OB Flashcards

1
Q

Cut off for prolonged latent phase in nulliparous women

A

> 20h

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2
Q

Cut off for prolonged latent phase in multiparous women

A

> 14h

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3
Q

Rate of cervical dilatation in nulliparous women

A

1.2cm/h

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4
Q

Rate of cervical dilatation in multiparous women

A

1.5cm/h

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5
Q

Cardinal movements

A

E-D-F-I-R-E-E-R-E

Engagement > Descent > Flexion > Internal rotation > Extension > External rotation or restitution > Expulsion

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6
Q

Ideal measurement of the following diameters:

1) True/ anatomic conjugate
2) Obstetric conjugate
3) Diagonal conjugate

A

1) 11cm
2) >10cm
3) >11.5cm

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7
Q

At which part of the cardinal movements does the descending head meet resistance?

A

Flexion

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8
Q

Which among the cardinal movements is essential for completion of labor?

A

Internal rotation

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9
Q

At which stage of labor do the cardinal movements occur?

A

2nd stage of labor

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10
Q

Peak of Beta hcG

A

3mos

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11
Q

Hormone important in breast ductal changes

A

Estrogen

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12
Q

Hormone important in lactiferous ducts changes

A

Progesterone

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13
Q

Signs of placental separation

A

Sudden gush of blood
Globular and firmer fundus
Lengthening of the umbilical cord
Rise of the uterus into the abdomen

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14
Q

Maneuver used in the dystocia drill where suprapubic pressure is applied over posterior aspect of anterior shoulder

A

Mazzanti maneuver

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15
Q

Manuever used in the dystocia drill where the anterior shoulder is pushed towards the chest

A

Rubin maneuver

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16
Q

Cephalic replacement

A

Zavanelli maneuver

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17
Q

Most common cause of preterm birth

A

Placenta previa or abruptio

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18
Q

Tocolytic agent of choice for preterm labor

A

Nifedipine

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19
Q

Dosing for betamethasone in premature labor? Dexamethasone?

A

Betamethasone: 12mg/IM q 24h for 2 doses
Dexamethasone: 6mg/IM q 12h for 4 doses

20
Q

Drug used in treatment of chorioamnionitis with high incidence of NEC

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid

21
Q

Karyotype of complete H. mole

A

46, XX

22
Q

Indication for methotrexate/ actinomycin D therapy in H. mole

A
o Maternal age > 35
o G4 and above
o Uterine size larger than AOG > 6 weeks
o Serum "-hCG titer > 100,000 mIU/ml
o Theca lutein cysts > 6 cm
oMedical complication arising from increased trophoblastic
proliferation
o Repeat molar pregnancy
o Residing in a distant geographical location
23
Q

Most common risk factor for ectopic pregnancy

A

Chlamydia infection

24
Q

Most common site of ectopic pregnancy

A

Tubal

25
Q

Gold standard for the diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy most especially tubal

A

Laparoscopy

26
Q

Boundary threshold for low-lying placenta

A

2cm

27
Q

Most common obstetric cause of DIC

A

Abruptio placenta

28
Q

Only well-accepted risk factor for gestational hypertensive disorders

A

Primiparity

29
Q

Anti-hypertensive with high risk of neonatal thrombocytopenia

A

Hydralazine

30
Q

Drug of choice for the prevention of seizures in preeclampsia

A

MgSO4

31
Q

Antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity

A

Calcium Gluconate

32
Q

Indications for CS for patients with CV disorders

A

Dilated aortic root > 4 cm or aortic aneurysm
Acute severe CHF
Recent MI
Severe symptomatic aortic stenosis
Warfarin administration within 2 weeks of delivery
Need for emergency valve replacement after delivery

33
Q

Most common adverse cardiovascular complication in pregnancy

A

Arrythmia

34
Q

Fetal response to maternal hypoxemia

A

Decreased cardiac output

35
Q

Drug of choice for the treatment of bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

36
Q

Diagnostic Criteria for bacterial vaginosis

A

3 out of 4 of the following:
o Vaginal pH >4.7
o Presence of clue cells on a gram stain or wet mount of vaginal discharge
o Homogenous, milky-white discharge
o Release of fishy odor when KOH is added to the discharge

37
Q

Strawberry cervix is seen in?

A

Trichomonas infection

38
Q

Visualization of pseudohyphae or budding yeasts in discharge

A

Vulvovaginal candidiasis

39
Q

Complication of PID causing adhesions and liver capsule inflammation

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

40
Q

Culture medium for N. gonorrheae

A

Thayer Martin Agar

41
Q

Granulomatous lesions, which destroy soft tissue, cartilage and bone and may be an immunological response to treponemal antigens

A

Gummas

42
Q

FBS cutoff for overt DM

A

126mg/dL

43
Q

How far along the pregnancy is it recommended to screen for GDM?

A

24-28 weeks

44
Q

Initial tests for GDM? If with risk factors?

A

FBS, HbA1c, RBS

If with risk factors, use 75g OGTT at first consult

45
Q

Re-testing if initial test is normal is done at ___ wks AoG?

A

32 weeks