure
d. Glomerulonephritis

A

a.

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52
Q
  1. The rice rat is the predominant reservoir host for ___________ virus, a cause of hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.
A

Bayou virus

53
Q
  1. The genus name for cane mice is_______________________.
A

Zygodontomys

54
Q
  1. Cane mice are used in comparative studies of mammalian circannual reproductive cycles because they are one of the few tropical species lacking a reproductive response to ____________________.
A

photoperiods

55
Q
  1. What are the three characteristics of cane mice that make them a good animal mode for evolutionary quantitative genetics?
A

short gestation time, high diploid number, availability of F1 and F2 hybrids from crosses between geographically isolated populations.

56
Q
  1. Cane mice urinate and defecate more frequently than laboratory mice (Mus musculus) and therefore require a higher frequency of cage cleaning. (T or F)
A

False. They urinate and defecate sparingly and cage cleaning is needed only every 1-2 weeks.

57
Q
  1. Cane mice develop chronic viremias to the causative agent for Venezuelan hemorrhagic fever. The causative agent is the _____________ virus.
A

Guarnarito visus

58
Q
  1. There are eight species of cotton rats. Two of these species are used in the laboratory. Of these two, one species is used predominantly. Therefore, the term cotton rat applies to only one species. The genus and species name of it is
    _____________________ _____________________.
A

Sigmodon hispidus

59
Q
  1. Cotton rats are important for respiratory research. Which two disease agents infect replicate well in cotton rats, making them good animal models?
    a. Respiratory syncitial virus and parainfluenza virus 3
    b. Influenza and adenovirus
    c. Measles and influenza
    d. Paramyxoviruses only
A

a.

60
Q
  1. Standard rodent diets appear suitable for maintenance and reproduction of the cotton rat. (T or F)
A

True

61
Q
  1. Several parasites have been described in laboratory maintained cotton rats and care must be taken when bringing them into a facility. (T or F)
A

False. Parasites have not been described in laboratory-maintained cotton rats.

62
Q
  1. Name the three most prevalent ectoparasites of wild cotton rats.
A
  1. Polygenis gwyni (flea), Dermacenter variabilis (American dog tick), and Ornithonyssus bacoti (tropical rat mite)
63
Q
  1. Cotton rats should not be picked up by their tails. (T or F).
A

True

64
Q
  1. Name the genus and species of the white-tailed rat principally studied in research.
A

Mystromys albicaudatus

65
Q
  1. What endocrine disorder is a spontaneously occurring condition in white-tailed rats?

a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Diabetes Mellitus
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Hypoadrenocorticism

A

b. Males have higher incidence.

66
Q
  1. In textbooks, the term gerbil usually refers to what genus and species name?
A

Meriones unguiculatus - the Mongolian gerbil

67
Q
  1. The common name for that gerbil is the _____________ gerbil, which originated from ________ (number) breeding pairs caught in 1935.
A

Mogolian gerbil, 20

68
Q
  1. Gerbils develop spontaneous epileptiform seizures, which mimic human ________ epilepsy.
A

idiopathic

69
Q
  1. Another neurological condition widely studied in gerbils is:

a. Blindness
b. Aneurysm formation
c. Stroke
d. Meningitis

A

c. Mongolian gerbils highly susceptible to cerebrtal infarction following unilateral ligation of one carotid artery, due to incomplete Circle of Willis.

70
Q
  1. Gerbils make an excellent animal model for studying lymphatic filariasis caused by Wuchereria bancrofti, which is a cestode. (T or F)
A

False. It’s nematode yo. Pay attention.

71
Q
  1. The large, ventral abdominal marking gland of gerbils is androgen dependent. (T or F).
A

True. Larger in males

72
Q
  1. The gerbil has relatively large __________ glands compared to rats:

a. Pituitary
b. Thyroid
c. Harderian
d. Adrenal

A

d. Three times larger on average

73
Q
  1. Why is a low humidity, less than 50%, advisable for housing gerbils?
A

A humidity higher than 50% can result in nasal dermatitis in the gerbil.

74
Q
  1. Gerbils develop a common skin condition that goes by the names of “facial eczema”, “sore nose”, and “nasal dermatitis.” What are three factors contributing to this condition?
A

Poor environment (excess humidity, overcrowding), bacterial infection (Staph aureus), excess Harderian gland secretions, bacterial maxillary sinusitis

75
Q
  1. What is the most frequently observed, naturally occurring, fatal infection in gerbils? (Common name and genus and species).
A

Tyzzer’s Disease - Clostridium piliforme

76
Q
  1. Helicobacter pylori infection in gerbils closely resembles that of humans. (T or F)
A

True

77
Q
  1. Which mouse pinworm can infect gerbils? (genus and species)
A

Syphacia oblevata

78
Q
  1. What is the genus and species of the other oxyurid that infects gerbils?
A

Dentostomella translucida

79
Q
  1. Demodicosis has not been reported in gerbils. (T or F)
A

False. A male gerbil has been found to have.

80
Q
  1. There have been several reports of dermatophyte infections, primarily Microsporum, in gerbils. (T or F)
A

False. No reports thus far.

81
Q
  1. Research gerbils will spontaneously develop periodontal disease after 2 months on standard laboratory rodent diets. (T or F)
A

False. After 6 months

82
Q
  1. On these standard rodent diets, approximately ____% of gerbils will become obese and manifest some pre-diabetic changes including decreased or increased (chose one) glucose tolerance.
A

10%, decreased

83
Q
  1. What must be done to gerbil tails that lose their skin?
A

Tail amputation

84
Q
  1. What antibiotic is particularly toxic to gerbils:

a. Dihydrostreptomycin
b. Penicillin
c. Enrofloxacin

A

a.

85
Q
  1. Approximately what percentage of gerbils develop the epileptiform seizures?
    a. 10 – 30%
    b. 20-40%
    c. 40-60%
    d. 80-90%
A

b.

86
Q
  1. What disorder of the reproductive system is seen frequently in gerbils?
    a. Cystic ovaries
    b. Cryptorchidism
    c. Uterine adenocarcinoma
    d. Prostatitis
A

a.

87
Q
  1. Early maturing female gerbils are more likely to breed successfully on a first paring than later maturing females. (T or F).
A

True

88
Q
  1. What two tumor types account for over 80% of all tumors seen in gerbils greater than 3 years of age:

a. Uterine adenocarcinoma and ovarian granulose cell tumors
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the nasal area and ovarian granulosa cell tumors
c. Squamous cell carcinoma of the male ventral marking glands and ovarian granulosa cell tumors
d. Uterine adenocarcinoma and Squamous cell carcinoma of the male ventral marking glands

A

c.

89
Q
  1. What heart defect has been found in newborn gerbils?
    a. Transposition of the great vessels
    b. Atrial septal defect
    c. Tetrology of Fallot
    d. Ventricular septal defects
A

d.

90
Q
  1. What is the genus and species name of the field or California vole?
A

Microtus calinfornicus

91
Q
  1. Meadow voles make a good animal model of what human disease:

a. Epileptiform seizures
b. Encephalitis
c. Meningitis
d. Hydrocephalus

A

a.

92
Q
  1. Prairie voles have been used extensively to study the physiology of the _________________ organ.
A

vomeronasal

93
Q

Voles are among some of the most prolific mammals. Reports of the common field vole/Eastern meadow vole (name genus and species) have demonstrated that as many as ______ (chose from list below) litters a year can be produced.

a. 20
b. 16
c. 17
d. 19

A

Microtus pensylvanicus, c. 17

94
Q

Commercial rodent and ________ diets have been used to successfully maintain voles.

A

rabbit

95
Q
  1. The multimammate rat usually has how many pairs of mammae:
    a. 6-10
    b. 7-11
    c. 8-12
    d. 17-19
A

c.

96
Q
  1. What is the genus and species of the colonies of multimammate rats used in research?
A

Mastomys natalensis

97
Q
  1. In what part of the world are multimammate rats thought to inhabit?

a. Europe
b. North America
c. Asia
d. Sub-Sahara Africa

A

d.

98
Q
  1. Multimammate rats have been used extensively for research and vaccine development for _____________ _____________ (genus and species of disease causing organism).
A

Yersinia pestis

99
Q
  1. Multimammate rats spontaneously develop gastric carcinoid and serves as a model for ______________ ______________ syndrome in humans.
A

Zollinger Ellison

100
Q
  1. The richest source of nerve growth factor are the _____________ _________
    Glands of the multimammate rat.
A

submaxillary salivary

101
Q
  1. Female multimammate rats have what male accessory sex organ:
    a. Seminal vesicles
    b. Prostate
    c. Bulbourethral glands
    d. Coagulating gland
A

b.

102
Q
  1. Multimammate rats do carry a papillomavirus that is responsible for what type of tumors:
    a. Cutaneous
    b. Ocular
    c. Hepatic
    d. Splenic
A

a.

103
Q
  1. Inflammation and ulceration of what part of the gastrointestinal tract occurs in multimammate rats, making them a good model of cellular regeneration:
    a. Stomach
    b. Duodenum
    c. Jejunum
    d. Ileum
A

b.

104
Q
  1. What is the genus and species of degus?
A

Octodon degus

105
Q
  1. What is unusual about the degu spleen?
A

It has sinusoids lined by endothelial cells having cuboidal morphology that give the spleen a glandular appearance.

106
Q
  1. Degu hematological and serum protein values closely match what other two rodents?

a. Guinea pigs and voles
b. Chinchillas and rats
c. Rats and mice
d. Guinea pigs and rats

A

d.

107
Q
  1. Degus, along with other rodents, will spontaneously develop diabetes mellitus. Their islet cells are found to have _____________ deposition.
A

amyloid

108
Q
  1. What ophthalmological abnormality is congenital in degus?

a. Prolapsed nictitans gland
b. Microopthalmia
c. Cataracts
d. Bupthalmos

A

c.

109
Q
  1. What is the genus and species of chinchilla that is widely used in research?
A

Chinchilla laniger

110
Q
  1. Along with guinea pigs, what unique characteristics do newborn chinchillas have?
A

Born fully furred with eye open.

111
Q
  1. What is the lifespan of chinchillas?

a. 12-20 years
b. 5-10 years
c. 5-7 years
d. 20-25 years

A

a.

112
Q
  1. The main laboratory use of chinchillas has focused on ______________ research.
A

auditory

113
Q
  1. What are the two ingredients in a chinchilla’s dust bath?
A

silver sand and Fuller’s earth

114
Q
  1. Chinchillas are monogamous. (T or F).
A

False. Polygamous

115
Q
  1. What two species of Yersinia commonly infect chinchillas?
A

Y. pseudotuberculosis and Y. enterocolitica

116
Q
  1. While there are no species-specific viral diseases described for chinchillas, spontaneous herpes like virus infection has been described. (T or F)
A

True

117
Q
  1. What two protozoal diseases were once commonly found in fur-ranched chinchillas?
A

Toxoplasma gondii and Giardia

118
Q
  1. Dermatophytosis is common in chinchillas. (T or F)
A

False

119
Q
  1. The most commonly found dermatophyte in chinchillas is

a. Tricophyton mentagrophytes
b. Microsporum canis
c. Microsporum gypseum

A

a.

120
Q
  1. What do chinchilla breeders call malocclusions in chinchillas?
A

“Slobbers”

121
Q
  1. Which occurs more frequently in chinchillas, diarrhea or constipation?
A

constipation

122
Q
  1. Bloat is a problem in females that are _______________.
A

lactating

123
Q
  1. What liver pathological abnormality might be found in routine post-mortem examinations?

a. Hepatic carcinomas
b. Galls stones
c. Bile duct occlusion
d. Fatty liver

A

d.

124
Q
  1. What is the predator-avoidance mechanism of the chinchilla called?
A

Fur slip

125
Q
  1. What common bacterium is commonly associated with bite wound abscesses in the chinchilla?
A

Staphylococcus

126
Q
  1. Paraphimosis in the chinchilla is most often a result of what?
A

fur ring around penis

127
Q
  1. The placenta of the chinchilla is most similar to what other rodent?

a. Guinea pig
b. Rat
c. Mouse
d. Degu

A

a.

128
Q

Irritation to the _______ of chinchillas might result during routine dust baths.

A

eyes; may result in conjunctivitis

Hamsters, GPs, other rodents (8 decks)

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