Guinea Pigs BB_Ch6 Flashcards

1
Q

The three suborders of the order Rodentia are:

A
  • Sciuromorpha - squirrels
  • Myomorpha - mice, rats, gerbils, hamsters, lemmings and voles
  • Hystricomorpha - chinchillas, degus, guinea pigs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which Family are guinea pigs in?
A
  1. Caviidae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many digits do Guinea Pigs have?

A

4 digits on front feet

3 on their back feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What kind of teeth do Guiena Pigs have?

A

hypsodontic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of epithelium does the guinea pig stomach have?

A

Glandular epithelium only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the approximate gut transit time for guinea pigs?

A

20 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

With coprophagy, that gut transit time can be extended to ___________.

A

60 to 70 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two names for the reflex involving the “cocking” of the pinna in response to a sharp sound?

A

Preyer or pinna reflex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the effect of ypophysectomy on growth rate of guinea pigs.

A

None. Pituitary gland does influence growth rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Guinea pigs, along with what two other non-rodent species, are strict herbivores and cecal fermenters?

A

Rabbits and horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the primary fatty acid produced by fermentation in the guinea pig gut?

A

Propionic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How are young guinea pigs inoculated with autochthonous flora?

A

Ingestion of maternal feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or false. Guinea pigs have an os penis.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

At about what time does the pubic symphysis separate in the female during gestation? What hormone is responsible for this separation?

A

last week of gestation

relaxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Approximately how far does the pubic symphysis separate?

A

2.5-3 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the average litter size of guinea pigs?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Intensively bred sows develop what type of skin problem?

A

hair loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What placenta type do guinea pigs have?

A

labyrinthine hemomonochorionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Guinea pig young are precocious or altricious?

A

Precocious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Below which weight is survival of a newborn doubtful?

A

60 grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name four species for which Bordetella bronchiseptica is a commensal organism.

A

Rabbits, dogs, primates, rats, mice, swine, cats, turkeys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Definitive diagnosis of B. bronchiseptica occurs through aerobic culture of the organism on which two media?

A

Sheep’s blood and MacConkey’s agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Reservoir for Streptobaccillis moniliformis?

A

wild rats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the two serovars for Streptococcus pneumoniae in guinea pigs?

A

4 and 19 F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

True or false. Streptococcus pneumoniae is zoonotic.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In guinea pigs, salmonellosis usually results in enlargement of which two organs?

A

Liver and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

True or false. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is associated with an acute, highly fatal septicemia as well as chronic emaciation in guinea pigs.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Clostridium difficile produces what exotoxins?

A

A and B exotoxins - bind to receptors on epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe the enzyme immunoassay is available for identification of C. difficile toxin.

A

Detects exotoxin A in feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Guinea pigs are susceptible to both human and bovine strains of _______________.

A

Mycobacterium

  • were historically used as a diagnostic aide
  • spontaneous cases very rare
  • transmission os disease from humans or cattle is unlikely
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The organism most likely found in cases of bumblefoot is ________________. What other pathologic lesions are associated with chronic cases?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

  • chronic cases associated with amyloid in liver, adrenals, spleen, and pancreatic islets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In the guinea pig, where do Chlamydophila multiply?

A

Conjunctival epithelial cell cytoplasm

  • Chlamydophila caviae
  • intracytoplasmic inclusions
  • 4-8 week old
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Guinea pigs infected with Chlamydophila caviae make good models for which two types of human infections of Chlamydophila?

A

Conjunctival and genital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe herpesviral infection in guinea pigs

A
  • Guinea Pig Cytomegalovirus – GPCMV
  • usually subclinical, or weight loss, lymphadenopathy
  • Hartley guinea pigs more suceptible than strain 2
  • large, eosinophilic, uusually intranuclear inclusion bodies in ductal epitheliam cells of submaxillary salivary gland 5 days-3 weeks after exposure
  • inclusion bodies may also be in brain, lung, kidney, spleen, pancreas, thymus, liver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What the two herpes like viruses found in guinea pigs that are not primary pathogens but may complicate research?

A
  • Guinea Pig Herpes Like Virus (GPHLV) - from primary guinea pig kidney cell cultures
  • Guinea Pig X Virus (GPXV) - from leukocytes of strain 2 guinea pigs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which virus should be included on a differential diagnosis list for lameness?

A

Poliovirus

  • RNA enterovirus
  • some antigenic cross-reaction with GDVII strain of mouse poliovirus
  • depression, lameness in one or more limbs, flaccid paralysis, weight loss, death over 2 weeks
  • diagnosis by positive ELISA using TMEV/strain GDVII mouse virus antigen combined with histopath of CNS and lumbar spinal cord lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A “wasting syndrome” in guinea pigs characterized by anorexia, severe eweight loss, diarrhea, and high mortality. Grossly, intestinal segments are reddened. Histologically, there is epithelial loss at the tips of the villi. What is your top differential and how would you definitively diagnose?

A

Coronavirus-like Particle (CVLP)

  • definitive diagnosis by detecting particle in feces by electron microscopy, histologic signs, and exclusion of other protozoal and bacterial enteropathies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Eimeria caviae is often seen as a co-infection with what organism?

A

Balantidium coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What disease is a primary risk for guinea pigs if exposed to rabbit urine?

A

Ecephalitozoon cuniculi

  • affects canids, rabbits, rats, mice, NHPs, guinea pigs, and other species
  • guinea pigs resistant to large spore doses, and disease does not usually cause clinical disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which protozoal disease is usually concomitant with an Escherichia coli enterotoxemia?

A

Cryptosporidium wruiri

  • coccidia of guinea pigs
  • usually subclinical
  • clinical signs most aften seen in young (< 300g or < 16 weeks)
  • prepatent period is 2 weeks, and infection usually cleared by 3-4 weeks post-ingestion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

True or false. Balantidium caviae is non pathogenic.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Klossiella cobayae has a predilection for which internal organ?

A

Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Found on fecal floatation of feces from a guinea pig.

A

Paraspidodera uncinata

  • cecal worm and only common helminth of the guinea pig
  • eggs seen in feces
  • inhabits but does not penetrate cecal and colonic mucosa
  • worms mature in 45 days, life cycle 51-66 days
  • infectious 3-5 days after shedding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What ascarid carried by raccoons an infect guinea pigs?

A

Baylisascaris proyonis

  • ova remain viable for years in soil, and weeks to months in straw
  • eggs resistant to most chemical disinfectants
  • ZOONOTIC
  • migration of larvae in CNS cause progressive neurologic disease: torticollis, ataxia, anorexia, stupor, hyperexcitability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Name and describe the mites which infest guinea pigs.

A

Chirodiscoides caviae

  • usually asymptomatic
  • heavy infectations can be seen on hair shafts

Trixacarus caviae

  • intensely pruritic
  • severely affected animals self-mutilate, lose weight, run, bump into objects, convulse and die
  • ZOONOTIC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. T. caviae may result in a ____________________________ pyoderma.
A
  1. Staphylococcal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. The zoonotic lesions caused in people by T. caviae are transient, pruritic _______________ lesions.
A
  1. Papulovesicular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Guinea pigs have (chose one) biting/chewing or sucking lice.
A
  1. Guinea pigs only have biting/chewing lice
49
Q
  1. Of the two species of lice affecting guinea pigs (Gyropus ovalis and Gliricola porcelli), which one is more common?
A
  1. Gliricola porcelli
50
Q
  1. True or false. Lice can be found macroscopically.
A
  1. True
51
Q
  1. What is the approximate length of a guinea pig louse?
A
  1. 1 to 1.5 mm
52
Q
  1. Where is pediculosis most evident in guinea pigs?
A
  1. Around the ears and the nape of the neck
53
Q
  1. Guinea pigs contract lice through direct contact with an infected guinea pig and contaminated________________.
A
  1. Bedding
54
Q
  1. What injectable drug is efficacious in treating pediculosis?
A
  1. Ivermectin
55
Q
  1. What two flea species have been known to affect guinea pigs?
A
  1. Ctenocephalides felis (cat flea) and Nosopsyllus fasciatus (rat flea)
56
Q
  1. The two main genera of causative fungi for dermatophytosis in guinea pigs is the zoophilic ________________ and the saprophytic _________________.
A
  1. Tricophyton is zoophilic and Microsporum is saprophytic.
57
Q
  1. Where is dermatophytosis most evident on a guinea pig?
A
  1. Around the eyes, nose, and beneath both ears
58
Q
  1. Does the hair lost during dermatophytosis regrow?
A
  1. Yes
59
Q
  1. The vesicles, pustules, and abscesses seen in dermatophytosis are most likely from a _______________ ______________ infection.
A
  1. Secondary bacteria
60
Q
  1. True or false. Dermatophytosis is exceptionally pruritic in guinea pigs.
A
  1. False. Dermatophytosis is usually non-pruritic in guinea pigs.
61
Q
  1. The incubation period for dermatophytosis in guinea pigs is how many days (a range)?
A
  1. 9 to 12
62
Q
  1. The dermatophytes infect which layers of keratin in the skin?
A
  1. Stratum corneum
63
Q
  1. The most reliable diagnostic method for dermatophytosis is culturing. How long does this usually take?
A
  1. 10 days
64
Q
  1. Two very common causes of hypovitaminosis C are_______________________________ and ______________________________.
A
  1. Feeding out of date food and feeding food meant for other species (especially rabbit food)
65
Q
  1. What two conditions should alert the clinical as to the possibility of a “marginal” vitamin C deficiency.
A
  1. Conjunctivitis and upper respiratory disease
66
Q
  1. Give two other names for hypovitaminosis C.
A
  1. Scurvy and scorbutus
67
Q
  1. Guinea pigs lack the genetic code to produce which hepatic enzyme, resulting in the need of guinea pigs to have vitamin C enriched foods?
A

L-gulonolactone oxidase

68
Q
  1. Vitamin C is a cofactor in which two types of reactions?
A
  1. Hydroxylation and amidation reactions
69
Q
  1. What are the two molecule types that when not scavenged intra and extracellulary by vitamin C result in tissue damage?
A
  1. Singlet oxygen and superoxide radicals
70
Q
  1. The primary problem of having marginally vitamin C deficient guinea pigs in a research environment is________________________________________.
A
  1. Increased susceptibility to infectious diseases
71
Q
  1. Name at least three other types of animals that are not able to produce their own Vitamin C.
A
  1. Primates, fruit eating bats, some birds, some fish, some cetaceans
72
Q
  1. At necropsy, Vitamin C deficient animals have bleeding in the subperiosteum, adrenal ______________, _________________muscle, joints, and intestines.
A
  1. Adrenal cortex and skeletal muscle
73
Q
  1. What two elements are missing in the connective tissue of animal suffering from hypovitaminosis C?
A
  1. Hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline
74
Q
  1. The normal serum level of Vitamin C in guinea pigs is round _______ mg/dl.
A
  1. 2.01 mg/dl
75
Q
  1. True or false. Guinea pigs need to ingest approximately 6 mg of Vitamin C a day.
A
  1. True
76
Q
  1. Guinea pigs drinking alcohol have a (chose one) increased or decreased need for Vitamin C?
A
  1. Increased
77
Q
  1. The two types of pregnancy toxemia seen are broadly described as ______________ and _______________.
A
  1. Circulatory and Nutritional
78
Q
  1. What other animals (name three) also suffer from pregnancy toxemia similar to guinea pigs?
A
  1. Primates, rabbits, ruminants, dogs
79
Q
  1. Which type (see question 91) of pregnancy toxemia usually results in more severe changes seen at necropsy?
A
  1. Circulatory
80
Q
  1. In both forms, the liver is affected. Briefly describe the liver changes seen macroscopically.
A
  1. Enlarged and yellow tan in color. Necrotic foci seen with the circulatory form
81
Q
  1. Ketosis can cause what pathological changes in the stomach?
A
  1. Gastric ulceration
82
Q
  1. The proteinaceous urethral plugs found in older male guinea pigs probably originate from which accessory sex organ?
A
  1. Seminal vesicles
83
Q
  1. True or false. The two primary bacteria involved in cystitis in guinea pigs are Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus sps.
A
  1. True
84
Q
  1. Urolithiasis is common in (chose one) young/middle age/older (chose one) boars/sows.
A
  1. Older Sows
85
Q
  1. Continued occlusion of urinary output by urinary calculi may result in hydro-______________ and hydro-______________.
A
  1. Hydroureter and Hydronephrosis
86
Q
  1. The progression of formation for uroliths in guinea pigs is ionic saturation to _______________ to nucleation to ________________ to crystal growth in urolith formation.
A
  1. Ionic saturation to supersaturation to nucleation to crystallization to crystal growth in urolith formation
87
Q
  1. The limiting amino acid of guinea pigs is _______________.
A
  1. Arginine
88
Q
  1. Diets deficient in tryptophan lead to the formation of what ocular problem in guinea pigs?
A
  1. Cataracts
89
Q
  1. Guinea pigs synthesize enough Vitamin ______ and most of the _______ Vitamins.
A
  1. Guinea pigs synthesize enough Vitamin K and most of the B Vitamins
90
Q
  1. A diet deficient in Thiamin (Vitamin B1) leads to what types of clinical signs?
A
  1. Central nervous system clinical signs
91
Q
  1. A diet deficient in Riboflavin (Vitamin B2) results in what type of ocular lesion?
A
  1. Corneal vascularization
92
Q
  1. Potassium is known in guinea pigs to counteract the adverse effects of excess __________ by providing an exchange cation to remove excess _____________ ions.
A
  1. Phosphate, Hydrogen
93
Q
  1. True or false. Multifocal mineralization of skeletal and cardiac muscle fibers in guinea pigs over 1 year of age are usually life threatening.
A
  1. False. The Multifocal mineralization is usually asymptomatic.
94
Q
  1. What is a primary reason to not feed food meant for other species to guinea pigs?
A
  1. To prevent metastatic calcification and mineralization
95
Q
  1. Diabetes mellitus in guinea pigs resembles Type ______ diabetes in humans.
A
  1. Type I
96
Q
  1. Guinea pigs injected subcutaneoulsy with Freund’s complete adjuvant (FCA) are known to develop what type of respiratory tract lesions?
A
  1. Pulmonary granulomas
97
Q
  1. Hair loss is frequently observed in intensively bred sows. Does the hair regrow when breeding ceases?
A
  1. Yes
98
Q
  1. True or false. A transient hair loss can be noted in young guinea pigs at weaning.
A
  1. True
99
Q
  1. A fetus larger than _______ grams can be a cause of dystocia in guinea pigs.
A
  1. 100 grams
100
Q
  1. Sows should be bred before _______ months of age to allow for the pubic symphysis to properly separate in the last part of gestation.
A
  1. 7
101
Q
  1. Cavian leukemia is ______-cell neoplasm. The primary cell type seen is____________.
A
  1. B-cell neoplasm, Lymphoblast
102
Q
  1. True or false. The leukocyte count in cavian leukemia never reaches more than 100,000/mm3.
A
  1. False. The counts can go as high as 250,000/mm3
103
Q
  1. What types of tumors are the most frequent in guinea pigs?
A
  1. Hemolymphopoietic
104
Q
  1. The most common skin tumor of guinea pigs is the _____________________. What is the recommended treatment for this tumor type and where is it usually seen?
A
  1. Trichofolliculoma, surgical removal is the recommended course of treatment
105
Q
  1. Cutaneous papillomas are most often seen where in a guinea pig?
A
  1. Foot pads
106
Q
  1. True or false. Testicular tumors are relatively common in guinea pigs.
A
  1. False. Testicular tumors are rare in guinea pigs
107
Q
  1. The mammary adenocarcinomas seen in guinea pigs are of ____________ origin and will frequently metastasize.
A
  1. Ductal
108
Q
  1. Root abscesses of the upper molar teeth may extend into the _____________ sinus and result in what type of ocular lesion?
A
  1. Maxillary, Exophthalmos
109
Q
  1. In guinea pig molar occlusions, the points from the maxillary teeth usually point __________ and the points from the mandibular teeth usually point ____________.
A
  1. Labially, Lingually
110
Q
  1. Deposition of amyloid in what four organs is commonly seen in aged guinea pigs or guinea pigs suffering from chronic inflammation?
A
  1. Kidneys, adrenals, liver, spleen
111
Q
  1. What is amyloid?
A
  1. Amyloid is the extracellular deposition of polymerized protein subunits.
112
Q
  1. What is the range of incidence of cystic ovaries at necropsy in older sows?
A
  1. 76 to 90%
113
Q
  1. True or false. Cystic ovaries are never associated with leiomyomas of the uterine body or horns.
A
  1. False. Cystic ovaries are associated with leiomyomas of both the uterine body and horns.
114
Q
  1. Does the large foci of adipose tissue found spaced amount normal, functional pancreatic tissue of older guinea pigs interfere with pancreatic function?
A
  1. No
115
Q
  1. Guinea pigs have what type of retina?
A
  1. Paurangiotic
116
Q
  1. True or false. Guinea pigs have no tapetum.
A
  1. True
117
Q
  1. Genetic cataracts, found in strain __________ guinea pigs, are from a single, autosomal gene depletion of 34 residues that production a novel ξ-crystalline lens protein
A
  1. 13/N
118
Q

what are Kurloff cells?

A

estradiol-dependent mononuclear leukocyte unique to

the guinea pig, with a large mucopolysaccharide, intracytoplasmic inclusion body and NK activity in vitro