Pathology-Liver and Gallbladder Path Flashcards

1
Q

A mother brings her 2 month old baby in because his skin is yellow. A CT scan showed biliary atresia. What are causes of this in such a young baby and what complications is he at risk for?

A

This can be due to congenital failure to form OR early destruction of the extra-hepatic biliary tree from infection. This can progress to liver cirrhosis.

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2
Q

A mother brings her 2 month old baby in because his skin is yellow. A CT scan showed biliary atresia. What type of bilirubin is causing the jaundice?

A

Conjugated, it has already passed through the liver.

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3
Q

A patient presents with RUQ pain. Ultrasound of his gallbladder is shown below. Name 3 ways gallstones can form.

A

Stasis can promote bacterial infection which deconjugate the bilirubin and cause bilirubin stones. A high concentration of cholesterol or bilirubin could cause stone precipitation in the bile. Decreased phospholipids (lecithin) or bile acids could also cause stone formation because they function to solubilize the cholesterol.

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4
Q

A 55 year old man presents to the clinic with colicky RUQ pain. He has a history of high cholesterol and is on cholestyramine to manage it. How could the medication be causing his symptoms?

A

Cholestyramine forms insoluble complexes with bile acids, preventing reabsorption and they are secreted in the feces. This lowers the concentration of bile acids and can thus promote formation of cholesterol gallstones due to lower solubility.

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5
Q

Why do we typically use ultrasound to look for these in the West?

A

The most common type of gallstones in the West are cholesterol stones, which are radiolucent.

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6
Q

Why are women at higher risks for gallstones than men?

A

Estrogen increases the activity of HMG-CoA reductase, increasing cholesterol synthesis. Estrogen also increases expression of LDL-R, increasing the amount of cholesterol available to put into the bile.

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7
Q

Risk factors for development of gallstones.

A

Fat, fertile, female in her forties with a family history and flatulence. Native American & hyperlipidemia too.

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8
Q

How does Clofibrate increase your risk for gallstones?

A

1) Increases HMG-CoA reductase activity, increasing cholesterol synthesis 2) Decreases bile acid synthesis, decreasing solubility of bile cholesterol.

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9
Q

Why are you at increased risk for gallstones if you have Crohn’s disease or liver cirrhosis?

A

Crohn’s: damage to terminal ileum -> decreased uptake of bile salts -> decreased bile cholesterol solubility. Cirrhosis: decreased synthesis of bile salts -> decreased bile cholesterol solubility

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10
Q

What are the major risk factors for the condition shown below?

A

Risk factors for bilirubin stones are: 1) Extravascular hemolysis: large production of unconjugated bilirubin is produced by the splenic macrophages (reticuloendothelial system), this increases the concentration of conjugated bilirubin in the bile. 2) Biliary tract infection: bacteria deconjugate the bilirubin and decreases bilirubin solubility

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11
Q

How do RBCs contribute to bilirubin concentration in the bile?

A

Hemoglobin -> haem + globin -> Haem goes to Fe2+ and protoporphyrin, globin goes to A.A. -> Fe is recycled, protoporphyrin is converted to unconjugated bilirubin -> unconjugated bilirubin binds albumin and heads to liver -> liver conjugates bilirubin -> Sent out in bile canaliculi -> Bile duct -> Gallbladder

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12
Q

What organisms can deconjugated bilirubin and increase risk for precipitation and bilirubin gallstone formation?

A

E. coli, ascaris lumbricoides and clonorchis sinesis

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13
Q

What is the most common symptom of people with gallstones?

A

They are typically asymptomatic.

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14
Q

A patient presents with waxing and waning colicky RUQ pain. Suddenly the pain goes away. If he had a gallstone, what was causing the pain? What may he be at risk for now?

A

He has biliary colic due to contraction and relaxation of the gallbladder while the stone is blocking the cystic duct. The pain went away once the stone passed. If the stone is now blocking the ampulla of Vater, he is at risk for obstructive jaundice and pancreatitis.

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15
Q

An overweight 40 year old Native American woman presents with RUQ pain radiating to her right scapula, nausea and vomiting. She has a fever of 102 and an elevated WBC. What is likely causing her condition?

A

He has acute cholecystitis. This is due to stone impaction -> gallbladder dilation -> pressure ischemia on vessels in gallbladder wall -> bacterial overgrowth -> inflammation of the gallbladder wall.

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16
Q

An overweight 40 year old Native American woman presents with RUQ pain radiating to her right scapula, nausea and vomiting. She has a fever of 102 and an elevated WBC. What other lab value may be elevated if she has acute cholecystitis?

A

Serum alkaline phosphatase. The epithelium in the gallbladder have this enzyme and would be releasing it as they die off.

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17
Q

An overweight 40 year old Native American woman presents with RUQ pain radiating to her right scapula, nausea and vomiting. She has a fever of 102, an elevated WBC and serum alkaline phosphatase. What is the major complication this patient is at risk for?

A

Rupture of the gallbladder wall.

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18
Q

An overweight 40 year old Native American woman presents with vague RUQ pain after meals. She has a history of gallstones and works in a textile factory. Gallbladder biopsy is shown below. What is causing her pain?

A

This patient has chronic cholecystitis due to chronic inflammation of the gallbladder. The inflammation was likely caused by chemical irritation or longstanding cholelithiasis. Note the Rokitansky-Aschoff sinus formation (outpouching of gallbladder sinuses in the smooth muscle).

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19
Q

An overweight 40 year old Native American woman presents with vague RUQ pain after meals. She has a history of gallstones and works in a textile factory. What is a late complication of the condition she currently has?

A

Porcelain gallbladder is a late complication of chronic cholecystitis. This is because chronic inflammation causes dystrophic calcification of the gallbladder, as shown in the radiograph below.

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20
Q

An overweight 40 year old Native American woman presents with vague RUQ pain after meals. She has a history of gallstones and works in a textile factory. How do you treat her?

A

Cholecystectomy, especially if porcelain gallbladder is present because it is a risk factor for gallbladder cancer.

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21
Q

An overweight 40 year old Native American woman presents with jaundice and abdominal pain. She is also septic. She has a history of choledocolithiasis. What is causing her condition?

A

This patient has ascending cholangitis. This is due to bacterial infection of the bile ducts, typically by enteric gram-negative bacteria. Choledocolithiasis can cause this because it blocks bile flow out of the duct, decreasing the “washing out” of bacteria from the duct by normal flow. Bacteria walk up the duct and cause an ascending infection.

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22
Q

An overweight 40 year old Native American woman presents with a long history of recurrent RUQ pain. She presents today because she had an acute onset of colicky abdominal pain and abdominal distention. What could be causing her condition?

A

This patient has gallstone ileus. This happens when inflammation of the gallbladder wall causes rupture and fistula formation with the small bowel. Now the large stones can enter the small bowel and obstruct it.

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23
Q

An 80 year old woman presents with vague RUQ pain after meals that sometimes radiates to her right scapula. She has a history of gallstones, but has not felt like this in 20 years. What is likely causing her condition?

A

An elderly woman with a history of gallstones, especially porcelain gallbladder, presenting with cholecystitis, a condition of middle-aged women, could likely have gallbladder carcinoma.

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24
Q

What cells does the tumor shown below arise from?

A

Gallbladder adenocarcinoma arises from glandular epithelium in the gallbladder wall.

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25
Q

What is the earliest presentation of jaundice?

A

Scleral icterus

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26
Q

What causes jaundice?

A

Disturbances in bilirubin metabolism that increases serum bilirubin levels > 2.5mg/dL.

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27
Q

How long do RBCs typically live for and what marks the end of their lives?

A

120 days. The macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system in the spleen gobble them up.

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28
Q

You eat a meal and CCK causes gallbladder contraction and release of bile into the small bowel. What happens to the conjugated bilirubin present within the bile?

A

Intestinal flora convert it to urobilinogen. This is what makes the stool brown. It is also partially reabsorbed into the blood, filtered by the kidney, making the urine yellow.

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29
Q

A 40 year old man presents with colicky RUQ pain that waxes and wanes. He also has jaundice. UA reveals darkened urine. Name 2 conditions that could cause him to have jaundice.

A

1) Extravascular hemolysis: massive digestion of RBCs by splenic macrophages. 2) Ineffective erythropoiesis: death of RBCs within bone marrow results consumption by bone marrow macrophages. In both cases, excessive production of UCB results in a high serum concentration of UCB that exceeds the conjugating ability of the liver. This causes jaundice due to high serum levels of UCB.

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30
Q

A 40 year old man presents with colicky RUQ pain that waxes and wanes. He also has jaundice. UA reveals darkened urine. Why is his urine dark and why does he have colicky pain?

A

Once the liver catches up conjugating the UCB in the blood, you have excessive amounts of conjugated bilirubin in the bile. The results in increased amounts of urine urobilinogen, making the urine dark. Increased concentration of conjugated bilirubin in the bile also can cause pigmented bilirubin gallstones, which would be responsible for his colicky pain.

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31
Q

Why is the dark urine seen in patients with jaundice not due to high levels of unconjugated bilirubin?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin is not water soluble and is absent in the urine. The urine is dark because the liver is on overdrive conjugating bilirubin. The conjugated bilirubin is converted to urobilinogen by normal flora, filtered by the kidneys and excreted in the urine, making it dark.

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32
Q

Why do you put a newborn baby by a window with good sunlight?

A

Uridine glucuronyl transferase (UGT) activity is low in newborns and thus ability to conjugate UCB is initially low, increasing serum UCB levels and causing jaundice. This is important because UCB is fat soluble, can deposit in the basal ganglia and cause neurological deficits or death in the newborn.

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33
Q

Treatment to prevent kernicterus

A

Kernicterus happens in newborns as a result of UCB deposition in the basal ganglia. Phototherapy makes serum UCB water soluble. Water soluble UCB can now leak out in the urine.

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34
Q

A 30 year old woman is pregnant and has a miscarriage. On delivery of the fetus, it was very jaundiced. What similar genetic condition allows people to live without clinical symptoms?

A

The child had Crigler-Najjar syndrome, due to absence of UGT causing high serum UCB levels and fatal kernicterus. The more mild form that only causes jaundice with stress is Gilbert syndrome, which is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by mildly low UGT activity.

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35
Q

A surgeon enters the abdomen for a cholecystectomy. On visualization of the liver, it is dark black. Labs reveal elevated serum conjugated bilirubin levels. The patient does not have any clinical symptoms of jaundice or liver disease. What is his condition and what similar condition presents without a dark liver?

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome is a result in deficiency of bilirubin canalicular transport protein, causing conjugated bilirubin to leak out into the blood and build up in hepatocytes, making the liver black. A similar condition that happens without liver discoloration is Rotor syndrome.

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36
Q

A 40 year old overweight Native American woman presents with jaundice, pruritus, xanthomas, dark urine and pale stools. She has a history of gallstones and pancreatic carcinoma. What would you expect to see on lab values in this patient?

A

She has biliary tract obstruction causing obstructive jaundice. This results in back up of bile content into the blood, causing elevation in serum conjugated bilirubin (hence the dark urine), decreased urobilinogen (from decreased bile in intestine) and increased alkaline phosphatase (gallbladder epithelium death).

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37
Q

A 40 year old overweight Native American woman presents with jaundice, pruritus, xanthomas, dark urine and pale stools. She has a history of gallstones and pancreatic carcinoma. What is causing her to have pale stools, pruritus and xanthomas?

A

Pale stools: no bile is being secreted to emulsify the fat due to biliary tract obstruction. This results in steatorrhea and fat-soluble vitamin malabsorption. Pruritus: increased plasma bile acids. Xanthomas: hypercholesterolemia from decreased bile secretion.

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38
Q

Name 5 ways you can get obstructive jaundice.

A

Gallstones, pancreatic carcinoma, cholangiocarcinoma, parasites and liver fluke (C. sinensis)

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39
Q

A patient presents with dark urine and jaundice. Labs reveal increased serum conjugated bilirubin and unconjugated bilirubin. What would you expect urobilinogen levels to be in this patient?

A

This patient has viral hepatitis, which causes inflammation that disrupts hepatocytes and small bile ductules. Consequently, less bilirubin gets conjugated (due to hepatocyte damage) and less conjugated bilirubin gets secreted (due to damage to small bile ductules). This results in less conjugated bilirubin in the intestine where urobilinogen is formed = slight decrease in urobilinogen.

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40
Q

3 causes of viral hepatitis

A

Hepatitis virus, EBV and CMV.

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41
Q

What is responsible for the conjugated bilirubinemia seen in people with acute hepatitis?

A

Destruction of the small bile ductules.

42
Q

What is responsible for the unconjugated bilirubinemia seen in people with acute hepatitis?

A

If the hepatocytes are infected with hepatitis virus, they present viral proteins on their MHC-I that activate CD8+ T-cells. This results in cytotoxic killing of hepatocytes by apoptosis. Note the inflammatory infiltrate around the hepatocytes shown below.

43
Q

A 40 year old man presents with jaundice, dark urine, fever, malaise and nausea. He has had these symptoms for about 3 months. What liver enzymes would you expect to be elevated in this patient?

A

In acute hepatitis ALT is generally > AST and both are elevated.

44
Q

A 40 year old man presents with jaundice, dark urine, fever, malaise and nausea. He has had these symptoms for about 6 months. Where would you most likely see inflammation in the patient’s liver biopsy?

A

In chronic hepatitis, inflammation is predominately located around portal tracts (shown below).

45
Q

Major complication of chronic hepatitis

A

Cirrhosis

46
Q

Acute, not chronic, hepatitis from hepatitis virus transmitted fecal-orally and common in travelers.

A

Hepatitis A (HAV)

47
Q

Acute, not chronic, hepatitis from hepatitis virus transmitted fecal-orally and common in contaminated water or undercooked seafood.

A

Hepatitis E (HEV)

48
Q

What serology markers can tell you if someone has active HAV/HEV infection and if they have developed immunity to HAV/HEV?

A

Anti-virus IgM = active infection. Anti-virus IgG = prior infection or immunization (HAV is only available for immunization)

49
Q

A pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatitis (liver failure with massive liver necrosis). What hepatitis virus was she most likely infected by?

A

HEV

50
Q

What is the key marker of HBV infection? How do you know if it is chronic or acute hepatitis from HBV?

A

Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAG). HBsAG is the 1st serological marker to rise. Its presence for > 6 months = chronic hepatitis.

51
Q

Phases of acute hepatitis to resolution

A

1) Acute phase: + HBsAG (marks infection) and IgM HBcAB (marks body fighting off infection) 2) Window phase: IgM HBcAB is still present, but knocked out HBsAG. 3) Resolved phase HBsAG is still gone, and protective IgG HBsAB and IgG HBcAB are present on serology.

52
Q

Phases of chronic hepatitis

A

Chronic: 6+ months w/+ HBsAB, presence of IgG HBcAB, absence of IgG HBsAB

53
Q

What serology marker indicates that your body has defeated the hepatitis B infection?

A

IgG HBsAB (Hepatitis B surface antibody). This is what you use to immunize against the virus.

54
Q

What serology marker indicates that your body is fighting the hepatitis B infection?

A

IgM or IgG HBcAB (Hepatitis B core antibody)

55
Q

What serology marker indicates that you are currently infected and contagious with hepatitis B?

A

HBeAG (hepatitis B enveloped antigen)

56
Q

What hepatitis viruses can only be transmitted via childbirth, unprotected intercourse, IV drug abuse and very rarely through blood transfusions?

A

HBV and HCV have parenteral transmission.

57
Q

What type of hepatitis is most often caused by HBV?

A

Acute, only 20% of people go on to develop chronic hepatitis.

58
Q

What type of hepatitis is often caused by HCV?

A

HCV typically causes acute hepatitis that progresses to chronic disease in most people.

59
Q

What serological markers can you use to determine infection by HCV?

A

HCV-RNA test confirms infection. Decreased RNA levels indicate recover, persistence of RNA indicates chronic disease.

60
Q

What is the most severe kind of hepatitis D infection?

A

HDV requires HBV to infect. HDV superimposed on HBV infection is more severe than coinfection by HDV and HBV at the same time.

61
Q

What liver condition is shown below?

A

Cirrhosis, note the broad bands of fibrosis with nodules of regenerating hepatocytes.

62
Q

What cells are the key mediators of hepatic cirrhosis?

A

Stellate cells. They lie beneath the endothelial cells lining the sinusoids and secrete TGF-beta.

63
Q

List 4 clinical findings in patients with portal hypertension from cirrhosis.

A

Ascites, cognitive splenomegaly (hypersplenism), portosystemic shunts (esophageal varices) and hepatorenal syndrome (renal failure from cirrhosis).

64
Q

What clinical symptoms might patient with cirrhosis present with because there is decreased liver detoxification?

A

1) Mental status changes, asterixis (tremor) and coma from ammonia build up. 2) Gynecomastia, spider angiomata and palmar erythema from estrogen build up 3) Jaundice from bilirubin build up

65
Q

What clinical symptoms might arise in a patient with cirrhosis due to decreased liver protein synthesis?

A

Hypoalbuminemia = decreased oncotic pressure in vasculature and edema. Decreased production of coagulation factors and loss of activation of vitamin K by epoxide reductase = Coagulopathy.

66
Q

How is coagulopathy followed in patient’s with liver disease?

A

Although PT and PTT both rise, PT is used to follow the coagulopathy just like Warfarin.

67
Q

What is the most common cause of liver disease in the West?

A

Alcohol-Related Liver Disease

68
Q

A patient has been an alcoholic for the past 15 years. He starts to show symptoms of edema, decreased blot clotting and esophageal varices. What would you expect gross examination of his liver to look like? What about histologic examination?

A

The first change in Alcohol-Related Liver Disease is fatty liver. This is reversible with abstinence, and grossly presents as a heavy, greasy liver. Microscopically you see fat accumulation within the hepatocytes.

69
Q

What liver pathology is associated with binge drinking?

A

Alcoholic hepatitis. This is due to direct hepatocyte damage by acetaldehyde.

70
Q

A 61 year old man presents with painful hepatomegaly. Labs reveal an elevated ALT and an even higher AST. He has a long history of alcohol abuse. What would you expect to see on liver biopsy?

A

He likely has alcoholic hepatitis. Swelling, ballooning of the hepatocytes, necrosis, inflammation and Mallory bodies would be seen on biopsy.

71
Q

What are Mallory bodies made of?

A

Damaged intermediate filaments within the hepatocytes, a result of alcoholic hepatitis.

72
Q

Why is AST > ALT elevation is alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Alcohol is a mitochondrial poison. AST is located in the mitochondria, resulting in a preferential AST elevation.

73
Q

Why do 10-20% of alcoholics develop liver cirrhosis?

A

Secondary to chronic injury to the hepatocytes.

74
Q

A patient presents with jaundice, painful hepatomegaly and edema. He has no history of alcohol abuse. Labs reveal elevated AST and an even hight ALT. What is this condition associated with?

A

Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver Disease presents with fatty change, hepatitis and/or cirrhosis in the absence of alcohol abuse. It is associated with obesity, but is a diagnosis of exclusion.

75
Q

A 70 year old man presents with bronze skin and diabetes. He came in today because he had a cardiac arrhythmia the night before. He also notes gonadal dysfunction. Labs reveal increased ferritin, high serum Fe, increased percent saturation and decreased TIBC. What is causing this patient’s condition?

A

This patient has hemochromatosis that deposited Fe in his skin, pancreas, heart and testicles and caused organ damage. Excess Fe depositing in tissues causes organ damage by Fe-induced free radical damage (via the Fenton reaction).

76
Q

Fe deposition in tissues without organ damage?

A

Hemosiderosis

77
Q

Why are enterocytes so crucial in prevention of primary hemochromatosis?

A

Almost all dietary Fe is taken up by enterocytes in the GI tract. Enterocytes hold onto that Fe until it senses there is a need for it, then it releases Fe into the blood stream. In primary hemochromatosis, enterocyte regulation is disrupted, Fe enters straight into the blood and deposits in tissues because of excess vascular Fe, resulting in hemosiderosis and hemochromatosis.

78
Q

Most common cause of primary hemochromatosis?

A

HFE gene mutation, most commonly C282Y

79
Q

Most common cause of secondary hemochromatosis?

A

Blood transfusions. Each bag of blood the patient receives is excess Fe that can deposit in tissues causing hemosiderosis, and later cause damage and hemochromatosis.

80
Q

Classic triad of hemochromatosis

A

Cirrhosis (liver damage), secondary diabetes (damage to islets = bronze diabetes) and bronze skin.

81
Q

What would you expect the TIBC (total iron binding capacity) lab value to be if a patient’s ferritin is increased?

A

Decreased because transferrin proteins are completely saturated with Fe and there is no more binding capacity.

82
Q

Which biopsy is from a patient suffering from hemochromatosis?

A

The top image is hemosiderin from Fe deposition. The bottom image is lipofuscin in hepatocytes, a “wear and tear” brown pigment that piles up in the lysosomes from peroxidized lipids. You differentiate the two with a Prussian blue stain (shown below), which will stain the hemosiderin and not the lipofuscin.

83
Q

A 70 year old man presents with bronze skin and diabetes. He came in today because he had a cardiac arrhythmia the night before. He also notes gonadal dysfunction. Labs reveal increased ferritin, high serum Fe, increased percent saturation and decreased TIBC. How do you treat this patient? What is he at risk for if you don’t treat him?

A

Treat by removing RBCs through phlebotomy. If you don’t he is at risk for hepatocellular carcinoma due to free radical damage to DNA and development of cancerous hepatocytes.

84
Q

A 10 year old boy is brought to the clinic because of postural rigidity and a tremor. His parents also describe symptoms of dementia. On physical examination you note hepatomegaly and scleral icterus. What is causing his condition?

A

This patient has Wilson disease. This is an autosomal defect in the ATP7B gene that normally codes for hepatocyte copper ATP transport. This results in lack of Cu transport into the bile and lack of copper incorporation into ceruloplasmin (protein that carries Cu in the blood). Cu builds up in hepatocytes, leaks into the serum and deposits in tissues. In tissue it causes damage by copper-mediated production of hydroxy free radicals.

85
Q

A 10 year old boy is brought to the clinic because of postural rigidity and a tremor. His parents also describe symptoms of dementia. On physical examination you note hepatomegaly and scleral icterus. What should you treat him with and what is he at risk for if you don’t treat?

A

Treat with D-penicillamine (copper chelating agent). If you don’t he is at risk for hepatocellular carcinoma.

86
Q

A 10 year old boy is brought to the clinic because of postural rigidity and a tremor. His parents also describe symptoms of dementia. On physical examination you note hepatomegaly and scleral icterus. List 3 things you would expect to find on his labs.

A

In Wilson disease you get increased urinary copper, decreased serum ceruloplasmin and increased copper on liver biopsy.

87
Q

A 40 year old woman presents with obstructive jaundice and cirrhosis. She also has a history of Lupus and Sjogren’s. Labs reveal antimitochondrial antibody in the serum. What is causing her condition?

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis is an autoimmune granulomatous destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts and is commonly associated with other autoimmune diseases. Note antimitochondrial antibody is a marker for this disease.

88
Q

A 37 year old woman presents with a history of ulcerative colitis. She also has obstructive jaundice and cirrhosis. Labs reveal p-ANCA. What is causing her condition?

A

He has primary sclerosing cholangitis. This is from inflammation and fibrosis of intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts, note the periductal fibrosis with an ‘onion-skin’ appearance on biopsy.

89
Q

A 37 year old woman presents with a history of ulcerative colitis. She also has obstructive jaundice and cirrhosis. Labs reveal p-ANCA. What would you expect imaging of the bile ducts to look like in this patient?

A

Uninvolved regions of the bile duct in primary sclerosing cholangits are dilated and result in a beaded appearance on imaging.

90
Q

A 37 year old woman presents with a history of ulcerative colitis. She also has obstructive jaundice and cirrhosis. Labs reveal p-ANCA. What serious complication is she at risk for?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma (cancer of the bile ducts)

91
Q

A 5 year old has a fever and a runny nose. His mom gives him aspirin and he develops hypoglycemia, elevated liver enzymes, nausea, vomiting fulminant liver failure and encephalopathy. What caused him to go downhill so fast?

A

He has Reye Syndrome. This is often seen in children with viral illnesses that take aspirin. This results in mitochondrial damage of the hepatocytes.

92
Q

When would you actually consider giving a child aspirin?

A

Kawasaki’s syndrome. This is a vasculitis that presents with conjunctivitis and fever that mimics a viral illness, but can cause cardiac death if the child is not given Aspirin.

93
Q

A 23 year old pregnant female presents to the ED in shock. CT scan of the abdomen reveals bleeding from the liver and intraperitoneal hemorrhage. What drug could have caused this to happen to her?

A

Oral contraceptive use can cause development of a benign subcapsular tumor of the hepatocytes, a hepatic adenoma. Typically these regress upon cessation of the drug, but can rupture during pregnancy and cause intraperitoneal hemorrhage due to estrogen-promotion of rapid tumor growth.

94
Q

What are risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis and aflatoxins derived from Aspergillus (3rd world countries have this due to long-term storage of grains).

95
Q

Why do people in 3rd world countries have increased incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Aspergillus grows in areas where grain is stored for long periods of time. Aflatoxins derived from the fungus induce p53 mutations and can cause cancer.

96
Q

A 60 year old man with a history of hepatocellular carcinoma presents with painful hepatomegaly and ascites. What serious complication is he at risk for?

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome. Hepatocellular carcinoma loves to invade the hepatic vein and cause thrombosis and obstruction. This would lead to liver necrosis and death.

97
Q

Why does hepatocellular carcinoma have such a poor prognosis?

A

Tumors are often detected late because symptoms are masked by cirrhosis.

98
Q

Serum tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

99
Q

What is the most common type of liver cancer?

A

Metastasis from colon, pancreas, lung and breast.

100
Q

How might you be able to delineate between metastatic liver cancer and primary liver cancer on physical exam?

A

Metastatic liver cancer will have multiple nodules on the free edge on the liver when you palpate it.