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PLE > Pathology Trigger Words > Flashcards

Pathology Trigger Words Flashcards

1
Q

[Neoplasm] Cells seen in patients with lymphoblastoma or metastatic carcinoma

A

Tart Cell

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2
Q

[Rheuma] Autoantibody which confer early disease onset of Sjogren Syndrome

A

Anti-Ro

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3
Q

[Rheuma] Autoantibody which confers diffuse scleroderma

A

Anti-Scl 70 (Anti-DNA topoisomerase I)

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4
Q

[Rheuma] Autoantibody which confers limited scleroderma

A

Anti-centromere

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5
Q

[Genetics] ___ is the 2nd most common cause of mental retardation

A

Fragile X Syndrome

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6
Q

[Genetics] Fragile X Syndrome confers what repeating expansion in what gene?

A

CGG, FMR1 Gene

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7
Q

[Genetics] Huntington disease confers what expansion in what gene?

A

CAG, HTT Gene

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8
Q

[Genetics] What enzyme is deficient in Chronic Granulomatous Disease?

A

NADPH oxidase

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9
Q

[Genetics] Syndrome which typically presents as albinism and bleeding diasthesis secondary to impaired phagolysosome function.

A

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

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10
Q

[Genetics] Syndrome typically presenting with cardiac anomalies, abnormal facies, thyroid disorder and a deletion in chromosome 22.

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

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11
Q

[Genetics] Triad of 1) thrombocytopenia, 2) repeated infections, and 3) eczema

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

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12
Q

[IDS] HIV virulent factor which allows the virus to integrate into the host cell.

A

gp41 (fusion protein)

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13
Q

[IDS] HIV virulent factor which allows the virus to attache to CXCR4 (lymphocytic) and CCR5 (macrophagocytic)

A

gp120

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14
Q

[IDS] CD4 threshold for each of the following infections in AIDS patients:

1) Toxoplasma
2) CMV chorioretinitis
3) Pneumocystis jirovecii
4) TB
5) Cryptosporidium
6) MAC

A

1) <100/uL
2) <50/uL
3) <200/uL
4) <500/uL
5) <200/uL
6) <50/uL

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15
Q

[Neoplasm] Hallmark of malignancy

A

Anaplasia

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16
Q

[Cell Mechanisms] Hallmark of tissue repaie

A

Granulation (not granuloma!)

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17
Q

[Neoplasm] Most commonly mutated protooncogene

A

RAS

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18
Q

[Neoplasm] Governor of the cell cycle, a tumor suppressor gene

A

Rb

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19
Q

[Neoplasm] Guardian of the genome, a tumor suppressor gene

A

p53

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20
Q

[Neoplasm] HPV is an oncogenic virus which causes inactivation of p53 by this protein

A

E6

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21
Q

[Neoplasm] Tumor suppressor gene mutated in breast and endometrial cancers

A

PTEN

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22
Q

[Neoplasm] Tumor suppressor gene mutated in FAP and colon cancer

A

APC

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23
Q

[Neoplasm] One of the most studied etiologic agent/ risk factor for Bladder SCCA

A

Schistosoma haematobium infection

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24
Q

[Neoplasm] Carcinogen associated with liver angiosarcomas

A

Vinyl chloride

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25
Q

[Neoplasm] Carcinogen associated with AML

A

Benzene

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26
Q

[Neoplasm] Electrolyte imbalances in Tumor Lysis Syndrome

A

HyperK+, HyperPhos, HyperUricemia, Hypocalcemia

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27
Q

[IDS] Characteristic cells in lymph nodes, lung, and sputum of measles patients

A

Warthin Finkelday cells

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28
Q

[IDS] Pink to purple intranuclear inclusion bodies in HSV infection

A

Cowdry bodies (Type A)

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29
Q

[IDS] Test to differentiate infectious mononucleosis etiology

A

Monospot test/ heterophile test (+: EBV; -: CMV)

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30
Q

[IDS] Characteristic appearance of basophilic inclusion bodies of CMV infection

A

Owl’s eye

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31
Q

[Neoplasm] Characteristic cells seen in malignancies with microcalcifications causing necrosis

A

Psamomma bodies

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32
Q

[Neoplasm] In which type of thyroid malignancy can orphan annie nuclei be seen?

A

Follicular thyroid Ca

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33
Q

[IDS] Characteristic cells seen in klebsiella granulomatis infection which show gram neg coccobacilli in macrophages

A

Donovan bodies

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34
Q

[IDS] In PRIMARY TB, this refers to consolidation at the subpleural space.

A

Ghon focus

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35
Q

[IDS] In PRIMARY TB, this refers to a consolidation with pulmonary hilar node involvement

A

Ranke complex

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36
Q

[IDS] In SECONDARY TB, this refers to consolidation usually at the apical area

A

Simmon focus

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37
Q

[IDS] Central coagulation necrosis surrounded by palisading macrophages and fibroblasts, plasma cell- rich infiltrate, few treponemes seen in tertiary syphillis infection

A

Gumma

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38
Q

[IDS] Triad of interstitial keratitis, hutchinson teeth (screwdriver or peg-shaped), and eight nerve deafness

A

Late Congenital Syphillis

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39
Q

[IDS] Psoriasiform hyperplasia or test tubes in a rack appearance is seen in this STD

A

Condyloma lata

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40
Q

[IDS] Phenomenon wherein too many antibodies prevent antibody-antigen complex formation leading to a false negative result in assays

A

Prozone phenomenon

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41
Q

[IDS] Structures of perivacular ring hemorrhages around vessels plugged with infected RBCs in cerebral malaria

A

Durck granulomas

42
Q

[IDS] Protozoan which has a maltese cross pattern morphology

43
Q

[IDS] Classic appearance of loss of striations in trichinosis of striated muscle cells with rich blood supply

A

Nurse cells

44
Q

[IDS] Meyers -Kouwenaar bodies are dead worms surrounded by hyaline, esosinophilic precipitates embedded in small epitheloid granulomas seen in ___.

A

Filariasis (Lung)

45
Q

[IDS] Accentuation of sclerosing keratitis seen in onchocerca infection as a result of anti-filarial treatment.

A

Mazzotti reaction

46
Q

[Cardio] Post-MI Pericarditis

A

Dressler Syndrome

47
Q

[Cardio] Diastolic murmurs

A

1) Aortic Regurgitation
2) Pulmonic Regurgitation
3) Mitral stenosis
4) Tricuspid stenosis

48
Q

[Cardio] Most common valvular defect secondary to rheumatic heart disease

A

Mitral stenosis

49
Q

[Cardio] Most common KNOWN cause of MVP causing mitral insufficiency

A

Marfan Syndrome (fibrillin 1 defect)

50
Q

[Cardio] Low-pitched diastolic rumbling murmur best heard at the apex concomitant with aortic regurgitation

A

Austin-Flint murmur

51
Q

[Cardio] “Caterpillar cells” which are plump macrophages with condensed chromatin pattern in a slender wavy ribbon seen in RF

A

Anitschkow cells

52
Q

[Cardio] Nodules found in the hearts of individuals with rheumatic fever

A

Aschoff bodies

53
Q

[Cardio] Subendocardial thickenings secondary to regurgitant jets seen in patients with RHD

A

MacCallum plaques

54
Q

[Cardio] Type of endocarditis associated with malignancy and endocardial trauma

A

Marantic endocarditis

55
Q

[Cardio] Type of endocarditis associated with SLE

A

Libman - Sacks endocarditis

56
Q

[Cardio] Concept which states that pressure decreases and velocity increases as fluid passes through a narrow opening

A

Venturi effect

57
Q

[Cardio] Most common helminthic etiology for myocarditis

A

Trichenella spiralis

58
Q

[Cardio] Most common parasitic etiology for myocarditis

A

T. cruzi (Chagas disease)

59
Q

[Cardio] Most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

Rhabdomyoma

60
Q

[Cardio] Most common primary cardiac tumor in adults

61
Q

[Cardio] Defect associated with paradoxical emboli

62
Q

[Hema] Subtype of AML with the best prognosis

A

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia FABM3, t (15,17)

63
Q

[Hema] Cells seen in the PBS of CLL patients, the most common leukemia of adults of the Western World

A

Smudge cells

64
Q

[Hema] Malignant transformation of CLL to Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma

A

Richter Syndrome

65
Q

[Hema] Cells which appear as large multiple nuclei or single with multiple lobes; each with a nucleolus seen in Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Reed- Sternberg cells

66
Q

[Hema] HL subtype with RS predominance and a (+) CD20 immunohistochemistry

A

Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin Lymphoma

67
Q

[Hema] Most common HL subtype

A

Nodular sclerosing

68
Q

[Hema] Proteinuria of multiple myeloma characterized by Ig light chains

A

Bence- Jones proteinuria

69
Q

[Hema] Infiltration of epidermis and upper dermis T-cells with
cerebriform nuclei and generalized exfoliative erythroderma seen in mycosis fungoides

A

Sezary Syndrome

70
Q

[Hema] Gene mutation in CML

71
Q

[Hema] Gene mutation in PV

72
Q

[Hema] Characteristic lytic bone lesions is seen in what hematologic disorder

A

Multiple Myeloma

73
Q

[Hema] Polycythemia Vera may proceed to this hematologic disorder once in the spent phase

A

Primary Myelofibrosis

74
Q

[Hema] Pathognomonic cells seen in Langerhans histiocytosis

A

Birbeck granules

75
Q

[Hema] Dacrocytes or tear-shaped RBCs are seen in this hematologic disorder

A

Primary Myelofibrosis

76
Q

[Hema] Gold standard diagnostic test for Hereditary Spherocytosis

A

Osmotic Fragility Test

77
Q

[Hema] Inclusions within red blood cells composed of denatured hemoglobin seen in asplenic G6PD deficiency

A

Heinz bodies

78
Q

[Hema] Common morphologic feature of RBCS in G6PD patients with a functional spleen

A

Degmacytes or Bite cells

79
Q

[Hema] What mutation causes sickling of RBCs

A

Glutamate -> Valine

80
Q

[Hema] Nuclear remnants seen in asplenic patients with Sickle cell anemia

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

81
Q

[Hema] Extramedullary hematopoiesis to compensate for B Thalassemia are seen as this on radiographs

A

Crew-cut appearance

82
Q

[Hema] Most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

von Willebrand disease

83
Q

[Hema] Toxin responsible for symptoms of HUS

A

Shiga-like toxin

84
Q

[Hema] Bilateral adrenal hemorrhage secondary to fibrin thrombi

A

Waterhouse-Friedrichsen Syndrome

85
Q

[Hema] Syndrome wherein a hemangioma is accompanied by bleeding diasthesis

A

Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome

86
Q

[Respi] Whorls of shed epithelium seen in Asthma

A

Curschmasnn spirals

87
Q

[Respi] Eosinophilic crystals seen in the airway of asthmatic patients

A

Charcot- Leyden crystals

88
Q

[Respi] The late stage of this airway disorder is characterized by Honeycomb fibrosis

A

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

89
Q

[Respi] Concretions of calcium and proteins seen in Sarcoidosis

A

Schaumann bodies

90
Q

[Respi] Stellate inclusions in giant cells seen in sarcoidosis

A

Asteroid bodies

91
Q

[Respi] The cough center

A

Nucleus tractus solitarius

92
Q

[Respi] A histomorphologic phenomenon of incrustation of blood vessel wall with basophilic nuclear material seen in small cell carcinoma

A

Azzopardi effect

93
Q

[Respi] Immunostains for squamous cell carcinoma

94
Q

[GI] Hypoproteinemia secondary to protein-losing enteropathy

A

Menetrier disease

95
Q

[GI] Mutations in HNPCC or Lynch Syndrome

A

MSH2, MLH1

96
Q

[GI] Procedure performed to treat extrahepatic biliary atresia

A

Kasai procedure

97
Q

[GI] Most common benign tumor of the GI tract

A

Cavernous Hemangioma

98
Q

[GI] Thrombosis at the portal circulation causing a sharply demarcated area of red-blue discoloration, hepatocyte atrophy, and congestion

A

Infarct of Zahn

99
Q

[GI] Syndrome of >= 2 thrombotic obstruction at the hepatic artery, ascites, hepatomegaly, and hypercoagulable state

A

Budd-Chiari Syndrome

100
Q

[GI] Perihilar cholangiocarcinoma

A

Klatskin tumor

PLE (8 decks)

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